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NBSTSA Practice Test Thingy > Worksheet #5 (3rd Week) > Flashcards

Worksheet #5 (3rd Week) Flashcards

Homework

1
Q

the distal and proximal ends of long bones are called

A

epiphysis

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2
Q

what gland is located on the front and sides of the trachea just below the

A

thyroid

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3
Q

a healthy adult has a resting heart rate of

A

30 to 80 beats per minute

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4
Q

during a radical mastoidectomy what graft material is used to cover the stapes

A

temporalis fascia

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5
Q

the rate at which work is done is called

A

power

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6
Q

a pregnant female presents with severe hypertension. What would this indicate

A

eclampsia

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7
Q

what suture would be the best choice for a liver laceration

A

2-0 chromatic

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8
Q

during a Caldwell Luc procedure what instrument would be used to enlarge the maxillary sinus opening

A

kerrison ronguer

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9
Q

the speed of a computer processor is measured in

A

gigahertz

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10
Q

what type of electrical current Moves In One Way single Direction

A

direct current

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11
Q

what instrument is used to hold the mouth open during a tonsillectomy

A

Jennings mouth gag

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12
Q

the mandible articulates with the glenoid fossa of the temporal bone to form what

A

temporomandibular joint

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13
Q

what is the medical term used for male breast enlargement

A

gynecomastia

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14
Q

PT is brought into the OR. get anesthesia thn this hapoens:rapid increase in body temperature , unstable blood pressure, muscle rigidity, trachy cardia, tachypnea. what is the pathology?

A

malignant hyperthermia

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15
Q

what is the first treatment for malignant hyperthermia in the previous scenario

A

discontinued anesthesia Administration

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16
Q

what drug is administered

A

dantrolene

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17
Q

an additional important intervention treatment is

A

chilled saline, lavage of the body cavities

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18
Q

a muscle commonly used for flap reconstruction after a female undergoes a mastectomy is

A

transverse rectus

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19
Q

cranial nerve II is called

A

optic nerve

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20
Q

during an orchiopexy the Tunica albuginea is sutures to the

A

dartos muscle

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21
Q

what is used to retract the spermatic cord during an open herniorrhaphy

A

Penrose drain

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22
Q

the energy that an object has due to its position or condition is

A

potential energy

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23
Q

what can be used to point-and-click to input commands in the computer

A

Mouse

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24
Q

what surgical instrument is used to detect prostate tissue during turp

A

resectoscope

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25
Q

during a peripheral vascular procedure the circle technologist should have papaverine available for what reason

A

dilate peripheral blood vessels

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26
Q

during a total hip arthroplasty what does placed in the reamed femoral canal to prevent the cement from leaking into the femoral medullary canal

A

cement restrictor

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27
Q

what is the term used to describe the flow of electrical energy

A

current

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28
Q

PT is undergoing a cholecystectomy stones in the common bile duct is excpected; will perform a cholangiogram. when prepin the contrast solution what should not be present in the syringe

A

get air get air bubbles

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29
Q

stones are present in the CBD what two surgical instruments should be available for the surgeon to make an incision in the CBD

A

number 11 knife blade and 45 degree pot Smith scissors

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30
Q

what is used to remove stones from the CBD

A

forgart balloon-tipped catheter

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31
Q

what type of catheter should be available for placement in the CBD

A

T tube

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32
Q

what is the first step involving the femoral artery in a femoral popliteal bypass

A

femoral artery is isolated with vessel loops

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33
Q

what is the secondary step in preparation for the NSA Moses in a femoral popliteal bypass

A

femoral artery clamp with DeBakey angle vascular clamp

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34
Q

what two instruments should be available for femoral arteriotomy

A

number 11 blade Potts Smith scissors

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35
Q

what size and type of suture should be available for the saphenous vein to femoral artery anastomosis

A

6-0 ProLane

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36
Q

the force that causes an object to fall due to gravity

A

weight

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37
Q

atelectasis refers

A

a collapsed lung

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38
Q

what instrument can be used to remove the plaque during a carotid endarterectomy

A

Penfield dissector

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39
Q

what self-retaining retractor is used to hold brain spoons in place during craniotomy

