Women's Health Flashcards

1
Q

What is the menstrual cycle?

A

Monthly bleeding from the female reproductive tract induced by cyclical hormonal changes

Defined as the interval between 1st day of last period and the 1st day of next period

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2
Q

Is bleeding between taking the OCP a period?

A

Occurs due to the drop in oestrogen + progesterone

= withdrawal bleed
It is not induced by cyclical hormonal changes so is not a period

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3
Q

When is the last menstrual period (LMP) defined as?

A

1st day of last period

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4
Q

What is menarche? When does it occur?

A

onset of menstruation

occurs 12-13yrs but age is decreasing (95% between 11-14.5yrs)

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5
Q

What are the 4 stages of the menstrual cycle? Which days do they occur?

A

Menstruation (day 1-5) > proliferation (day 6-15) > ovulation (day 14) > secretion (day 16-28)

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6
Q

What hormones cause the onset of menses and secondary sexual characteristics?

A

from 8yrs:
GnRH pulses increase in amplitude and frequency > FSH and LH release increases > stimulate oestrogen release from ovaries > development of secondary sexual characteristics

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7
Q

What is thelarche? When does it occur?

A

breast development

9-11yrs

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8
Q

What is adrenarche? When does it occur?

A

growth of pubic hair

11-12yrs

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9
Q

How regular is the menstrual cycle shortly after menarche? How does it change?

A

initial cycles often irregular > as oestrogen secretion rises > become more regular + pregnancy is then possible

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10
Q

When does growth in a female usually finish by?

A

By 16yrs most growth has finished and epiphyses fuse

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11
Q

What is primary amenorrhea?

A

Failure to menstruate by the age of 16

OR failure to menstruate by the age of 14 in someone with no secondary sexual characteristics

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12
Q

What happens to hormone levels in the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle? What do these changes result in?

A

Day 1:

  • low oestrogen (after menses) + progesterone > stimulate pulses of GnRH from the hypothalamus
  • GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary to stimulate LH and FSH release
  • FSH and LH act on ovarian follicles > induce follicular enlargement and production of oestrogen
  • Follicles produce oestradiol (E2) + inhibit > suppress FSH in -ve feedback loop = only one follicle and oocyte mature
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13
Q

What cells produce oestrogen?

A

granulosa cells

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14
Q

What happens to hormone levels on day 14 of the ovarian cycle?

A
  • oestrogen levels reach their peak as the follicle matures > (FSH release inhibited) LH surge > triggers ovulation 18hrs post surge

18hrs + day 14 is quite concrete in most women no matter how long their cycle is

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15
Q

What happens in the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle IF the egg is fertilised?

A

If the egg is fertilised:

  • syncytiotrophoblast produces bHCG > acts in the same way as LH to keep the corpus luteum going and producing progesterone
  • corpus luteum persists for 6mo
  • function taken over by the placenta by 3mo
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16
Q

What happens in the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle if the egg ISN’T fertilised?

A

Initially: follicle from which the egg was released becomes the corpus luteum > produces more oestrogen than progesterones (peaks later at day 21)
Towards the end:
corpus luteum breaks down > progesterone + oestrogen levels fall > lining of the womb sheds in a period = menstruation > cycle restarts

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17
Q

How can contraception prevent menstruation?

A

continuous administration of exogenous progesterones maintains a secondary endometrium
it’s the FALL in progesterone that triggers menstruation

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18
Q

How does contraception prevent ovulation?

A

oestrogen suppresses LH until it reaches a certain level at which points it triggers LH
steady state oestrogen inhibits LH + FSH > prevents the surge of LH which triggers ovulation

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19
Q

What medication can be taken when needing to delay a period e.g. a holiday?

A

noresthisterone - stop taking when acceptable to have a period again

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20
Q

What is the first phase of the uterine cycle?

A

Menstrual phase - day 1-4ish

  • spiral arteries contract in response to decreasing progesterone (as the corpus luteum is dying off due to decreasing LH)
  • functional endometrium becomes necrotic + is shed as a period
  • myometrial contraction occurs = can be painful
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21
Q

What is the second phase of the uterine cycle?

A

Proliferative phase - day 5-13

  • regrowth of the functional endometrium in response to rising oestrogen = thickens as the stroll cells proliferate
  • development of endometrial glands (elongate) and spiral arteries
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22
Q

What is the 3rd phase of the uterine cycle?

A

Secretary phase (aka luteal) - day 14-28

  • driven by progesterone post ovulation - peaks at day 21 (oestrogen also produced)
  • stroll cell enlarge
  • endometrial glands swell + deepen and become entwined with the spiral arteries (increases blood supply to facilitate transfer of glucose between mum + foetus)
  • endometrial glands produce glycogen (role in implantation)
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23
Q

How do oestrogen levels change throughout the menstrual cycle?

A

increase up to day 14 (peak) and then decrease until menses with a small rise at the beginning of the secretory phase

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24
Q

How do progesterone levels change throughout the menstrual cycle?

