Questions (Orthopaedics) Flashcards

1
Q

Describe what is meant by autonomic dysreflexia [1]
What are typical symptoms? [3]

A

Autonomic dysreflexia is caused by excessive sympathetic activity in the absence of parasympathetic supply in a high spinal lesion.:
- It rarely occurs in lesions below the level of T6
- Hypertension, sweating, and flushing are typical symptoms

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2
Q

How would you differentiate between supraspinatous muscle and nerve injury? [2]

A

Pain:
* Damage to the supraspinatus muscle itself would be painful
* painless nature suggests damage to the suprascapular nerve, which supplies the supra- and infraspinatus.

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3
Q

Describe a common MCQ stem for damage to suprascapular nerve [1]

A

Moreover, the mechanism of injury is suggestive – the shoulder straps of a rucksack (likely to be used during a hiking holiday) on the root of the neck likely caused prolonged pressure on the suprascapular nerve, with secondary neuropraxia

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4
Q
A

Normal x-ray

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5
Q

What would you like to do with the aspirated synovial fluid? For ?SA

Send for gram staining, cultures and sensitivity and crystal analysis
Urgent pH analysis
Discard it safely
Needs urgent gram staining only

A

Send for gram staining, cultures and sensitivity and crystal analysis

It is important to urgently rule out an infective cause, especially septic arthritis. Gram staining can be done fairly quickly; cultures and sensitivity may take a little longer. To check the synovial fluid for crystal is important if gout or Pseudogout is suspected.

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6
Q

How would you manage septic arthritis?

Prolonged oral antibiotics
Joint replacement
Vigorous Intravenous antibiotics and analgesia
Intravenous antibiotics and surgical washout of affected joint

A
  • Analgesia and NSAIDs and provide pain relief and decrease inflammation
  • Underlying cause will need to be treated with intravenous antibiotics initially followed by a prolonged course of oral antibiotics
  • Needs a surgical washout of the joint to prevent destruction of the joint
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7
Q

?Gout

A

Synovial fluid is E is from Mr Jones’ knee.

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8
Q
A

Normal = A
Inflammatory, e.g. rheumatoid arthritis = C
Non-Inflammatory, e.g. Osteoarthritis = B
Hemorrhagic = F
Septic = D

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9
Q

Results from Mr Jones’ synovial fluid demonstrated presence of crystals. How they are best analysed?

Microscopic analysis under polarizing light
Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) stain
Ziehl-Neelsen staining
Congo red staining

A

Results from Mr Jones’ synovial fluid demonstrated presence of crystals. How they are best analysed?

Microscopic analysis under polarizing light
Periodic acid–Schiff (PAS) stain
Ziehl-Neelsen staining
Congo red staining

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10
Q

Why do you need to consider metabolic syndrome when thinking about gout? [1]

A

Metabolic syndrome is important to consider as patient with hyperuricaemia are at risk of cardiovascular disease, especially as Mr Jones has hypertension and family history of heart disease.

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11
Q

What is the normal serum urate level?

Upper limit of 230 μmol/L in males and 160 μmol/L in females
Upper limit of 360 μmol/L in males and 460 μmol/L in females
Upper limit of 380 μmol/L in males and 260 μmol/L in females
Upper limit of 430 μmol/L in males and 360 μmol/L in females

A

Upper limit of urate is 430 μmol/L in males and 360 μmol/L in females

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12
Q

How should an asymptomatic patient with a high serum urate be managed?

Do nothing as it may be incidental
Start them on allopurinol
Wait for them to develop symptoms
Address risk factors and modify lifestyle

A

Address risk factors and modify lifestyle

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13
Q

Vertebral fractures at T4 or above suggest []

A

Vertebral fractures at T4 or above suggest cancer rather than osteoporosis.

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14
Q

How can you tell if there is a rotator cuff injury? [1]

How do you distinguish this from a rotator cuff tear? [1]

A

Rotator cuff (impingement) syndrome because there is a painful arc when the arm is passively abducted.

However, the drop arm test indicates that there is a complete rotator cuff tear, rather than tendinitis
- A patient may be able to lower the arm slowly to 90 degrees because this uses mostly the deltoid muscle but, below 90 degrees, the arm will drop to the side.

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15
Q

A positive McMurray test and pain on the lateral aspect of the knee joint, a [] tear is likely.

A

positive McMurray test and pain on the lateral aspect of the knee joint, a lateral meniscal tear is likely.

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16
Q

Which of the following is true about acute osteomyelitis in children?

Spread from local cellulitis is the most common
Intravenous (IV) drug usage is an important risk factor
Salmonella species are the most common causative organism
The most common site is metaphyses of the femur
Bone scans can pick up abnormalities while X-rays cannot
#45410

A

The most common site is metaphyses of the femur

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17
Q
A

Patients often complain of pain in scaphoid fractures when pressure is applied to the anatomical snuffbox. Specialised scaphoid views (a scaphoid series) are recommended to ensure the bone is well visualised. This entails four views, as opposed to the normal two views for imaging of the wrist.

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18
Q

A radiologist examined the films and observed a single fracture of the carpal bone that articulates with most of the base of the third metacarpal bone.

Which of the following bones was most likely fractured?

