Wrist fractures; ankle fractures Flashcards

1
Q

Label A-D

A

A: scaphoid
B: Lunate
C: triquetrum
D: Pisiform

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2
Q

What is a Monteggia fracture? [1]

A

A fracture of the proximal or middle third of the ulna with posterior dislocation of the radial head.

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3
Q

Which bones are typically broken during a Colles’ fracture? [2]

What is meant by a Colles fracture [1]

A

Colles:
- Distal radius fracture
- There is an associated fracture of the ulna styloid in around 50% of cases.

Typically occurs due to FOOSH impaction with the forarm in dorsiflexion.

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4
Q

Explain the typical presentation of a Colles fracture [3]

A

Wrist pain and swelling
* Pain and swelling usually occur immediately after the fracture is sustained
* Movement at the wrist is painful

Wrist deformity
* Colles’ fractures typically cause a ‘dinner-fork’ deformity of the wrist, caused by dorsal displacement of the distal fragment of the radius.

Paresthesia and weakness
* If the fracture causes neurological damage this may result in paraesthesia and weakness of the wrist and/or fingers
* The median nerve is the most common nerve to be damaged by a Colles’ fracture, affecting up to 12% of cases caused by low-energy trauma and up to 30% of cases caused by high-energy trauma

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5
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for a Colles’ fracture? [1]
How does it appear ^? [1]

A

Plain radiograph using 2 views:
- AP (anteroposterior) and lateral view are sufficient for diagnosis although oblique views are sometimes included.
- Transverse fracture fracture is typically 2.5cm proximal to the radio-carpal (wrist) joint.

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6
Q

How do you manage a Colles’ fracture? [4]

A

Choice of management of a Colles’ fracture depends on the severity of the fracture. The most common treatment method is closed reduction with immobilisation with a plaster cast

open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) used if:
* Unstable fracture
* Significant angulation of the distal fragment of the radius
* Usually defined as >10 degrees dorsal angulation
* Closed reduction is unsuccessful
* Comminuted fracture

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7
Q

Describe some complications of a Colles’ fracture [3]

A

Malunion
- Lead to dinner-fork deformity

Median nerve damage
- May lead to post-traumatic carpal tunnel syndrome

Rupture of EPL tendon
- Clinical features of an EPL tendon rupture include the inability to extend the interphalangeal joint of the thumb

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8
Q

Describe what is meant by a Galeazzi fracture [1]

How does a Galeazzi fracture typically occur? [1]

A

Galeazzi fracture
- This is a fracture of the radius which usually occurs at the junction of the middle and distal third of the radial shaft
- This injury is typically caused by a FOOSH with the elbow in flexion

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9
Q

Pain in the anatomical snuffbox would suggest which type of fracture? [1]

A

Carpal bone fracture:
- The most common carpal bone fracture is a fracture of the scaphoid bone

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10
Q

Describe what is meant by a Smith’s fracture? [1]

A

Fracture of the distal radius with volar angulation of the distal fragment

Often described as a reverse Colles’

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11
Q
A
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12
Q

Describe what is meant by a Barton fracture [1]

A

Barton fractures are fractures of the distal radius.

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13
Q

What type of fracture is depicted here? [1]

A

PA and lateral of a Collesfracture (note the dorsal angulation of the distal radial fragment)

Additionally, a fracture of the ulnar styloid is seen

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14
Q

What are the signs of a scaphoid fracture? [5]

A

Point of maximal tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox
This is a highly sensitive (around 90-95%), - - but poorly specific test (< 40%) in isolation

Wrist joint effusion
- Hyperacute injuries (< 4hrs old), and delayed presentations (>4days old) may not present with joint effusions.

Pain elicited by telescoping of the thumb (pain on longitudinal compression)

Tenderness of the scaphoid tubercle (on the volar aspect of the wrist)

Pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist

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15
Q

Describe the management for a scaphoid fracture

A

Initial management
* immobilisation with a Futuro splint or standard below-elbow backslab
* referral to orthopaedics: clinical review with further imaging should be arranged for7-10 days later when initial radiographs are inconclusive

Orthopaedic management:
* undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist: cast for 6-8 weeks
* displaced scaphoid waist fractures: requires surgical fixation
* proximal scaphoid pole fractures: require surgical fixation

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16
Q

Key complication of a scaphoid fracture? [1]

A

avascular necrosis

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17
Q

Ankle fractures involve which bones? [2]

A

Ankle fractures involve the lateral malleolus (distal fibula) or the medial malleolus (distal tibia).

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18
Q

Name and describe the classification system used for ankle fractures

A

Weber classification:
A
- Fracture below the level of the syndesmosis; typically from an inversion injury of the ankle.

B
- Fracture begins at the level of the syndesmosis and extends proximally in an oblique fashion.
- When accompanied by a fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture of the deltoid ligament, the ankle is considered unstable. Typically from an eversion injury of the ankle.

C
- Fractures above the syndesmosis, generally associated with syndesmotic injury.
- May be associated with an avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture of the deltoid ligament.
- Always unstable, requiring fixation.

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19
Q

Describe what is meant by a Maisonneuve fracture [1]

A

A Maisonneuve fracture describes a fracture of the proximal fibula combined with an unstable ankle injury.
- Sometimes considered a high Weber C
- On occasion the energy from an ankle injury will pass through the ankle and syndesmosis and exit at the proximal fibula

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20
Q

Describe the clinical features of ankle fractures

A

Pain & tenderness

Soft tissue injury
- Swelling
- bruising / blistering

Deformity

Neurovascular deficit
- include the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses, capillary refill in the toes and sensation over the dorsum of the foot, the first web space, the distal sole of the foot and the heel.