A

increase more slowly than oestrogen, peak at secretory phase (day 21ish) and then decrease until menses

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25
Q

When is labour diagnosed?

A

painful uterine contractions accompany dilatation and effacement of the cervix

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26
Q

Define a normal birth

A

low-risk at the start of labour and throughout
born spontaneously in the vertex position between 37 and 42 weeks of pregnancy
after birth, mother and infant are in good condition

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27
Q

What are the 3 mechanical factors that affect labour?

A
  1. power - degree of force expelling the foetus
  2. passage - dimensions of the pelvis and resistance of soft tissues
  3. passenger - diameters of the foetal head
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28
Q

Where do contractions originate from?

A

arise in one of the pacemakers at each cornua of the fundus of the uterus

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29
Q

What happens to the uterus in a contraction?

A

retraction/shortening of muscle fibres > pulls lower segment towards the fundus = cervix dilates (aided by the pressure of the head as the uterus pushes the head down onto the pelvis)

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30
Q

What is the expected frequency of contractions once labour is established?

A

build in amplitude as labour progresses

contracts for 45-60 seconds every 2-4 minutes

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31
Q

What is the cervix like before labour?

A

hard close tube, around 4cm long

tightly closed throughout pregnancy, protected by a plug of mucus

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32
Q

What is cervical effacement? When does it occur during labour?

A

ripening > thinning/softening of the cervix
in primiparous women > completed by time active 1st stage of labour begins
in multiparous > can take place at the same time as dilatation

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33
Q

What factors allow cervical dilatation?

A

caused by contracting muscle + pressure on the cervical opening + ability of cervix to soften and allow distension

measured in cm by vaginal examination

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34
Q

What are the features of the latent phase of labour?

A

contractions - often irregular so can be a difficult stage
mucoid plug (show) comes away as a sticky pink mucus, before labour starts
ROM may occur
cervix begins to efface and dilate up to 4cm

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35
Q

How long does the latent phase of labour usually last?

A

can be the longest stage

especially in primiparous women - can last 2-3 days

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36
Q

What is SROM?

A

spontaneous rupture of membranes - can happen any point prior to/during labour

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37
Q

What is ARM?

A

artificial rupture of membranes > can speed up/augment process/induce labour

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38
Q

Where is the amniotic fluid? What does it do?

A

fluid between the baby and the amnion (sac)
acts as a cushion around the foetus to protect it against any bumps to mother’s abdomen
foetus can swallow the fluid > helps create urine and meconium
rich in stem cells

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39
Q

How much amniotic fluid should there be at term?

A

500-800mls

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40
Q

What is the term for when a foetus is born within the amniotic sac?

A

en caul = very rare

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41
Q

When is the 1st stage of labour defined as?

A

from 4cm to full dilatation (10cm)

= active/established labour

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42
Q

What happens in the 1st stage of labour?

A

stronger uterine contractions
cervix continues to efface and dilate up to 10cm
ROM if not already occurred, or ARM will need to happen
Descent, flexion and internal rotation of foetal head may start to happen

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43
Q

What rate of dilatation is normal in the first stage of labour?

A
Nulliparous = 0.5cm/hr 
Multiparous = 1cm/hr (normal progression)
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44
Q

How long does the 1st stage of labour usually last?

A

no longer than 16hrs

average = 8hrs in nulliparous, 5h in multiparous

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45
Q

When is the 2nd stage of labour defined as?

A

from full dilatation to the birth of the foetus

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46
Q

How long does the 2nd stage of labour last?

A

from 5 mins (multiparous) to 2-3hrs

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47
Q

What is a passive stage in the 2nd stage of labour?

A

woman is fully dilated but does not have urge to push yet

can slow down contractions before pushing starts

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48
Q

What happens in the active stage in the 2nd stage of labour? How long does it last?

A

when pushing is happening
pressure on the pelvic floor produces an irresistible desire to push
delivered on average after 40 mins (nulliparous) or 20 mins (multiparous)
head descends, flexes further, rotation usually completed

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49
Q

After how long pushing does spontaneous delivery become increasingly unlikely?

A

> 1hr

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50
Q

What are the steps of the delivery of the foetal head?

A
  1. descent
  2. flexion
  3. internal rotation
  4. extension
  5. restitution/external rotation
  6. delivery of the body
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51
Q

What happens in descent of the foetal head?

A

foetus descends into the pelvis
occurs from 37wks but might not happen until established labour
measured by comparison with the level of the ischial spines (station)

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52
Q

What happens in flexion of the foetal head?

A

foetal neck flexes, foetal skull has a smaller diameter in this position = aids passage through pelvis
flexion increases throughout labour > reaches vertex position

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53
Q

What happens in internal rotation of the foetal head?

A

With each contraction, the foetal head is pushed onto the pelvic floor
Following each contraction, a rebound effect causes slight rotation
Regular contractions eventually > complete 90 degree turn of foetal head = faces mum’s sacrum

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54
Q

What happens in extension of the foetal head?

A

Occiput slips beneath the suprapubic arch, allowing the head to extend
Foetal head is now born, usually facing mum’s back depending on position

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55
Q

What happens in restitution/external rotation of the foetal head?