Trapezium
Pisiform
Hamate
Triquetrum
Capitate
#45950

A

Capitate

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19
Q

Which of the following is the most common finding in patients with a Salter–Harris fracture?

A crush fracture
Growth plate sparing
Transverse fracture through the growth plate
A greenstick fracture
Fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis

A

Fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis

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20
Q

Which of these statements is true?

The humerus is most likely to lie posterior to the scapula
The regimental badge area over the left upper arm may be numb
The injury is likely to require operative intervention
A post-reduction X-ray is not usually performed
Associated rotator cuff injuries are rare

A

There may be associated neurological deficit in the area supplied by the axillary nerve, as this is most commonly damaged in anterior shoulder dislocations. Therefore, further tests or examination may be performed to rule these out.

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21
Q

m. An X-ray shows a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. You believe the fracture may have caused a nerve injury.

Which of the following describes the nerve roots of the affected nerve?

C5 and 6
C5, 6, 7, 8 and T1
C8 and T1
C5, 6 and 7
C5, 6, 7 and 8

A

C5 and 6

C5-6: axillary nerve
C5-7: musculocutaneous nerve
C5-T1: median and radial nerve
C8-T1: ulnar nerve

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22
Q

Lhermitte phenomenon secondary to cervical spondylosis.

How would this present? [1]

A

When shock-like pain occurs on neck flexion, it is called the Lhermitte phenomenon. It is due to cervical cord compression by osteophytes or midline disc herniation. It may also occur in multiple sclerosis

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23
Q
A
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24
Q

This patient presents with neurological deficits suggestive of conus medullaris syndrome. The level of cord compression is confirmed by MRI, which shows collection at the level of []

A

This patient presents with neurological deficits suggestive of conus medullaris syndrome. The level of cord compression is confirmed by MRI, which shows collection at the level of L1/L2.

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25
Q

After a game of squash, a 32-year-old female complains of pain at the lateral aspect of her right elbow, which radiates down the back of the forearm. She is diagnosed as having tennis elbow, epicondylitis of the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

Which one of the following muscles has an attachment at this site?

Coracobrachialis
Extensor digitorum
Flexor carpi radialis
Pronator teres
Triceps
#33137

A

Extensor digitorum

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26
Q

A 40-year-old male falls and injures his thumb while skiing. On examination, there is significant pain and laxity of the thumb on valgus stress and weakness of the pinch grasp.

What is the dx? [1]

A

Ulnar collateral ligament tear
- ‘Skier’s thumb’ refers to an acute injury where the ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the thumb’s metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint is partially or completely torn.
- Patients experience pain on the ulnar side of the MCP joint and may report weakness in grasping or pinching.
- his injury is commonly seen in skiers who fall with an abducted thumb against a ski pole or the ground
- The thumb appears hyperextended and laterally deviated with swelling and bruising.

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27
Q

Saturday night palsy occurs due to compression of the [] nerve.

How does it present? [2]

A

Saturday night palsy occurs due to compression of the radial nerve to the prolonged pressure applied on the mid-arm
- Paralysis or weakness of the hand and finger extensors

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28
Q

Which clinical test can you perform to help aid dx of de Quervian’s tenosynovitis [1]

A

Finkelsteins test

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29
Q

[] formation is a typical feature of steroid-induced osteoporosis on x-ray

A

exuberant callus formation is a typical feature of steroid-induced osteoporosis.

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30
Q

An ACL injurt can be ID by which test? [1]

A

Lachmann’s test

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31
Q

Rotational knee injury is most likely to cause which type of injury? [1]
Which signs upon examination that would indicate this injury? [3]

A

A meniscal tear:
- The notable symptom is knee locking.
- McMurray’s test is performed during examination, involving external and internal rotation of the flexed knee followed by forced extension
- Pain or an audible pop indicates pathology in the medial or lateral meniscus

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32
Q

An X-ray of the right arm demonstrates a mid-humeral shaft fracture

Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely to suffer?

Atrophy of the deltoid muscle
Inability to flex the wrist
Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger
Compartment syndrome
Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand

A

Loss of sensation to the dorsum of the right hand:
- Mid-humeral shaft fractures raise suspicions of radial nerve damage, as the radial nerve traverses the radial groove.

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33
Q

What is an occult fracture? [1]

Which of the following is the gold-standard investigation for a suspected occult fracture?

Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
Hip ultrasound scan
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
Positron-emission tomography (PET) scan
X-ray hip lateral view
#48508

A

An occult fracture is a fracture that is not apparent on initial imaging, usually X-ray

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

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34
Q

How can you distinguish scaphoid and lunate from their shape? [1]

A

lunate is found in the proximal row of the carpal bones of the wrist and is distinguished by the rest due to its crescent shape

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35
Q

Supracondylar humeral fractures are most likely to damage the [] nerve.

A

Median nerve

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36
Q

Give the cause of a positive Trendeleburg’s gait

A

Weakness or dysfunction of gluteus medius

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37
Q

A rupture of the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii is diagnosed.

To which of the following bony points does this tendon normally attach?

