Rheumatology Revision 4 Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Describe the basic pathophysiology of RA

A

current theory for the pathophysiology of RA is that exposure to an external trigger in a genetically predisposed individual leads to an abnormal, autoimmune response, which targets synovial joints resulting in chronic inflammation and joint damage

Following a suspected triggering event, there is development of self-citrullination: alteration of a positively charged arginine amino acid into the neutral citrulline
- The immune system then reacts to these citrullinated proteins, which is characterised by development of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies.

Also get infiltration of synovial joints with immune cells and a subsequent pro-inflammatory response causing the classic synovitis

At joint level: synovial membrane hyperplasia, or ‘thickening’, which subsequently damages cartilage - called a pannus. There is subsequent boney loss, which manifests as localised and periarticular boney erosions.

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3
Q

Describe the clinical features of RA

A

Polyarthropathy:
- multiple joints affected, usually in symmetrical distribution; typically the small joints of hands or feet (MCP most common; PIP; MTP)
- On palpation of the joints, there will be tenderness and synovial thickening, giving them a “boggy” feeling.
- Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 mins
- Joint swelling
- Cervical (but not lumbar) spine can be affected
- Knees, ankle, hips and shoulders
- Pain on palpitation

Muscle atrophy:
- may see ‘guttering’ between extensor tendons in hands due to wasting of the interossei muscles

Systemic symptoms
- myalgia
- fatigue
- low-grade fever
- weight loss
- low mood

TOM TIP: Rheumatoid arthritis very rarely affects the distal interphalangeal joints. Enlarged and painful distal interphalangeal joints are more likely to represent Heberden’s nodes due to osteoarthritis.

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4
Q

Describe what is meant by a boutonniere and swan-neck deformity [2]

A

Boutonniere deformity:
- flexion at the PIP joint with hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint
- caused by a tear in the central slip of the extensor components at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint.

Swan-neck deformity:
- hyperextension at the PIP joint with flexion of the DIP joint

Boutonniere - same positions are buttoning up a shirt

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5
Q

Name two other hand signs of RA (asides from swan-neck and Boutonniere deformities) [2]

Name a foot sign [1]

A

Ulnar deviation at MCPs:
- subluxation of the MCP joints with deviation of the fingers towards the ulnar bone due to dislocation of flexor tendons and disruption of extensor tendons.

Z-deformity at wrist:
- hyperextension of interphalangeal joint of thumb in association with carpal bone rotation and radial deviation as well as ulnar deviation at MCPs
- deformity to the thumb

Hammer toes:
- compensatory flexion of the toes due to weakening and subluxation of surrounding tendons.

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6
Q

Describe why RA can lead to spinal cord compression [1]

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation occurs in the cervical spine.:
- Synovitis and damage to the ligaments around the odontoid peg of the axis (C2) allow it to shift within the atlas (C1).

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7
Q

Describe the extra articular manifestations of RA:
- occular [4]
- oral [2]

A

Ocular
* Keratoconjunctivitis sicca: refers to dry eyes. Seen in 10%. If accompanied with xerostomia (dry mouth) suggestive of secondary Sjögren’s syndrome.
* Episcleritis: inflammation of superficial layer of sclera
* Scleritis: more aggressive inflammation of the whole sclera
* Scleromalacia perforans

Oral
* Xerostoma (dry mouth): If accompanied with keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes) suggestive of secondary Sjögren’s syndrome.
* Oral ulcers

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8
Q

Describe the extra articular manifestations of RA:
- pulmonary [3]
- cardiac [4]

A

Pulmonary
* Interstitial lung disease
* Serositis: inflammation of serous membranes (i.e. pleural, pericardium, peritoneum)
* Costochrondritis

Cardiac
* Pericarditis: as part of serositis
* Myocarditis
* Non-infective endocarditis
* Increased risk of ischaemic heart disease

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9
Q

Describe the extra articular manifestations of RA:
- Renal [1]
- Neurological [3]
- Haemotological [3]

A

Renal
* Glomerulonephritis (uncommon in the absence of vasculitis)

Neurological
* Peripheral neuropathy: diffuse sensorimotor neuropathy or mononeuritis multiplex
* Entrapment mononeuropathies: carpal tunnel syndrome
* Cervical myelopathy: typically due to cervical spin involvement or atlantoaxial subluxation

Haematological
* Neutropenia: if combined with splenomegaly known as Felty’s syndrome
* Thrombocytopaenia or thrombocytosis
* Haematological malignancies

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10
Q

Describe 3 dermatological mainfestations of RA [3]

A

Rheumatoid nodules:
- most present skin complaint (20%). Found on extensor surfaces of upper limb at pressure points (e.g. elbow) as hard nodule. Composed of central fibrinoid necrosis with surrounding fibroblasts. Usually in seropositive patients.