A

May see head externally rotate to face mum’s right/left thigh to align with the shoulders = restitution
Perineum stretches and often tears - can be cut (episiotomy) if progress if slow/foetal distress

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56
Q

What happens in delivery of the body? How can delivery of the shoulders be assisted?

A

Gentle axial traction can assist with the delivery of the shoulder below the suprapubic arch
May be followed by gentle upwards traction to assist delivery of the posterior shoulder

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57
Q

What injury can occur if force applied during delivery of the shoulders is too excessive?

A

brachial plexus damage

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58
Q

What is delayed cord clamping?

A

Umbilical cord not immediately clamped and cut at point of birth to allow at least 1 minute to transfuse blood to the baby

Baby can receive up to 214g of blood if this happens (average term newborn has 80mls/kg so 214 = significant)

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59
Q

What are the potential advantages of delayed cord clamping?

A
  • allows baby time to transition to extrauterine life
  • increase in rbcs, iron + stem cells = aid with growth and development initially
  • reduced need for inotropic support
    Very beneficial for preterm babies
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60
Q

When is the 3rd stage of labour defined as?

A

from the birth of the foetus to the expulsion of the placenta
usually lasts about 15 mins

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61
Q

How is the placenta expelled by the uterus?

A

Uterine muscle fibres contract to compress the vessels formerly supplying the placenta which shears away from the uterine wall

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62
Q

What are the two ways the placenta can be delivered?

A
  1. physiological - body expels it without intervention
  2. active - mum given an IM oxytocin drug > uterus contracts and expels the placenta > delivered using controlled cord traction
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63
Q

What are the risks when a placenta is delivered using cord traction?

A

excessive force > snapped cord, inverted uterus

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64
Q

Why is it important to check the placenta and membranes once they are delivered?

A

must check if any is left in the uterus

= risk of serious PPH

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65
Q

What membranes should be delivered with the placenta?

A

amnion (bag around baby)

chorion (membranes around placenta)

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66
Q

What is the role of the placenta?

A
  • O2, nutrients + maternal abs passed to foetus
  • waste products from the foetus are passed back to the maternal blood for disposal
  • produces hormones that assist with foetal growth and development

however alcohol + nicotine can also be passed on

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67
Q

Some midwives describe a 4th stage of labour, what is this?

A

early postnatal phase
skin to skin contact increases oxytocin for mum and baby
= bonding, uterus contracts, regulates baby’s HR and breathing

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68
Q

What role does oxytocin have in labour?

A

a surge in oxytocin at the onset of labour contracts the uterus

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69
Q

What role does prolactin have in labour?

A

begins the process of milk PRODUCTION in the mammary glands

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70
Q

What role does oestrogen have in labour?

A

surge at onset of labour to inhibit progesterone to prepare the smooth muscles for labour

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71
Q

What role do prostaglandins have in labour?

A

aid with cervical ripening

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72
Q

What role do beta-endorphins have in labour?

A

natural pain relief

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73
Q

What role does adrenaline have in labour?

A

released as birth is imminent to give woman the energy to give birth

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74
Q

What damage occurs in a 1st degree perineal tear?

A

minor damage to the fourchette

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75
Q

What damage occurs in a 2nd degree perineal tear or an episiotomy?

A

involves the perineal muscle

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76
Q

What damage occurs in a 3rd degree perineal tear?

A

involves the anal sphincter (1% of deliveries)

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77
Q

What damage occurs in a 4th degree perineal tear?

A

also involves the anal mucosa

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78
Q

Define malpresentation

A

when the foetus is not presenting by the vertex

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79
Q

What term describes a normal lie of the foetus?

A

cephalic (94% of deliveries)

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80
Q

Define breech presentation

A

presenting part of the foetus is not the head - foetus is in a longitudinal lie with buttocks or feet closest to the cervix

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81
Q

What is the most common type of breech presentation?

A

extended breech - presenting part is the bottom

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82
Q

What are some causes of breech presentation?

A

Idiopathic
Uterine abnormalities (bicornuate uterus, fibroids)
Prematurity (baby hasn’t turned around yet)
Placenta praevia
Oligohydramnios
Foetal abnormalities eg hydrocephalus

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83
Q

How are breech babies identified?

A

Try to dx antenatally on USS
30% present undiagnosed in labour - identify by palpation via abdo exam or feeling breech vaginally + mum may complain of pain under ribs

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84
Q

How are breech babies managed?

A
  1. External cephalic version (ECV) - manoeuvring baby to correct the breech, can be done at 37 wks
  2. If unsuccessful/CI > LSCS
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85
Q

When might external cephalic version be contraindicated for a breech baby?

A

placenta praevia
multiple pregnancies (except delivery of 2nd twin)
uterine abnormalities/scars eg previous LSCS
pre-eclampsia/HTN (increased risk of abruption)

APH in last 7/7
rupture membranes

growth restricted babies
abnormal CTG
foetal abnormality

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86
Q

What is the most ideal lie of a foetus?