Coracoid process of the scapula
Greater tuberosity of the humerus
Lesser tuberosity of the humerus
Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

A

Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

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38
Q

Which artery that supplies the femoral head, if compromised, will lead to avascular necrosis? [1]

A

Medial femoral circumflex artery
- the lateral is typically not associated with NOF

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39
Q

anterior shoulder dislocations causes which change in upper arm sensation? [1]
Why? [1]

A

The regimental badge area over the left upper arm may be numb:
- There may be associated neurological deficit in the area supplied by the axillary nerve, as this is most commonly damaged in anterior shoulder dislocations.

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40
Q

Weakness and loss of bulk in which muscle group occurs because of carpal tunnel? [1]

A

Thenar muscles

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41
Q

Ptx is 92.

Treatment? [1]

A

Dynamic hip screw
- extracapsular fracture

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42
Q

What clinical sign will the patient most likely have? [1]

A

External rotation of the left leg:
- The radiograph demonstrates a left intertrochanteric fracture, manifesting clinically as hip pain, external rotation and shortening of the affected leg

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43
Q

What classification criteria is used to grade intracapsular NOF fractures? [1]

A

Garden

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44
Q

What classification criteria is used to grade tibial plateau fractures? [1]

A

schatzker

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45
Q

What is the name for this type of fracture? [1]

A

Mallet Finger is a finger deformity caused by disruption of the terminal extensor tendon distal to DIP joint
- usually caused by a traumatic impaction blow (i.e. sudden forced flexion) to the tip of the finger in the extended position.

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46
Q

is the

A
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47
Q

How would you treat this patient? [1]

A

** left intertrochanteric fracture**:
- open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)

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48
Q

A 35-year-old male falls while skiing. He has weakness of pincer grip and pain and laxity on the valgus stress test of his thumb.

What is the most likely injury?

Scaphoid fracture
Extensor pollicis longus strain
Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb injury
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
Bennett’s fracture

A

Ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb injury
- abduction force is exerted on the thumb in a fall.

NB: ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) of the thumb injury aka ‘skiers/gamekeeper’s thumb’

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49
Q

How does ulnar collateral ligament of thumb injury present? [2]

A

Patients typically describe weak pincer grip and reduced range of movement of the thumb at the metacarpophalangeal joints (MCPJ).

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50
Q

Which is the most common Salter-Harris fracture? [1]

Describe this fracture [1]

A

Salter–Harris type II fracture:
- fracture through the metaphysis sparing the epiphysis

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51
Q

Which nerve runs around the surgical neck of the humerus?

Median nerve
Anterior branch of the axillary nerve
Lateral cutaneous nerve
Posterior interosseous nerve
Radial nerve

A

Anterior branch of the axillary nerve

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52
Q

A young teenager attends the fracture clinic for a review of a fracture to his tibia and fibula. He has removed his plaster of Paris cast, and it is noted that he cannot dorsiflex his foot.

Which nerve has been damaged?

Tibial nerve
Obturator nerve
Sural nerve
Common peroneal nerve
Femoral nerve

A

Common peroneal nerve:
- emerges and divides into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves. The latter innervates the tibialis anterior, the main dorsiflexor of the foot.

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53
Q

Foot drop occurs because of which nerve being damaged? [1]

A

Common peroneal nerve injury

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54
Q

X-ray of the hip demonstrates an uncomplicated, intertrochanteric fracture.
What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

Total arthroplasty

Dynamic hip screw

Hemi-arthroplasty

CT to further characterise the fracture

MRI to further characterise the fracture

A

X-ray of the hip demonstrates an uncomplicated, intertrochanteric fracture.
What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

Dynamic hip screw

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55
Q

Common peroneal nerve injury presents as [3]

A

foot drop, weakness in foot eversion, and numbness over the dorsum of the foot

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56
Q

PC: Pain in forearm; hot and sweaty; shiny skin
PMH: Carpal tunnel syndrome surgery two months ago

Dx? [1]

A

Complex regional pain syndrome

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57
Q

[] and [] of the shoulder are highly suggestive of frozen shoulder

A

**Pain at night and on both active and passive movement **of the shoulder are highly suggestive of frozen shoulder

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58
Q

Cervical fracture x unable to support own airway.

What is the best method to maintain airway? [1]

A

Jaw thrust

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59
Q

A patient presents with symptoms of spinal cord compression.

What is the immediate management plan? [3]

A

Dexamethasone 16mg, urgent neurosurgical referral, MRI whole spine

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60
Q

lower back pain, radicular pain affecting both lower limbs and Neurogenic claudication = ? [1]

A

Spinal Stenosis

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61
Q

When does carpal tunnel often present worse? [1]
Why? [1]

A

Often worse at night
- people sleep weird angles; also lower BP

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62
Q

What is a key differential for spinal stenosis? [1]

How would you differentiate between them? [1]

Explain the differences in cause of presentation [1]

A

Peripheral vascular diseaes:

Both present with intermittent claudification

But spinal stenosis:
- neurogenic claudication caused by increased metabolic demands of compressed nerve roots that have become ischemic due to stenosis

PVD:
- vascular claudication, or pain in the legs while walking, is caused by insufficient blood flow

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63
Q

What are the red flags for lower back pain? [5]

A

Red flags for lower back pain
* age < 20 years or > 50 years
* history of previous malignancy
* night pain
* history of trauma
* systemically unwell e.g. weight loss, fever

NB: thoracic back pain is also a red flag

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64
Q

Compartment syndrome is most commonly associated with [] and [] fractures

A

Compartment syndrome is most commonly associated with supracondylar and tibial shaft fractures

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65
Q

A ptx fractures their ribs; severe pain; normal analgesia isn’t working.