Vasculitis skin rash:
- ulcers, digital gangrene, periungual infarcts, splinter haemorrhages

Pyoderma gangrenosum

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11
Q

How do you differentiate PsA to RA? [3]

A
  • PsA often demonstrates an asymmetric oligoarticular pattern.
  • Dactylitis (sausage digits) and enthesitis are also unique features of PsA that help differentiate from RA.
  • Radiographic findings such as pencil-in-cup deformity or periostitis could aid differentiation; these are NOT typical for RA.
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12
Q

Which factors indicate a worse prognosis in RA?

A

Poor prognostic features
* rheumatoid factor positive
* poor functional status at presentation
* HLA DR4
* X-ray: early erosions (e.g. after < 2 years)
* extra articular features e.g. nodules
* insidious onset
* anti-CCP antibodies

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13
Q
A

Rheumatoid arthritis seen in adults of all ages

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14
Q

Which is the most common occular complication of RA? [1]

A

keratoconjunctivitis sicca

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15
Q

What are iatrogenic occular complications seen in RA? [2]

A
  • steroid-induced cataracts
  • chloroquine retinopathy
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16
Q

What is the difference between epi- and slceritis? [2]

A

episcleritis (erythema)
scleritis (erythema and pain)

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17
Q
A

HLA DR4

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18
Q

Lung fibrosis caused by rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the:
* Upper zone
* Lower zone

A

lower zones

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19
Q
A

DAS28

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20
Q

State why synovial joints are susceptible to inflammatory injury [2]

A

Presence of rich network of fenestrated capillaries
* Fenestrated capillaries: become more leaky so plasma and immune cells can enter synovial membrane and joint cavity

Limited ways it can respond

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21
Q

DAS28 is used to monitor RA; treat to target is the aim.

What DAS28 scores would indicate:
- disease remission [1]
- low severity [1]
- medium severity [1]
- high severity [1]

A
  • disease remission: < 2.6
  • low severity: 2.6 - 3.2
  • medium severity 3.2 - 5.1
  • high severity: > 5.1
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22
Q

Name this deformity seen in the hand associated with RA [1]

Describe the changes in hand position that occurs [2]

A
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23
Q

Describe the initial treatment plan for RA with MILD disease activity at initial presentation: not pregnant or planning pregnancy

A

1st Line: conventional DMARD:
- hydroxychloroquine - it is better tolerated and has a more favourable risk profile than other DMARDs

Consider: Corticosteroid
- Prednisolone

Consider: non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
- ibuprofen

NB: hydroxychloroquine: should only be considered for initial therapy if mild

BMJBP

24
Q

State 5 side effects of corticosteroids

A

Osteoporosis; weight gain; DM; HTN

25
Q

Methotrexate:
1. MoA?
2. Advantages [3]
3. Disadvantages [6]

A

MoA:
- Folic acid inhibitor (due to inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase) which stops cell proliferation; impacts rapidly dividing cells

Advantages:
- Inexpensive
- Oral or injection
- Well established safety profile

Disadvantages
- N&V
- Mouth sores
- Hair loss
- Liver toxicity
- Bone marrow suppresion
- Lung toxicity

26
Q

How do you manage / monitor ongoing methotrexate; SSZ and LEF prescription? [3]

A

FBC and LFTs are to be monitored every 2 weeks for the
first 6 weeks (induction phase) and with any increased
dose
, and then monthly for 3 months.

27
Q

What important AE do you need to monitor for with hydroxychloroquine tx? [1]

A

Retinal toxicity - requires regular eye exams

Also: gastrointestinal upset, skin rash

28
Q

Describe the MoA [1] and AEs [3] of MMF

A

MoA:
- Inhibits enzyme used for de novo purine synthesis - effects T & B cells

AEs:
- GI upset
- Infections
- Bone marrow suppression

29
Q

What do you screen for prior to starting methotrexate; SSZ and LEF tx? [3]

A
  • FBC; UEs; LFTs
  • Viral serology screen
  • Baseline CXR - for MTX as can cause PF
  • Baseline BP for LEF
30
Q

What should you offer women prior to cyclophosphamide treatment? [1]

A

Egg harvesting treatment as causes infertility

31
Q

Describe the MoA and side effects of cyclophosphamide

A

MoA:
- Alkylating agent - cross links DNA strands, leading to cell death

Effects:
- Bone marrow suppression
- Bladder inflammation - hamorrhagic cystitis
- Infertility
- N&V

32
Q

Describe some of the unwanted effects of blocking TNFa

A

TNFa is essential for granuloma formation, organisation and maintenance - risk of TB reactivation AND increased risk of infection

Autoimmune reactions:
- paradoxical psoriasis (new onset or worsening)
- drug induced lupus
- MS or optic neuritis

Allergic reactions
HF exacerbations
Blood abnormalities (anaemia; neutropenia)
Liver toxicity
Increased risk of malignancies

33
Q

What should you screen for prior to anti-TNF tx? [4]