A

LOA - left occiput anterior

back of foetus is on mother’s left side and towards the front so the occiput leads in delivery

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87
Q

What is the most common pelvis type in females?

A

gynecoid > lots of adaptation for childbirth e.g. wide subpubic arch, transverse oval inlet

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88
Q

What bones and fontanelles is the foetal skull made up of? How does the foetal skull aid passage through the pelvis?

A

frontal, parietal, temporal bones
sagittal suture runs down the middle with an anterior and posterior fontanelle

Bones are not fully formed or fused at birth = allows movement and overlapping as baby travels through the birth canal

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89
Q

What general care should be provided to support a women’s physical health during labour?

A
  • obs (temp and BP every 4hrs, pulse every hr and then every 15 mins in the 2nd stage)
  • contraction frequency recorded every 30mins
  • foetal HR monitoring
  • ACTIVE process - mum in control
  • hydration - IV fluids may be needed in prolonged labour
  • bladder care - encourage to micturate frequently (catheterisation may be needed if she has an epidural)
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90
Q

What positions are most ideal for giving birth in?

A

all fours > increases diameter of pelvic inlet, less compression on aorta, gravity
squatting, kneeling, left-lateral position also

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91
Q

Why is the supine position avoided during birth?

A
  1. has to push the baby around a u-bend
  2. uterus compresses vessels > reduced CO > hypotension (aortocaval compression)

combine with left-lateral tilt to improve position

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92
Q

How and why should pyrexia in labour be managed?

A

increased risk of neonatal illness
more common with epidurals, prolonged labour

vaginal, blood + urine cultures
give paracetamol
if 38: IV abx + CTG monitoring

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93
Q

Why is bladder care important during labour?

A

dehydration can interrupt labour
full bladder can prevent head descending
pushing with a full bladder can cause bruising/damage to bladder
in 3rd stage: increases risk of uterus not contracting > PPH risk

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94
Q

What general care should be provided to support a women’s psychological health during labour?

A

environment - music, privacy, home/water birth
partner present
breathing/sighing (holding breath/hyperventilation affects O2 delivery to mum and baby)
1:1 support during labour
mum in control - have a birth plan

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95
Q

What non-invasive, holistic methods can be used for pain management during labour?

A
water immersion
comfortable positions/environment
aromatherapy 
massage
hypnobirthing 
TENS machine
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96
Q

What pharmacological methods can be used for pain management during labour?

A

Paracetamol/codeine - esp effective in early/latent phases
Entonox (gas &air - 50% O2, 50% nitrous oxide)
opioids IV or single shot IM - diamorphine = most common, pethidine, remifentanil
epidural

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97
Q

What are the advantages of entonox?

A
fast acting (20-30 seconds to take effect)
short half-life (some women don't like the feeling but it doesn't last long)
does not require further foetal monitoring
can be used alongside other analgesia
good distraction therapy
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98
Q

What are the disadvantages of entonox?

A

nausea, light-headedness

wears off quickly

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99
Q

What are the advantages of opioids as pain management in labour?

A

can be given by a midwife
still able to mobilise
does not slow labour
drowsiness - can sleep between contractions

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100
Q

What are the disadvantages of opioids as pain management in labour?

A

maternal SE: N&V, eu/dysphoria, can prolong 1st/2nd stages, resp depression, pruritus

foetal SE: resp depression, diminishes breast seeking and feeding behaviour

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101
Q

What medication does an epidural contain?

A

mixture of bupivacaine and fentanyl (i.e. a local anaesthetic and an opioid)

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102
Q

Where is an epidural inserted? How does it work?

A

epidural catheter inserted into the epidural space at L3/4 by an anaesthetist

drugs administered through this via a pump

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103
Q

When is an epidural indicated?

A
maternal request
HTN/pre-eclampsia
cardiac disease
induced labour
multiple births

Used in long/difficult labours, baby in awkward position, mum exhausted, augmented labour with syntocinon

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104
Q

CI to an epidural?

A

local infection

allergy to local anaesthetics

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105
Q

What are the advantages of an epidural?

A

total pain relief in 90% of ptients

effect lasts until baby is born

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106
Q

What are the disadvantages of an epidural?

A

Maternal SE: can slow labour if not established (1st/2nd stages), need for more oxytocin, increased need for instrumental/LSCS, reduced mobility, can take up to an hr to take effect, will need a catheter, pyrexia

Foetal SE: tachycardia, diminishes breast-feeding behaviour

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107
Q

What are the potential complications of an epidural?

A

damage to spinal cord, hypotension + bradycardia, haematoma/abscess at injection site, anaphylaxis, post dural puncture headache

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108
Q

How is progress in labour recorded and monitored?

A

partogram

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109
Q

What is the NICE definition of slow progress labour?

A

<2cm dilatation in 4hrs

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110
Q

What on the partogram indicates slow progress?

A

alert and action lines
an action line = ACTION must be taken
point at which progression stops may indicate a cause

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111
Q

What factors does the partogram assess?

