Orthopaedic MCQs Flashcards
A 35-year-old male with a T4 spinal cord injury presented with sudden-onset severe headache, facial flushing, and profuse sweating above the level of injury. His blood pressure was markedly elevated at 180/110 mmHg, significantly above his baseline. Upon examination, a kinked urinary catheter was identified and promptly corrected, leading to rapid resolution of symptoms.
What is causing this presentation? [1]
What is the name for this presentation? [1]
A 35-year-old male with a T4 spinal cord injury presented with sudden-onset severe headache, facial flushing, and profuse sweating above the level of injury. His blood pressure was markedly elevated at 180/110 mmHg, significantly above his baseline. Upon examination, a kinked urinary catheter was identified and promptly corrected, leading to rapid resolution of symptoms.
Which of the following could be a cause of this presentation?
Overdistended bladder
* An overdistended bladder is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia in individuals with spinal cord injuries at or above the T6 level. Other potential causes include bowel distension, skin irritations, or any noxious stimuli below the level of injury.
This image shows a herniation at which level
L1/L2
L2/L3
L3/L4
L4/L5
L5/S1
L4/L5
Conus medullaris ends at
L1/L2
L2/L3
L3/L4
L4/L5
L5/S1
Conus medullaris ends at
L1/L2
L2/L3
L3/L4
L4/L5
L5/S1
Which of the following is the most sensitive test for an ACL injury?
Anterior Drawer Test
Pivot Shift Test
Posterior Drawer Test
Lachman’s Test
Slocum Test
Which of the following is the most sensitive test for an ACL injury?
Anterior Drawer Test
Pivot Shift Test
Posterior Drawer Test
Lachman’s Test
Slocum Test
A patient suffers from a NOF.
Which artery is most likely impacted to cause avascular necrosis?
Medial circumflex femoral artery
Lateral circumflex femoral artery
Artery of the ligamentum teres
Obturator artery
Superior gluteal artery
A patient suffers from a NOF.
Which artery is most likely impacted to cause avascular necrosis?
Medial circumflex femoral artery
Lateral circumflex femoral artery
Artery of the ligamentum teres
Obturator artery
Superior gluteal artery
A patient presents with a ‘popeye’ appearance in their arm.
Rupture to a tendon to which of the following is the most likely cause?
Coracoid process of the scapula
Greater tuberosity of the humerus
Lesser tuberosity of the humerus
Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula:
- Long head of bicep is the most common cause of bicep tendon tear - which attaches here
Bennet’s fracture
Mallet fracture
Boxer’s fracture
Rolando’s fracture
Tuft fracture
What is the mechanism of this injury? [1]
Mallet fracture
- usually caused by a traumatic impaction blow (i.e. sudden forced flexion) to the tip of the finger in the extended position.
A patient presents with ?spinal cord compression. Whilst you are arranging an MRI, what dose of dexamethasone would you prescribe?
6 mg
8 mg
10 mg
16 mg
24 mg
A patient presents with ?spinal cord compression. Whilst you are arranging an MRI, what dose of dexamethasone would you prescribe?
6 mg
8 mg
10 mg
16 mg
24 mg
Name a complication of this fracture (that isn’t nerve related) [1]
Supracondylar humerus (and tibial shaft) fractures are the most common cause of compartment syndrome
Name this test
Thompson Test
McMurray’s Test
Anterior Drawer Test
Lachman’s Test
Talar Tilt Test
Thompson Test (for Achilles tendon rupture)
McMurray’s Test (for meniscal tears in the knee)
Anterior Drawer Test (Ankle) (for assessing ankle ligament instability)
Lachman’s Test (for ACL injury in the knee)
Talar Tilt Test (for assessing lateral ankle instability)
Which part of is the most susceptible to osteomyelitis in children?
C = metaphysis
- most vascularised in children
In adults: A - epiphysis
A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of sudden, localized numbness and tingling on the outer aspect of her right thigh, which has been present for the past week. She reports feeling as if her thigh is “falling asleep” frequently, especially when sitting for prolonged periods. Additionally, she mentions recent rapid weight gain over the past few months. Her past medical history includes obesity and a sedentary lifestyle. On examination, there is decreased sensation along the lateral thigh but no motor weakness. Physical examination reveals no other significant findings, and there is no history of trauma or surgery to the affected area.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Meralgia paresthetica
B. Femoral neuropathy
C. Lumbosacral radiculopathy
D. Piriformis syndrome
E. Hip osteoarthritis with referred pain
Correct Answer:
A. Meralgia paresthetica
Explanation:
Meralgia paresthetica is caused by compression of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, often due to increased abdominal pressure, such as from weight gain, which can compress the nerve as it passes under the inguinal ligament. This condition typically presents with sensory symptoms (numbness and tingling) on the lateral thigh, without motor weakness.
A patient has a dynamic hip screw placed in them.
What is the recommendation for mobilisation after the surgery?
Immediate post-operative weight bearing
Non-weight bearing for 2 weeks
Non-weight bearing for 4 weeks
Non-weight bearing for 6 weeks
A patient has a dynamic hip screw placed in them.
What is the recommendation for mobilisation after the surgery?
Immediate post-operative weight bearing
Non-weight bearing for 2 weeks
Non-weight bearing for 4 weeks
Non-weight bearing for 6 weeks
The following test is:
* The patient is seated with their neck in a neutral position.
* The examiner applies downward pressure on the patient’s head while tilting and rotating the head to the affected side (the side where pain or symptoms are suspected).
Lhermitte’s sign
Thompson’s sign
Kernig’s Sign
Brudzinski’s Sign
Spurling’s sign
Spurling’s sign