What is the next appropriate step in managing the patient? [1]

A

Nerve blocks may be considered if a rib fracture is not controlled by normal analgesia

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66
Q

the combination of severe lower back pain, fever, and malaise x tenderness over lumbar spine = ? [1]

A

discitis

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67
Q

What is Meralgia parasthetica? [1]

What can it be caused by? [1]

A

Meralgia parasthetica: is an entrapment mononeuropathy of the LFCN - lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

Meralgia parasthetica can be caused by sudden weight gain

It most commonly originates from the L2/3 segments.

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68
Q

Knee locking and giving-way are common features of [] lesions

A

Knee locking and giving-way are common features of meniscal lesions

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69
Q

Dx of osteomyelitis; what part of the bone is most commonly affected in children?

Metaphysis
Diaphysis
Epiphysis
Periosteum
Medullary cavity

A

Metaphysis
- highly vascularised

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70
Q

Osteomyelitis most commonly affects which part of the bone in:

  • adults [1]
  • children [1]
A

Adult: epiphysis
Children: metaphysis

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71
Q

Describe this fracture [1]

A

Buckle, or torus, fractures are incomplete fractures of the shaft of a long bone that is characterised by bulging of the cortex

NB: Buckle is lower down than a salter harris

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72
Q

[] is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected Achilles tendon rupture

A

Ultrasound is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected Achilles tendon rupture

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73
Q

What is the Thompson test and how do you interpret it? [2]

A

The calf squeeze test, also known as the Thompson test:
* A positive result (i.e., no movement of the foot) indicates a likely rupture of the Achilles tendon.
* A negative result (i.e., normal plantarflexion of the foot) does not definitively rule out an Achilles tendon rupture.

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74
Q

What is the difference between Osgood-Schlatter to Osteochondritis dissecans? [1]

A

Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a pathological process affecting the subchondral bone (most often in the knee joint) with secondary effects on the joint cartilage, including pain, oedema, free bodies and mechanical dysfunction

Osgood-Schlatter disease is an apophysitis of the tibial tuberosity that causes anterior knee pain during adolescence and is usually self-limiting.
- It is thought to occur as a result of repetitive strain from the patella tendon at its insertion on the ossification centre (apophysis) of the tibial tuberosity.

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75
Q

Desribe the difference in presentation between OCD and Osgood-Schlatter [1]

A

Osteochondritis dissecans typically presents with knee pain after exercise, locking and ‘clunking’

Osgood-Schlatter disease may cause similar symptoms in children and adolescents but the pain is usually localized to the tendinous insertion with overlying tibial tuberosity tenderness and swelling.

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76
Q

Dx? [1]

A

Left subcapital fracture
- This diagnosis is based on the presence of a fracture line through the neck of the femur, just below the head, which is characteristic of a subcapital hip fracture.

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77
Q

A patient presents after a fall, and an x-ray demonstrates lateral talar shift and a fibular neck fracture. What is the eponymous name of this injury?
* Bosworth fracture
* Duverney fracture
* Maisonneuve fracture
* Segond fracture
* Tillaux fracture

A
  • Maisonneuve fracture
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78
Q

What mechanism of injury would cause a Maisonneuve fracture? [1]

A

The mechanism for this injury is forceful pronation and external rotation of the ankle.

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79
Q

X-ray features consistent with a [] fracture include an intra-articular fracture of the base of the first metacarpal bone

The mechanism for this injury is forced abduction of the thumb.

A

Bennet fracature

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80
Q

[type of fracture] would appear as an ulnar shaft fracture with dislocation of the radial head at the elbow

A

Monteggia fracture

81
Q

Describe exactly what Finklestein’s test is [1]

A

ulnar deviation of the hand with the thumb fully flexed and fingers wrapped around it

82
Q

Ptx presents with:
* wrist drop.
* 0/5 power in wrist extension and weakened triceps extension

Where is their nerve lesion? [1]

A

very high radial nerve injury (at the axilla)

NB: Radial nerve motor function: Innervates triceps brachii and the extensor muscles in the forearm

83
Q

How does a posterior hip dislocation present [3]

A

leg is adducted, shortened and internally rotated

84
Q

Describe the difference in the presentation of a low, high and very high radial nerve injury [3]

A

Low radial nerve injury:
- difficulty extending fingers (finger drop) but sensation would be intact

High radial nerve injury:
- difficulty extending his wrist (wrist drop) on top of having finger drop

Very high radial nerve injury:
- tricep weakness on top of having wrist and finger drop

85
Q

How does median nerve injury present? [1]

Where does median nerve injury usually occur? [1]

A

Median nerve injury usually happen at the wrist:
- not be able to form a complete fist and reduced sensation over the median distribution of the hand.

86
Q

How does ulnar nerve injury present? [1]

Where does ulnar nerve injury usually occur? [1]

A

ulnar nerve injury may happen as a result of a fracture at the elbow :
- findings such as claw hand or inability to make a complete fist
- also be reduced sensation over the hypothenar eminence.