A
FHR
cervical dilatation
contractions per 10mins
drugs + fluids given
maternal pulse + BP
urine
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112
Q

When is progression of labour abnormal?

A

slow from beginning = dysfunctional labour

sudden slowing of labour = secondary arrest

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113
Q

What are the RFs for failure to progress in labour?

A
large baby
breech baby
1st time mother
previous delayed labour
premature ROM
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114
Q

How is failure to progress in labour assessed?

A

Palpate abdomen for lie, head and contractions
CTG
Colour of amniotic fluid
Vaginal examination

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115
Q

What are the 3 main causes of slow progress in labour?

A

power
passenger
passage
or a combination

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116
Q

What is the most common cause of slow progress in labour? Who is it most common in?

A

inefficient uterine action

common in nulliparous women (+ induced labour)

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117
Q

What are the power causes of slow progress of labour?

A

inefficient uterine action
hyperactive uterine action
maternal exhaustion

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118
Q

How can hyperactive uterine action be managed?

A

excessively strong/frequent/prolonged contractions

depends on cause
if no abruption > tocolytic e.g. salbutamol IV/SC
LSCS often indicated due to foetal distress

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119
Q

What are the passenger causes of slow progress of labour?

A

malpresentation
malposition of large baby (presenting part is in the right place but wrong position e.g. occipital-transverse/posterior, brow)

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120
Q

What are the passage causes of slow progress of labour?

A
inadequate pelvis
cephalopelvic disproportion (big baby, small pelvis)
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121
Q

What is augmentation vs induction of labour?

A

augmentation: artificial strengthening of contractions in established labour
induction: artificial initiation of labour

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122
Q

How is failure to progress in the 1st stage of labour managed?

A

augmentation by ARM/amniotomy
CTG monitoring, FBS if concerns

if membranes already ruptured/fails to dilate further > oxytocin infusion
then consider LSCS

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123
Q

How is failure to progress in the 2nd stage of labour managed?

A

Allow to push for 2hrs if primp, 1hr if multip
If not breech - oxytocin and keep assessing

If breech - try ECV first, no point giving oxytocin > LSCS
If no imminent delivery > obstetric review for instrumental delivery/LSCS

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124
Q

What factors is the mode of delivery influenced by?

A

size + presentation of baby

well-being of both, length of labour, maternal exhaustion

adequacy of pelvis

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125
Q

What are the foetal consequences of slow progress in labour?

A

foetal distress
foetal hypoxia > hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy
increased morbidity/mortality

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126
Q

What are the maternal consequences of slow progress in labour?

A

bleeding

tears

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127
Q

Which drug can stop the effect of oxytocin by blocking its receptor?

A

atosiban

can inhibit myometrial contractions by blocking oxytocin > used to prevent premature birth

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128
Q

What are some causes of meconium stained liqour?

A

foetal distress

foetal maturity - late baby ready to be born

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129
Q

What can meconium aspiration result in?

A

severe pneumonitis

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130
Q

Define APH

A

any bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks

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131
Q

What are the possible causes of an APH?

A

placenta praevia + vasa praevia + placental abruption

less common:

  • placental adhesive disorder
  • uterine rupture of a LSCS scar
  • incidental genital tract pathology e.g. cervical carcinoma, polyps, cervical ectropion
  • trophoblastic disease
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132
Q

How is an APH investigated and diagnosed?

A

ABCDE assessment, vitals
Bloods: FBC, U&Es, clotting, CRP, cross match/G&S
Kleinbauer test, consider anti-d prophylaxis

CTG
USS to rule out LLP/abruption

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133
Q

What must you avoid before confirming the position of the placenta?

A

NO INTERNAL EXAM ESP VAGINAL IF YOU HAVEN’T CONFIRMED POSITION OF PLACENTA
= risk you may put your fingers through it

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134
Q

How is an APH managed?

A

ABCDE management
Consider blood transfusion, fluids

Depends on the cause:

  • placenta praevia > admit, steroids if <34wks, LSCS at 39wks or before if bleeding heavily
  • abruption > may be able to manage expectantly if minor, if in foetal distress - LSCS, if not distressed - after 37wks induce labour
  • accreta - deliver, caesarean hysterectomy (removing placenta can cause catastrophic bleeding)
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135
Q

Define a primary PPH

A

Primary = within 24hrs of delivery

AND >500ml blood loss (or >1000ml after caesarean)

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136
Q

How is major bleeding in a PPH defined?

A

> 1500ml/signs of clinical shock

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137
Q

What are the causes of PPH?

A

Tone - uterine atony (most common)
Thrombin - bleeding disorders
Trauma - eg perineal tear
Tissue - retained products

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138
Q

What are the 4T’s of causes of PPH?

A

Tone (70%) - uterine atony
Trauma (20%) - perineal/vaginal tear
Tissue (10%) - retained placental/membrane tissue
Thrombin (<1%) - coagulopathy e.g. anticoagulants, DIC, inherited e.g. haemophilia/VWD, acquired e.g. HELPP syndrome

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139
Q

What makes uterine atony more likely?