21
Q

Describe what is meant by the Ottawa ankle rules [1]

A

The Ottawa ankle rules help differentiate ankle injuries that require radiographic assessment from those that do not: only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone AND one or more of the following is found:
* Boney tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of the lateral malleolus OR
* Boney tenderness at the posterior edge or tip of the medial malleolus OR
* Inability to weight bear immediately and in the A+E department for four steps

22
Q

What is meant by a pilon fracture? [1]

A

Pilon fractures: Involve the distal end of the tibia and may extend into the ankle joint.

23
Q

Describe a very basic overview for Weber A-C fracture management [3]

A

Weber A fractures:
- Generally stable so surgical management is rarely indicated and they can be discharged from A&E in a walking boot with analgesia
- Full weight bearing
- 6 weeks

Weber B & C:
- Require open reduction and internal fixation and likely to need syndesmosis repair
- Non-weight bearing following surgery
- Immobilisation in cast following surgery until bony healing has occurred (usually 6-8 weeks)

24
Q

Describe the managment plan for an open ankle fracture [3]

A

Debridement and washout and intravenous antibiotics

Open reduction and internal fixation if the wounds are small and there is a low risk of infection

External fixation if the wounds are significant or likely to need subsequent skin grafting or there is a high risk of soft tissue infection

Then:
- Non-weight bearing except if an intramedullary nail is used; 6-8 weeks

25
Q

Describe the management plan for a tibial plafond (pilon) fracture [3]

A
  • Open reduction and internal fixation if affecting the articular surface or stability compromised
  • Conservative if position maintained and joint stable and articular surface intact
  • 6-8 weeks non-weight bearing and subsequent weight-bearing immobilisation up to further 6 weeks
26
Q

Describe the management plan for a talus fracture [3]

A
  • Conservative if position adequate and articular surfaces of ankle and subtalar joints are preserved
  • Open reduction and internal fixation or external fixation if position is not maintained, articular surface affected or significant comminution indicating significant instability
  • Non-weight bearing for 6-8 weeks
27
Q

What is the most commonly involved ligament in ankle sprains? [1]

Quesmed flaschards

A

Anterior talofibular ligament.

28
Q

The major risk of scaphoid fracture is avascular necrosis, which would present with [2]

A

The major risk of scaphoid fracture is avascular necrosis, which would present with pain and stiffness at the wrist.

29
Q

What is a Jones’ fracture? [1]

What is the main complication of Jones’ fracture? [1]

A

A Jones fracture is a fracture of the proximal metadiaphyseal junction of the fifth metatarsal bone that involves the 4th-5th metatarsal articulation.
- High risk of non-union for that reason (15-30%).

30
Q

n

What is the nerve responsible for ankle dorsiflexion?

A

Deep peroneal nerve.

31
Q

What is a Lisfranc fracture? [1]

A

Lisfranc fracture or injury is an injury to the tarsometatarsal complex. It often occurs due to displacement between the second metatarsal and the middle cuneiform, which also affects the third, fourth and fifth metatarsals.

32
Q

What is a Pott’s fracture? [1]

How does it occur? [1]

A

Pott’s fracture is used to describe a bimalleolar fracture (fracture of both medial and lateral malleoli) or trimalleolar fracture (fracture of medial and lateral malleoli plus distal tibia).
* It occurs with forced eversion of the foot.

33
Q

What is the most common site of a metacarpal bone fracture? [1]

A

Most commonly, the neck of the metacarpal bone is fractured

34
Q

What position do you plaster a scaphoid fracture in? [1]

A

‘beer in glass’ position

35
Q

Which part of the scaphoid is most likely to be fractured? [1]

A

Waist of the scaphoid (65% of fractures).

36
Q

What is the commonest soft tissue injury associated with Colles’ fracture? [1]

A

Injury of the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) is seen in up to 40% of Colles’ fracture cases.

37
Q

What is the nerve responsible for ankle plantar flexion? [1]

A

Tibial nerve

38
Q

What is the gold standard imaging method for calcaneal fractures? [1]

A

CT

39
Q

PassMed:

[Movement] of the foot is the most common mechanism of ankle sprain
- Which ligament is commonly affected by this? [1]

A

Inversion of the foot is the most common mechanism of ankle sprain:
- Anterior talofibular ligament is the most anterior but also the weakest of the lateral ligaments

40
Q

What is the main prognostic factor for restoring functionality in both-bone forearm fractures? [1]

A

Restoration of radial bow

41
Q

What does an x-ray of the shoulder in a case of a frozen shoulder show? [1]

A

There is a normal shoulder x-ray.

42
Q

What does a shoulder x-ray in a patient with chronic supraspinatus inflammation show? [1]

A

Calcification in the supraspinatus.

43
Q

What is radioulnar synostosis? [1]

A

This is a bony bridge that develops between the head of radius and ulna following trauma or surgery.

44
Q

Scaphoid fracture treatment is dependent on the patient and type of fracture.

What are the different fracture types and their treatment? [3]

A

undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist
* cast for 6-8 weeks
* union is achieved in > 95%
certain groups e.g. professional sports people may benefit from early surgical intervention

displaced scaphoid waist fractures
* requires surgical fixation

proximal scaphoid pole fractures
* require surgical fixation

45
Q

Fracture:
- Intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal
- Impact on flexed metacarpal, caused by fist fights

Name? [1]

A

Bennett’s fracture

46
Q

Dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture

Fall on outstretched hand with forced pronation

Name of fracture?

A

Monteggia’s fracture

47
Q

Radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint? [1]

A

Galeazzi fracture

48
Q

Describe how you need to position scaphoid for an x-ray for a suspected scaphoid fracture [1]

A

Ulnar deviation AP needed for visualization of scaphoid
- moves the scaphoid away from the radius and rotates it in the palmer aspect, minimising superimposition and achieving a pure PA projection

49
Q
A