87
Q

What is a raised fat pad sign? [1]

A

If the anterior fat pad is raised away from the humerus, or if a posterior fat pad is visible between triceps and the posterior humerus, then this indicates a joint effusion:
- n the setting of trauma this is due to haemarthrosis (blood in the joint) secondary to a bone fracture. This is often the only X-ray sign of a bone injury.

88
Q

Describe this fracture [2]

A
89
Q

Where is the most common site for bone mets? [1]

A

Thoracic spine

90
Q

What are the risk factors associated with osteosarcoma? [+]

A
  • Age 10-20
  • Paget’s disease
  • Radiotherapy
  • Rothmund-Thomson syndrome
  • Familial retinoblastoma syndrome
  • Li-Fraumeni syndrome
  • Fibrous dysplasia
91
Q

What is the Lhermitte phenomenon, and when does it occur? [2]

A

Painful “electric shock” sensation elicited by neck flexion.

It occurs in cervical spondylotic myelopathy, and may also occur in myelitis (including multiple sclerosis).

92
Q

Which of the urethral sphincters is under voluntary control and what is its innervation? [2]

A

External urethral sphincter is under voluntary control through the pudendal nerve (S2-S4).

93
Q

What is the first line treatment for spasmodic pain in palliative care? [1]

A

Diazepam

94
Q

What is the electrolyte derangement commonly found in metastatic bone disease?

A

Hypercalcaemia

95
Q

Which carcinomas are most likely to metastasise to bone? [5]

A
  • Breast
  • Lung
  • Thyroid
  • Renal
  • Prostate
96
Q

Describe the position of the humeral head in an anterior dislocated shoulder [1]

A

The dislocated humeral head usually lies in a subcoracoid position.

97
Q

What do Hill-Sachs deformity & Bankart lesions specifically refer to? [2]

A

Hill-Sachs deformity
- Posterolateral humeral head depression fracture, resulting from the impaction with the anterior glenoid rim

Bankart lesions
- Injuries specifically at the anteroinferior aspect of the glenoid labral complex

NB: often seen together

98
Q

Describe how the shoulder works and why this results in more anterior dislocations than posterior [1]

A

Most of our use of shoulder involves outward rotation and abduction of shoulder like in throwing position. Almost all the sports, involves that action.

Now in that position, the humeral head is forcing itself anteriorly and its kept inside the joint firm by contraction of rotator cuff muscles and the ligament restraints of glenoid socket.

Whenever, the force of action overpowers the capability of rotator cuff and shoulder ligaments to restrain shoulder, dislocation occurs.

Very few actions need forcing of humeral head in posterior direction. Hence anterior dislocation is much more common than posterior.

The only time posterior dislocation occurs is during epilepsy. In epilepsy, all the muscles contract violently. The stronger anterior subscapularis muscle of rotator cuff overpowers the posterior muscle (infraspinatus) and posterior dislocation occurs.

99
Q

After dynamic hip screw, what advice do you give regarding weight bearing? [1]

A

The aim of hip fracture surgery is to allow immediate post-operative weight bearing

100
Q

As a guide, a QFracture score ≥ []% means a [] should be arranged

A

As a guide, a QFracture score ≥ 10% means a DEXA scan should be arranged

101
Q

Medial meniscus vs ACL injury presentations? [2]

A

Sudden popping sound during athletic activity; knee pain; swelling and instability ACL injury
- also cause rapid haemarthrosis and swelling

. Catching or locking of the knee with an inability to extend fully or bend the joint is seen in a ruptured medial meniscus.
- whilst meniscal tears normally take a while longer (~24hrs) to swell up

102
Q

Describe the difference in mechanism of injury for medial meniscus injury and ACL injury x [2]

A

MM: loaded twist

ACL: valgus force (blow to outside –> inside of the knee)

103
Q

What is a ganglion? [1]

A

A ganglion presents as a ‘cyst’ arising from a joint or tendon sheath. They are most commonly seen around the dorsal aspect of the wrist and are 3 times more common in women.

104
Q

Herniated disc; reflexes normal = lesion where? [1]

A

reflexes normal -> L5

105
Q

Describe what is meant by thoracic outlet syndrome [1] and what the common presentation is like [3]

A

neurovascular disorder that can be caused by compression of the brachial plexus (neurogenic) or of the subclavian vessels (vascular):
- Neurogenic presentation is by far the most common (>95% of cases): neck and should pain; numbing and tingling; muscle wasting
- Trapezius pain combined with sensory symptoms that are often exacerbated by overhead activities is a typical presentation of neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome

106
Q

State risk factors for thoracic outlet syndrome [2]

A

trauma - heamorrhage or displacement; then subsequent fibrosis

lots of overhead exercise can irritate the area, as can strength training that focuses on the muscles around the thoracic outlet

postural element: as rounding the shoulders makes the outlet relatively small.