A

prolonged labour
grand multiparity
over distension of the uterus e.g. polyhydramnios, multiple pregnancy
fibroids

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140
Q

When should antenatal thromboprophylaxis be stopped?

A

at least 12hrs before labour/delivery to reduce chances of a PPH

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141
Q

What are the RFs for a PPH?

A

Tone - multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnios, prolonged/very short labour, grand multiparity
Thrombin - coagulation defect/anticoagulant therapy
Tissue - retained placenta

APH, Previous PPH
Previous c-section
C-section/instrumental delivery, augmentation/induction of labour
Obesity

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142
Q

How should a primary PPH be investigated?

A

ABCDE assessment
IV access with 2 large bore grey cannulas
- Bloods - FBC< U&Es, coag, LFT, G&S, cross match

Examination

  • abdo - is uterus contracted?
  • vaginal - trauma?
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143
Q

What will an atonic uterus feel like on palpation?

A

uterus impalpable (would normally be palpable after delivery)

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144
Q

What medication in the 3rd stage of labour can reduce incidence of a PPH?

A

oxytocin

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145
Q

How should a primary PPH be immediately managed?

A

ABCDE - O2, IV access, lots of fluids +/- blood transfusion
Find the source of the bleeding!

Tx coagulopathy if present - fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate may be required
If >1L of bleeding - give tranexamic acid
Remove retained placenta manually if bleeding and not expelled within 1hr of delivery

If blood loss is >1500ml and ongoing > MPH protocol

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146
Q

What interventions can be taken in a PPH if the uterus is atonic?

A

Empty bladder
Massage uterus/rub abdomen
Bimanual compression of uterus

Then pharmacological > IV syntocinon > IM carboprost > surgery

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147
Q

After immediate management, how should a PPH be treated?

A
  1. Uterine massage + catheter
  2. oxytocin/syntocinon IV infusion
  3. ergometrin (CI = HTN)
  4. carboprost (must be IM/inject directly into uterus) = prostaglandin (PGF2a)
  5. misoprostol PR > long lasting uterine contraction
  6. surgery
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148
Q

What surgical options are there for the tx of a PPH?

A
  • Bleeding from a placental bed (well-contracted uterus with no trauma) > Rusch balloon (least invasive option) - inflates in uterus, fill with warm saline, exerts hydrostatic pressure onto bleeding vessels + meds to stop bleeding
  • B-linch/brace suture - 2 big brace sutures around uterus = mechanical compression
  • Uterine artery embolisation
  • Ligation of internal iliac/uterine artery

Catheterisation

Hysterectomy if other options fail

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149
Q

Define a secondary PPH

A

excessive blood loss >24hrs and <12wks after delivery

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150
Q

What are the possible causes of a secondary PPH?

A

Most common = endometritis or retained placental tissue

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151
Q

Investigations for a secondary PPH?

A

high vaginal swabs (endometritis) - look for CT/GC
USS - retained products

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152
Q

How to manage a secondary PPH?

A

Depending on cause:
endometritis: abx
RPC: evacuation of retained products of conception (ERPC)

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153
Q

What is synctocinon?

A

combination of ergometrine and oxytocin to help uterus contract

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154
Q

What are the 4 types of HTN that can occur in pregnancy?

A
  1. Gestational HTN = only during pregnancy and occurs for the 1st time during pregnancy
  2. Preeclampsia-eclampsia
  3. Chronic HTN = occurs prior to pregnancy
  4. Preeclampsia superimposed upon chronic HTN/renal disease
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155
Q

How are spiral arteries different in a pregnant woman with preeclampsia?

A

In pregnancy they are more dilated and have less tortuosity and should become less spiral to supply placenta

In pre-eclampsia they don’t dilate and stay tortuous > less blood flow to the trophoblast/placenta

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156
Q

RFs for developing preeclampsia?

A

Young teenagers + >37yrs
Black women
Obesity

Primigravidity
Multifoetal pregnancies, polyhydramnios ie large placenta
Long interpregnancy interval

Previous/family hx
Chronic HTN
Renal disease/other PMH - diabetes, AI disease

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157
Q

Define gestational HTN

A

After 20wks
Systolic >140 or Diastolic >90
or increase above booking levels of >30 systolic or >15 diastolic
no proteinuria
resolves following birth

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158
Q

When is HTN chronic rather than gestational in a pregnant female?

A

HTN diagnosed before pregnancy/before 20th wk of gestation if not checked before pregnancy/during pregnancy and not resolved postpartum

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159
Q

Define preeclampsia

A

New HTN after 20th wk (earlier with trophoblastic disease)
with proteinuria
+/- oedema

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160
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

features of pre-eclampsia + generalised tonic-clonic seizures

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161
Q

What are the 2 criteria for preeclampsia superimposed upon chronic HTN?

A

A. HTN + no proteinuria <20wks + new onset proteinuria after 20wks

B. HTN + proteinuria <20 wks + sudden increase in proteinuria/BP that was well controlled/thrombocytopenia (<100,000), abnormal (raised) ALT/AST

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162
Q

What are the sx of preeclampsia?