A

Layla yasargil

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40
Q

the nerve that is at the greatest risk for injury during thyroidectomy is

A

recurrent laryngeal

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41
Q

the large intestine begins at the

A

cecum

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42
Q

the small intestine begins at the

A

pylorus

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43
Q

the small intestine is divided into how many sections

A

three

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44
Q

the sigmoid and transverse are part of what structure

A

colon or large intestines

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45
Q

the brain contains how many verticals

A

four

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46
Q

there are How many pairs of cranial nerves

A

12

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47
Q

how many extrinsic ocular muscles control eye movement

A

six

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48
Q

the blood supply to the thyroid arises from the

A

external carotid artery

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49
Q

what is supplied to the breast by

A

internal mammary

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50
Q

the choroid is considered to belong to what part of the eye

A

middle tunic

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51
Q

this bone does not articulate with any other bone

A

hyoid

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52
Q

ribs are attached to

A

thoracic vertebra

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53
Q

excessive secretion of growth hormones in adult causes

A

acromegaly

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54
Q

extra bones that develop on the sutures of the skull are called

A

wormian

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55
Q

the heel bone of the foot is called the

A

calcaneus

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56
Q

true ribs articulate anteriorly with the

A

sternum

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57
Q

the type of joint that permits movement in one plain only is

A

a hinge

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58
Q

extending the foot at the ankle I’m bending the foot downward is

A

plantar flexion

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59
Q

if a suture strand hangs are extends over the sterile Edge the St in the scrub role should

A

consider the suture contaminated and discarded

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60
Q

the amount of Applied tension assessor to break a suture is known as

A

tensile strength

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61
Q

suture material that becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue during the healing stage is deterrent is termed

A

non-absorbable

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62
Q

in the presence of infection the absorption rate of surgical gut is

A

increased

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63
Q

the type of needle used to suture friable tissue such as liver has a point that is

A

blunt

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64
Q

what type of instrument is the DeBakey

A

forceps

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65
Q

the mail tray should remain sterile till

A

the patient leaves the room

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66
Q

during a surgical procedure to suture practice used by the St should

A

retained by the St

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67
Q

items that are impenetrable two X-Rays and therefore visible under x-ray are called

A

radiopaque

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68
Q

a type of dressing used when frequent won’t inspections are required is

A

Montgomery straps

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69
Q

what sponge would be likely used during a craniotomy

A

Cottonoid

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70
Q

packing would most likely be used during

A

Rectal Surgery

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71
Q

proliferation, mature Asian, and lag are all part of

A

wound healing

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72
Q

wounds with extensive tissue trauma generally heal by

A

secondary intention or granulation

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73
Q

the protrusion of the viscera through the edges of a total separated wound is

A

evisceration

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74
Q

what wound class has highest rate of infection

A

fourth or IV

75
Q

the body’s first line of defense against the invasion of pathogen is

A

unbroken skin

76
Q

what microscope is useful for studying viruses

A

electron

77
Q

agar is

A

a growth media from microorganisms

78
Q

fungi is a eukaryote or prokaryote

A

eukaryote

79
Q

bacteria is a eukaryote or prokaryote

A

prokaryote

80
Q

so your manipulation by division of a cell in two separate cells is known

A

binary fission

81
Q

a thick walled highly resistant body formed within a bacterial cell is

A

endospore

82
Q

the study of form and structure of bacteria is called

A

morphology

83
Q

bacterial cells that are spherical shaped are

A

cocci

84
Q

round bacteria occurring in Chains are called

A

streptococci

85
Q

what shape are bacilli

A

rod

86
Q

tetanus and botulism are caused organisms of the genus

A

clostridium

87
Q

the term Gram stain differentiates between

A

bacteria

88
Q

a characteristic of gram-negative organisms is they

A

stained red after exposure to counterstain

89
Q

the term staphylococcus implies the arrangement of

A

cocci in clusters

90
Q

one of the distinguishing features of viruses is that they are

A

pathogenic

91
Q

a virus that infects a bacterial cell is called

A

bacteriophage

92
Q

how do viruses reproduce

A

invasion of the host cell

93
Q

a general consent form authorizes

A

most treatments or procedures

94
Q

according to OSHA standards protective eyewear of some form must be worn when

A

on all cases

95
Q

what is the action of Heparin

A

prevents formation of new blood clots

96
Q

Anglo-contact is known a _________ used in surgery

A

contrast media (makes no sense but thats what is non the sheet )