107
Q

What is Spurling’s sign and what pathology does it indicate? [2]

A

diagnosis of cervical radiculopathy

108
Q

Which form of cancer typically shows a sunburst appearance on x-ray of a bone? [1]

A

Osteosarcoma

109
Q

Which form of cancer typically shows a moth-eaten pattern of bone destruction? [1]

A

Chondrosarcoma

110
Q

Describe the pattern of Ewing sarcoma on x-ray [1]

A

like onion skin (multiple layers of new bone formation due to rapid growt

111
Q

This patient has an associated nail damage.

What is the name of the fracture?

Mallet
Seymour
Tuft
Barton’s

A

This patient has an associated nail damage.

What is the name of the fracture?

Mallet
Seymour
Tuft
Barton’s

112
Q

Mallet
Seymour
Tuft
Barton’s

A

Mallet
Seymour
Tuft
Barton’s

113
Q

What Garden stage is this fracture? [1]
Why? [1]

A

3 - complete; moderately displaced

114
Q

A patient has multiple rib fractures, but x-ray reveals they do not have a flail chest segment.

Morphine has been given, but the patient still has considerable pain.

What is the next stage of management? [1]

A

Nerve block

115
Q

A [] fracture is a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint with an associated fracture of the radius

Monteggia fracture
Colles’ fracture
Smith’s fracture
Galeazzi fracture
Boxer’s fracture

A

A [] fracture is a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint with an associated fracture of the radius

Monteggia fracture
Colles’ fracture
Smith’s fracture
Galeazzi fracture
Boxer’s fracture

Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers)

116
Q

A [] fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation

Monteggia fracture
Colles’ fracture
Smith’s fracture
Galeazzi fracture
Boxer’s fracture

A

A [] fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation

Monteggia fracture
Colles’ fracture
Smith’s fracture
Galeazzi fracture
Boxer’s fracture

117
Q

What movement is the classic exam q for ACL [1] and PCL? [1]

A

The classic question for ACl is a football / rugby / tennis player twisting abruptly.

Classic for PCL is car crash.

118
Q

[] is an effective and commonly used method of analgesia for patients with a neck of femur fracture

A

An iliofascial nerve block is an effective and commonly used method of analgesia for patients with a neck of femur fracture

119
Q

You are performing a newborn examination. Which one of the following best describes the clinical findings of a clubfoot?

Inverted + plantar flexed foot which is not passively correctable
Inverted + dorsiflexed foot + pes planus which is not passively correctable
Inverted + plantar flexed foot + pes planus which is passively correctable
Everted + dorsiflexed foot which is not passively correctable
Inverted + plantar flexed foot which is passively correctable

A

Inverted + plantar flexed foot which is not passively correctable

120
Q

Whats a good way of remebering if sensitive/specific helps to rule in / out? [1]

A

Remember SNOUT and SPIN.

SeNsitive tests are good at ruling things OUT.

SPecific tests are good at ruling things IN.

121
Q

L3 nerve root compression has sensory loss where? [1]

A

Sensory loss over anterior thigh

122
Q

L4 nerve root compression has sensory loss where? [1]

A

Sensory loss anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus

123
Q

L5 nerve root compression causes sensory loss where? [1]

S1 nerve root compression causes sensory loss where? [1]

A

L5: dorsum of foot; medial aspect of food

S1: Sensory loss posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot

124
Q

Describe the sensory loss in each of L3-S1 if nerve root becomes compressed [4]

A

L3: Sensory loss over anterior thigh
L4: Sensory loss anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus
L5: dorsum of foot; medial aspect of food
S1: Sensory loss posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot

125
Q

Describe the expected change in muscle movements in L3-S1 nerve root compressions [4]

A

L3: Weak hip flexion, knee extension and hip adduction

L4: Weak knee extension and hip adduction

L5: Weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion

S1: Weakness in plantar flexion of foot

126
Q

Where would you expect weakness in an L3 slipped disc? [1]

A

L3: Weak hip flexion, knee extension and hip adduction

127
Q

Where would you expect weakness in an L4 slipped disc? [1]

A

L4: Weak knee extension and hip adduction

128
Q

Where would you expect weakness in an L5 slipped disc? [1]

A

L5: Weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion

129
Q

Where would you expect weakness in an S1 slipped disc? [1]

A

S1: Weakness in plantar flexion of foot

130
Q

ACL rupture comes from what mechanism? [1]

How does it present? [3]

A

Mechanism: high twisting force applied to a bent knee
- loud crack, pain and RAPID joint swelling (haemoarthrosis)

131
Q

PCL rupture comes from what mechanism? [1]

How does it present? [3]

A

Mechanism: hyperextension injuries
- Tibia lies back on the femur

132
Q

MCL rupture comes from what mechanism? [1]

How does it present? [3]

A

Mechanism: leg forced into valgus via force outside the leg
* Knee unstable when put into valgus position

133
Q

Medial meniscus comes from what mechanism? [1]

How does it present? [3]

A
  • Rotational sporting injuries
  • Delayed knee swelling
  • Joint locking (Patient may develop skills to ‘unlock’ the knee
  • Recurrent episodes of pain and effusions are common, often following minor trauma
134
Q

Describe the difference in speed of swelling between ACL and medial meniscus injury? [1]

A

ACL: rapid swelling
Medial meniscus: delayed swelling

135
Q

What are the two types of patella fracture? [2]