A

usually asymptomatic
Oligouria
Visual disturbances
Headache (similar to migraine)
Epigastric pain - hepatic swelling/inflammation, stretch of liver capsule
+/e oedema
Rapid weight gain (fluid retention)

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163
Q

What signs does preeclampsia present with?

A

HTN = 1st sign
Proteinuria
Oedema - incl facial oedema
Retinal vasospasm/oedema (hypertensive retinopathy)
RUQ tenderness (suggests impending complications)
Brisk reflexes common in pregnancy but ankle clonus = sign of neuromuscular irritability > concerning of imminent eclampsia

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164
Q

How should preeclampsia be investigated?

A
  • Hb, platelets - both decreased in severe pre-eclampsia
  • Raised serum uric acid
  • LFTs (raised ALT > impending liver damage/HELPP)
  • If 1+ protein by clean catch dipstick > timed collection for protein and creatinine
  • Accurate dating and assessment of foetal growth
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165
Q

Define the criteria for diagnosis of preeclampsia

A
  1. Gestational HTN = systolic >140, diastolic >90 (repeat measurement 6hrs after 1st to see if still exceeded)
  2. Proteinuria =
    If 2+ = significant proteinuria likely > quantify for confirmed significant:
    Protein:creatinine - >30mg/nmol
    Or 24hr collection - >0.3g/24hr
    Repeat as may be absent in early disease
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166
Q

What indicates a patient’s preeclampsia is severe?

A

BP: >160 systolic, >100 diastolic +/- sx

+/- biochemical/haematological impairment

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167
Q

What is the cure for preeclampsia?

A

delivery = always beneficial for mum, sometimes not for foetus

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168
Q

How is mild/moderate preeclampsia managed?

A

oral labetalol

(nifedipine if asthmatic, methyldopa)

bp monitoring every 48hrs
FBC, LFT, renal function 2x wk

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169
Q

Which patients should be given MgSO4 with caution?

A

renal failure

Mg toxicity > cardiac arrest

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170
Q

Which antihypertensives are teratogenic? How is pre-existing HTN managed in pregnancy?

A

ACEi are teratogenic

1st line = labetalol
2nd = nifedipine

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171
Q

How is acute severe preeclampsia treated? When is it severe?

A

BP = 160/110+

lV hydralazine/oral or IV labetalol (CI in asthma, CHF)/oral nifedipine
Hospital admission for close monitoring
consider birth if no response to tx

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172
Q

When should baby be delivered if the mother has preeclampsia?

A

<34wks: continue surveillance, offer MgSO4 + corticosteroids
36-37: continue surveillance, corticosteroids, decision based on risk if needed early
37: initiate birth within 24-48hrs

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173
Q

What mode of delivery is preferable in women with preeclampsia? What can be given during delivery to reduce HTN

A

vaginal

hydrazine/labetalol (only in severe HTN as can also reduce supply to placenta)

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174
Q

What postpartum care will the mother need after having preeclampsia?

A

continue monitoring bloods, BP and fluid balance
Continue htn tx for 2 weeks then review, 1st line = enalipril (2nd = nifedipine - 1st in afro-caribbean)
Refer if HTN persists after 6wks

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175
Q

What are the maternal complications that can occur due to preeclampsia?

A
CVA
eclampsia
pulmonary oedema
liver complications
renal failure
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176
Q

What are the foetal complications that can occur due to preeclampsia?

A

IUGR
preterm birth
placental abruption
hypoxia

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177
Q

For how long after delivery/last seizure should MgSO4 be continued in a woman with eclampsia?

A

24hrs

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178
Q

What is HELPP syndrome?

A
H = haemolysis
EL = elevated liver enzymes
LP = low platelets
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179
Q

What S&S does HELPP syndrome cause?

A

haemolysis > dark urine, raised lactic dehydrogenase

elevated liver enzymes > epigastric pain, liver failure, abnormal clotting

low platelets

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180
Q

How is HELPP syndrome managed?

A

supportive tx
magnesium sulphate prophylaxis against eclampsia
immediate delivery depending on gestation

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181
Q

Why is anaemia more common in pregnant women?

A

40% increase in blood volume in pregnancy is relatively greater than the increase in red cell mass > net fall in Hb concentration
Iron and folic acid requirements increase
Iron absorption increases 3fold

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182
Q

High Hb is a/w with that risks in pregnancy?

A

preterm delivery

IUGR

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183
Q

What are the causes of anaemia in pregnancy?

A
inadequate intake
poor absorption
haemolytic e.g. sickle cell
excessive demands e.g. twins
vaginal loss/preexisting haemorrhage
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184
Q

When does IDA become symptomatic in a pregnant woman?

A

hb <9g/dL

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185
Q

How does IDA present on blood tests?

A

MCV reduced, ferritin reduced

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186
Q

How is IDA treated in pregnant women?

A
oral iron (can cause GI upset)
if severe > IV iron is quicker, may prevent need for blood transfusion
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187
Q

If a pregnant woman present with anaemia without microcytosis what should the cause be assumed to be?