97
Q

childbirth labor may be induced using what drug

A

oxytocin or pitocin

98
Q

nitrous oxide, ethrane, and Fluothane are known as

A

inhalation agents

99
Q

the arousal from general anesthesia after cessation of the anesthetic agent is called

A

emergence

100
Q

a drug used to anesthetize the surface of tissue without injection is

A

local anesthesia

101
Q

epinephrine causes

A

vasoconstriction

102
Q

a dissociative drug that produces a short-term, translate state is

A

ketamine

103
Q

types of anesthesia commonly used for obstetric and perineal procedures

A

caudal, epidural, spinal

104
Q

inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is called

A

hemophilia

105
Q

a Laboratory test that estimates the percentage of each type of white blood cell within the sample is called

A

differential blood count

106
Q

what position requires a pillow to be placed between the legs

A

lateral

107
Q

in the given pressure 126 / 76, 126 refers to

A

systole

108
Q

the position of choice for cholecystectomy is

A

supine

109
Q

the hernia that occurs in Hasselback triangle is a

A

direct hernia

110
Q

what procedure is commonly performed in conjunction with a pyloroplasty

A

vagotomy

111
Q

a carpal tunnel release relieves the compression of the

A

medial nerve

112
Q

transverse colectomy is performed through what incision

A

midline

113
Q

what fraction is complete and results in several bone fragments

A

comminuted

114
Q

in total thyroidectomy what other gland is

A

parathyroid

115
Q

the suffix Rhea means

A

flow or discharge

116
Q

the suffix trophy means

A

development or nourishment

117
Q

the suffix pexy means

A

fixation or to put in place

118
Q

surgical puncture of a joint space with a needle for synovial fluid drainage is a

A

arthrocentesis

119
Q

what body structure is involved when applying cricoid pressure

A

trachea

120
Q

what term is used for describing the interaction of drug molecules with the target cells

A

pharmacodynamic

121
Q

Ohm’s law is the mathematical equation that shows the relationship between

A

voltage current and resistance

122
Q

which surgical position is used to displace the abdominal public organism cephalad to better visualize the surgical site

A

Trendelenburg

123
Q

what structure of the brain signals the body to increase heat production through muscle contraction

A

hypothalamus

124
Q

which portion of the surgical gown is considered sterile

A

ways to Mid chest and two inches above elbows

125
Q

intermediate level disinfection kills most microorganisms except for

A

spores

126
Q

what term is used for the action of dispersing two liquids that do not mix

A

emulsification

127
Q

the washer decontaminator is similar to the washer sterilizer except for what phase

A

sterilization

128
Q

when transferring an immobile patient what is the minimal number of non-sterile members needed to assist the transferring

A

four

129
Q

the term dyspnea

A

shortness of breath

130
Q

syncope is a sudden loss of

A

consciousness

131
Q

the vacuum Source, tubing, and collection unit are all components of what system

A

suction

132
Q

a pressure dressing is a type of

A

three layer dressing

133
Q

maturation or differentiation wound healing phase begins on the ______ post-operative day

A

14th

134
Q

what is the purpose of a myelography

A

evaluate the spine

135
Q

ultrasonography should not be used to examine

A

the lungs

136
Q

the colon is responsible for

A

absorption of water and electrolytes

137
Q

what organ has the single largest mass of lymphatic tissue

A

spleen

138
Q

what surgical procedure is the removal of the stomach

A

gastrectomy

139
Q

what does the term Braxton Hicks refers to

A

false labor

140
Q

false labor eclampsia, preeclampsia, fatal distress are all indications for what procedure