A

i. Direct blow to patella causing undisplaced fragments
ii. Avulsion fracture

136
Q

What mechanism causes a tibial plateau fracture? [1]

A

knee forced into valgus or varus, but the knee fractures before the ligaments rupture

137
Q

Describe the appearance of the following types of cancers on x-ray:

  1. Ewing’s sarcoma
  2. Giant cell tumour
  3. Osteosarcoma
A
  1. Ewing’s sarcoma: onion skin
  2. Giant cell tumour: soap bubble
  3. Osteosarcoma: sunburst

Bite into a raw onion = ew
thus,
onion skin = ewings

138
Q

What is the most common post orthopaedic surgery complication? [1]

A

VTE

139
Q

What does the red arrow show? [1]

A

Lipohaemarthrosis is seen when fat and blood from the bone marrow goes into the joint and it is usually seen in long bone fractures with intra-articular involvement. The fact that this patient just sustained an intra-articular fracture makes this finding even more likely.

140
Q

Which pathology would a “Rocker bottom foot’ refer to? [1]

A

Charcot joint
- when the bones in the middle of your foot break down and collapse and lose the arch

141
Q

Describe how a Charcot joint would present? [3]

A

Warm; Swollen; Red; Pain

Usually localised unilateral swelling

May initially look like an infection but as time goes on will continue to form Rocker foot

142
Q

Name three risk factors for avascular necrosis of the hip [3]

A

Chronic steroid use
Chronic alcohol consumption
Trauma
Chemotherapy

143
Q

What investigation is first line for avascular necrosis of the hip? [1]

A

MRI
- Xray may not show any signs of changes for a couple of months

144
Q

How does the shape of the shoulder change when acromioclavicular joint dislocation occurs? [2]

A

Superior aspect of clavicle: more prominent
Get loss of shoulder contour

145
Q

Describe what an iliopsoas abscess is [1]

What is the imaging modality of choice? [1]

A

Collection of pus in ilopsoas compartment / purulent infectious collection within the psoas muscle

CT is optimum imaging choice

146
Q

What type of fracture is most likely to cause compartment syndrome in arm [1] and leg [1]

A

Arm:Supracondylar
Leg: tibial shaft fracture

147
Q

If have knee pain in children - what are your two main differentials and how can you compare? [2]

A

Osgood-Schlatter
- pain and swelling BELOW kneecap

Osteochondritis dissecans:
- complete or partial detachment of bone
- piece of bone and the attached cartilage break down and become loose.

148
Q

How do you immediately manage ankle fractures when there is dislocation? [1]

A

Immediately perform a closed reduction of the dislocation
- otherwise might get NV compromise

Then can perform ORIF etc

149
Q

What are the managment plans for the different Garden classifications? [3]

A

Type 1 & 2: Internal fixation
Type 3 & 4: THR of hemiarthoplasty (if older/frail)

150
Q

What are the management options for non-intracapsular NOFs? [2]

A

Stable intracapsular:
- DHS
Reverse oblique; transverse; sub. troch:
- intramedullary nail

151
Q

Blue sclera x multiple fracutres = ? [1]

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

152
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta causes what change in eye colour? [1]

A

Blue sclera

153
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta occurs because of a defect in which type of collagen

Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta occurs because of a defect in which type of collagen

Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4

154
Q

EDS occurs because of a defect in which type of collagen

Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4

A

EDS occurs because of a defect in which type of collagen

Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4

155
Q

A fracture over the hypothenar eminence would most likely impact which bone? [1]

How would you test for this? [2]

A

Hamate bone

Tests

tenderness over the hook of hamate
* most common finding (80% sensitivity)

**hook of hamate pull test **
- hand held in ulnar deviation as patient flexes DIP joints of the ulnar 2 digits against resistance

156
Q

What is first and second line treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome? [2]

A

First:
- Wrist splint / steroids / NSAIDs

Second:
- Surgery

157
Q

How often do you dose:
- Alendronic acid
- Zolendronic acid

A

** Alendronic acid:**
- weekly

Zolendronic acid:
- yearly

158
Q

Describe the presentation of Marfans [+]

A
  • Upwards lens dislocation
  • A. root dilatation
  • Mitral valve prolapse
  • Hypermobile joints
  • Pectus exvatacum
  • High arch palate
  • Flat feet
159
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Marfans? [1]

A

Missense mutation of fibrillin

160
Q

Describe a method of remembering the different types of Salter-Harris fractures [5]

A

Type 1: S - Straight through
Type 2: A - Above
Type 3: - L Lower
Type 4: - T Transverse
Type 5: - R Rammed

161
Q

Thurstan-Hollan segment refers to which Salter-Harris Classification? [1]

A

Type 2

162
Q

Which Salter-Harris classification causes growth arreset? [1]

A

Type 5 - causes compression of growth plate

163
Q

Anti-Scl 70 = ? [1]
Anti-Jo. = ? [1]

A

Anti-Scl 70 - Diffuse systemic sclerosis
Anti-Jo = Dematomyositis

164
Q

Posterior hip dislocation causes a risk of damaging which nerve? [1]

What are the nerve roots? [1]

A

Sciatic nerve; L4 through S3

165
Q

When do you immediately give a DEXA scan? [2]