A

FBC ++
Serology for HIV, HBV & HCV
CXR and TB Elispot
Exclude infections, pregnancy, malignancy, NYHA Class III/IV and EF < 50%

34
Q

antibodies to antibodies

A

Can produce antibodies agaisnt

35
Q

Name an anti-TNF that can be used in pregnancy [1]

A

Certolizumab

36
Q

Name an anti-TNF that might cause less chance of infection [1]

A

Etanercept

37
Q

Whats an overall JAK inhibitor MoA? [1]

A

JAKs are inside the cells (block the messages delivered by cytokines inside the cells)

There are different JAKs

38
Q

Name an advantage of JAK inhibitors tx [1]

A

Can be taken orally (c.f. biologics are often infusions)

39
Q

Name some side effects of JAK inhibitors [4]

A

Increased risk of serious infections - use in caution with > 65

Risk of MACE - caution with CVD

Malignancy - particularly increased risk of lymphoma and lunger cancer

Thrombotic events; GI side effects and anaemia

40
Q

Describe the treatment pathway for RA

A
41
Q

Which alternative drug should be used if pregnant or pregnancy planning? [1]

A

Sulfasalazine

42
Q

How often do you perform blood tests for methotrexate monitoring? [1]

A
43
Q

How do you assess response to methotrexate use? [1]

A

Assess using DAS28 = disease activity score of 28 joints

44
Q
A
45
Q

What needs to be checked before starting DMARDs?

A

Hepatitis B and C status, purified protein derivative (PPD), FBC, and LFTs need to be checked before starting DMARDs.

46
Q

Describe the initial treatment plan for RA with MODERATE-SEVERE disease activity at initial presentation not pregnant or planning pregnancy

A

1st line cDMARD:
- methotrexate (primary option) with folic acid supplementation
- sulfasalazine (secondary option)
- hydroxychloroquine (secondary option)
- leflunomide (secondary option)
- bridged with corticosteroid - prednisolone for 2/3 months until methotrexate starts working

2nd line: Combination treatment with multiple cDMARDs

3rd line: bDMARDs
- etanercept (primary option)
- infliximab
- adalimumab

4th line: Rituximab

Double check with lecture

47
Q

How do you treat a flare of RA? [1]

A

flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids - oral or intramuscular
- methylprednisolone

48
Q

Which RA medication has a risk of reactivating TB? [1]

A

Etanercept and also
adalimumab, infliximab, golimumab and certolizumab

49
Q

Which RA medication has a risk of an infusion reaction? [1]

A

Rituximab

50
Q

TOM TIP: The main biologics to remember are [3] (TNF inhibitors), and [1] (a monoclonal antibody that targets the CD20 proteins on the surface of B cells).

A

TOM TIP: The main biologics to remember are adalimumab, infliximab and etanercept (TNF inhibitors), and rituximab (a monoclonal antibody that targets the CD20 proteins on the surface of B cells).

They cause immunosuppression, increasing the risk of infection, certain cancers (e.g., skin) and reactivation of latent TB.

51
Q

Describe the dosing regimen for methotrexate [1]

A

Methotrexate interferes with folate metabolism and suppresses the immune system. It is given once a week

Folic acid 5mg is taken once a week (on a different day to the methotrexate)

52
Q

Describe the MoA of Leflunomide [1]

Name 5 side effects [5]

A

Leflunomide is an immunosuppressant medication that interferes with the production of pyrimidine.

Side effects:
* Mouth ulcers and mucositis
* Increased blood pressure
* Liver toxicity
* Bone marrow suppression and leukopenia (low white blood cells)
* Teratogenic (harmful to pregnancy) and needs to be avoided before conception in both women and men
* Peripheral neuropathy

53
Q

TOM TIP: The unique side effects worth remembering are:
- Methotrexate [3]
- Leflunomide [2]
- Sulfasalazine [3]

A

TOM TIP: The unique side effects worth remembering are:

Methotrexate:
* Bone marrow suppression
* leukopenia
* highly teratogenic

Leflunomide:
- Hypertension
- peripheral neuropathy

Sulfasalazine:
- Orange urine
- male infertility (reduces sperm count)

54
Q

TOM TIP: The unique side effects worth remembering are:
- Hydroxychloroquine [3]
- Anti-TNF medications [2]
- Rituximab [2]

A

Hydroxychloroquine:
- Retinal toxicity
- blue-grey skin pigmentation
- hair bleaching

Anti-TNF medications:
- Reactivation of tuberculosis

Rituximab:
- Night sweats
- thrombocytopenia

55
Q

[2] are considered the safest DMARDs in pregnancy

A

Hydroxychloroquine and sulfasalazine are considered the safest DMARDs in pregnancy

56
Q

3-monthly monitoring for MTX, SSZ, and LEF includes..? [5]

A

3 monthly FBC; ALT; AST; ALP; Albumin; U&Es