A

C-section

141
Q

which muscle of the eye primarily functions to rotate the eye upward and away from the midline

A

superior rectus

142
Q

what instrument is used to freeze the sclera over the area of detachment

A

cryo

143
Q

what is another name for corneal transplant

A

keratoplast

144
Q

what type of anesthesia is contraindicated during reconstructive ear surgery

A

nitrous oxide

145
Q

what is the name of the instrument used to view the external auditory canal

A

otoscope

146
Q

what bacterial agent is most commonly responsible for epiglottitis

A

haemophilus influenzae

147
Q

laryngotracheobronchitis is another name for

A

croup

148
Q

Tony a 58 year old male has been diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea he is scheduled to have surgery to correct his problem what type of procedure will be performed

A

uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

149
Q

what type of laser can be used for a uvulopalatopharyngoplasty

A

holmiun

150
Q

what position is the patient placed in for the surgery procedure uvulapalatopharyngoplasty

A

supine

151
Q

bilateral horizontal fractures of the maxilla are called

A

le fort

152
Q

what three bones fuse together to create the pelvis

A

Ilium ischium pubis

153
Q

what is the purpose of bone wax

A

hemostatic agents

154
Q

a 63 year old man is diabetic he has a large ulcer on the bottom heel of the left foot that has become gangrenous requiring an AKA type of anesthesia other than General will be used

A

spinal

155
Q

while the surgeon is suturing the quadriceps in place the femur is maintained in

A

flexion

156
Q

the end of the sciatic nerve is clamped

A

Schmidt clamp

157
Q

what joint is not fused during a triple arthrodesis

A

cuneiform

158
Q

during an open reduction internal fixation of the humerus the elbow is_______ for retraction of the brachialis muscle

A

flexed

159
Q

what are the upper chambers of the heart

A

Atria

160
Q

an electrocardiogram is a

A

lecture recording of the heart activity

161
Q

the inner lining of the heart is called

A

endocardium

162
Q

what position would a patient be placed for an upper lobectomy

A

modified lateral

163
Q

during a coronary artery bypass grafting the saphenous vein is harvested when

A

at the same time the chest is open

164
Q

which is the most frequently replaced valve in cardiac surgery

A

aortic

165
Q

what surrounds the third ventricle and is located between the midbrain and the cerebellum

A

diencephalon

166
Q

materials that inhibit the flow of electrons are called

A

insulators

167
Q

current is measured in

A

amperes

168
Q

what is the property of matter that resists change in motion

A

inertia

169
Q

the active and inactive electrodes of bipolar electrosurgery is the

A

forceps

170
Q

what is the most common type of motion

A

simple harmonic

171
Q

what is the term for the gain and loss of electrons

A

ionization

172
Q

in a diagram of Soundwave the portion of the curve above the straight line in the wave represents the

A

amplitude

173
Q

liquid is a type of energy given off by what

A

LASERS

174
Q

what type of laser emits the most powerful continuous wave

A

solid state

175
Q

the major focus of nuclear physics is on the relationship between what and what

A

energy and mass

176
Q

pt is brought into sx for rt oopherectomy the surgeon is using AESOP robotic system.What side of the OR table should the manipulator be positioned

A

right

177
Q

for optimal position of the endoscope where should the manipulator be placed in a right oopherectomy

A

at the head of the or table

178
Q

what term is used to refer to performing surgery with robotic arms at a distance

A

telesurgery

179
Q

a robot arm that can move in three dimensions is referred to as having

A

revolut geometry

180
Q

generally where in the OR table is the robotic arm position for surgeries of the lower abdominal area

A

top of the patient’s head

181
Q

what term refers to the robots ability to differentiate between two objects

A

resolution

182
Q

a robotic arm with Cartesian refers to what kind of movement

A

degrees of freedom

183
Q

when performing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy approximately where should the robotic arm be positioned on the or table

A

umbilicus

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