A

> 50 and history of fragility fracture
< 40 and major fracture risk

166
Q

What sign would indicate scaphoid fracture? [1]

A

Longitudinal compression of pain
- Hold patients thumb and press towards wrist

167
Q

Describe the position of Boutonniare position [1]

A

PIP fixed flexion
DIP fixed extension

Imagine doing up buttons

168
Q

SCA x osteomyelitis = which organism? [1]

A

Salmonella

169
Q

+ve sciatic stretch test indicates nerve damage where? [2]

A

L5 (wouldn’t be able to dorsiflex )or S1 (wouldn’t be ble to plantar flex and decreased ankle reflex)

170
Q

+ve femoral test indicates nerve damage where? [2]

A

L3/4

171
Q

Describe what is meant by myositis ossificans [1]
Describr an important ddx and how you would differentiate? [1]

A

Heterotrophic ossification in large muscles usually precipitated by prior trauma 2-6 weeks ago
- Mimics sarcoma; distinguish with biopsy

172
Q

Describe the mechanism and features of ACL injury [3]

A

Pop; acute and quick swelling; pain
Sudden twisting; planting and turning movement

173
Q

Describe the mechanism and features of PCL injury [1]
How do the bones reposition themselves afterwards? [1]

A

Hyperextending leg
* Tibia lies on femur

174
Q

Describe the mechanism of MCL injury [1]

A

Leg forced into valgus position via force from outside of leg

175
Q

How does a tibial plateua fracture occur? [1]

A

Knee in varus / valgus but ligaments hold

176
Q

Cubital nerve compression occurs because of what position? [1]
What nerve impacted? [1]

A

Continue elbow flexion; compression of ulnar nerve

177
Q

When do you get pain in cubital nerve compression? [1]
Where do you get sensory nerve disturbance? [1]

A

Pain at medial flexion
Sensory disturbance at 4th and 5th digit and hypothenar eminence

178
Q

The crescant sign refers to what pathology? [1]

A

the crescent sign is a finding on conventional radiographs that is associated with avascular necrosis

179
Q

How does carpal tunnel syndrome impact action propogation in sensory and motor axons? [1]

A

Prolongs both

180
Q

Damage to tibial nerve causes what changes to lower limb movement? [2]

A

Inhibits foot dorsiflexion
Inhibits foot inversion

181
Q

Damage to superficical nerve causes what changes to lower limb movement? [1]

A

Decreases in foot eversion

182
Q

Damage to deep nerve causes what changes to lower limb movement? [2]

A

Foot drop - cant plantar flex
Cant extend toes
Cant foot evert

183
Q

Describe the different x-ray findings in bone mets for different causes of them [5]

A

PB KTL

PB:
- Sclerotic (Prostate)

KTL
- Lytic - Lungs

184
Q

Anterior shoulder dislocation causes which deformities? [2]

A

Hill-Sachs:
- Posterolateral humeral head depression fracture

Bankart:
- Anteriorinferior glenoid compression fracture

185
Q

Describe the difference in speed of swelling in ACL vs medial men. injury [1]

A

ACL: rapid swelling
MM: slower swelling

186
Q

What are the nerve roots for each reflex need to know? [4]

A

S1-2: ankle reflex
L3-4: knee reflex
C5-C6: bicep reflex
C6-7: tricep reflex

187
Q

Wake n shake of wrists = ? [1]

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

188
Q

Where is the most common place for a stress fracture? [1]

A

2nd metatarsal

189
Q

Frozen shoulder has which reduced movements? [3]
When is pain typically worse? [1]

A

Reduced IR, ER and abduction
Pain worse at night

190
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of osteochondritis dessicans [1]
What are the symptoms? [3]

A

Joint condition where blood supply to section of bone and cartilage decreases causing seperation of the bone and cartilage from surrounding area
- causes swelling after excercise; joint locking and reduced ROM

191
Q

What are the different DAS-28 scores and their associated classifications of disease severity in RA? [4]

A

< 2.6 = Disease remission
2.6 - 3.1 = low severity
3.2 - 5.1 = medium severity
> 5.1 = high severity

192
Q

What is the exact dosing for CES? [1]

A

Dexamethasone 8mg BD

193
Q

Ewing sarcoma - causes which x-ray changes? [1]
Which population is genrally affected? [1]
Where does it effect? [1]

A

Ewing sarcoma:
- onion skin changes
- severe pain
- long bones
- children and adolescants

194
Q

Chostrosarcoma - commonly affects which bones [1] and population? [1]

A

Axial skeleton
Older population

195
Q

Giant cell tumours:
- what x-ray changes? [1]
- Which population? [1]

A

Bubble wrap / soap bubble signs
20-40 yr olds

196
Q

Osteosarcoma:
- xray signs? [1]
- Link with which other cancer? [1]
- Population? [1]

A
  • Sunburst
  • Retinoblastoma link
  • Children and adolescents
197
Q

How do you decide on the treatment of intracapsular fractures depending on prior patient mobility? [1]

A

If could previous mobilise: THR
If not: Hemiarthroplasty (cement > )

198
Q

What is the number 1 reason for THR needing to be replaced? [1]

A

Aseptic loosening of joint

199
Q
A