A

folic acid deficiency - more common than vit b12

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188
Q

How does folic acid and vit B12 deficiency present on blood tests?

A

MCV usually increased

red cell folic acid/vit B12 levels low

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189
Q

How can anaemia be prevented in pregnancy?

A

Routine iron supplements - often poorly tolerated
Dietary advice
Hb checked at booking, 28 and 34 wks
Iron +/- folic acid given if Hb is <11g/dL
Routine preconceptual and 1st trimester folic acid 0.4mg supplement recommended to all women (reduces incidence of NTDs)

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190
Q

What is the difference between adult and foetal Hb?

A

Adult Hb: 2 alpha and 2 beta

Foetal Hb: 2 alpha and 2 gamma

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191
Q

What happens to Hb in sickle cell disease?

A

abnormal beta-chain formation (S chain) in Hb > made up of 2 alpha an 2 S chains (or C chains)

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192
Q

How is sickle cell disease inherited?

A

autosomal recessive

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193
Q

What routine test is done on all pregnant women to identify if a woman is a carrier for sickle cell disease? What is done if she is a heterozygote?

A

Hb electrophoresis

If a heterozygote > partner is tested > if +ve > prenatal dx for homozygosity is offered

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194
Q

What are the sx of sickle cell disease?

A

Crises of bone pain and pulmonary sx
Lifetime chronic haemolytic anaemia
Pulmonary HTN, proliferative retinopathy possible

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195
Q

What are the possible maternal and foetal complications of sickle cell disease?

A

Maternal complications: acute painful crises, pre-eclampsia, thrombosis
Foetal complications: miscarriage, IUGR, preterm labour, death

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196
Q

Which medication used to tx sickle cell disease is teratogenic?

A

hydroxycarbamide = should be stopped

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197
Q

How is sickle cell disease managed during pregnancy? And during crises?

A

Avoid dehydration, seek early help advice
Penicillin V continued, high-dose 5mg folic acid supplements, aspirin (for preeclampsia prophylaxis) + LMWH often indicated

Monthly urine culture
Avoid iron (due to overload)
USS used 4wkly for foetal growth, delivery indicated by 38wks 

Crises:
Exchange transfusions may be required
Hydration, analgesia + often abx, anticoagulation

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198
Q

Define endometriosis

A

The presence of endometrial tissue outside the endometrial cavity

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199
Q

Where can endometriosis occur? What are the most common locations?

A

most common = pelvis (particularly uterosacral ligaments, pouch of Douglas, on/behind ovaries)

can be anywhere eg abdominal wound scars - appendectomy, rectum, even the lungs, umbilicus

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200
Q

When in a women’s lifetime might endometrial sx regress?

A

oestrogen dependant =
starts after puberty
regresses during pregnancy, after menopause, if on androgens

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201
Q

What does changes can the bleeding in endometriosis cause in the uterus ?

A

accumulated altered blood (dark brown) > inflammation > progressive fibrosis and adhesions
if blood has no exit > nerve entrapment, peritoneal irritation etc

can form a ‘chocolate cyst’ = endometrioma in the ovaries

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202
Q

What can happen in severe grade 4 endometriosis?

A

frozen pelvis > uterus adhered to bowel so can’t have a hysterectomy in case of perforation

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203
Q

What are the 3 theories behind the pathophysiology of endometriosis?

A
  1. Sampson’s theory - retrograde menstruation > shedded endometrial tissue in a period goes back through the fallopian tubes and implants elsewhere
  2. Halban’s theory - more distant tissue > mechanical, lymphatic, blood-borne spread
  3. Meyers theory > metaplasia of mesothelial cells
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204
Q

Retrograde menstruation is very common. Why doesn’t everyone with it have endometriosis?

A

individual factors determine whether the endometrial tissue implants and grows (eg impaired immunity, genetics)

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205
Q

Why do endometrial sx increase towards a women’s period?

A

oestrogen increases during the menstrual cycle > endometrial tissue gets bigger and bleeds when menses occurs (triggered by progesterone) + becomes painful
so depending location may have cyclical haemoptysis, nosebleeds, haematuria (uncommon)

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206
Q

Who is more likely to be affected by endometriosis?

A

low parity women (the more someone is pregnant > more exposed to progesterone > endometrium shrinks)
usually dx in younger women (30-45yrs)

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207
Q

Differential diagnoses of endometriosis?

A

1 = adenomyosis

Chronic PID
Chronic pelvic pain
Pelvis masses
IBS

208
Q

What are the key sx of endometriosis?

A

often asymptomatic

cyclical chronic pelvic pain
dysmenorrhea
deep dyspareunia
dychezia/dysuria during menses 
sub fertility 
may have bleeding from other places during periods e.g. nosebleeds
209
Q

What is the pattern of pain in endometriosis? What other painful sx is it a/w?

A
  • cyclical (builds up 2-3 days before a periods and stops afterwards, pain not related to periods is unlikely to be endometriosis)
  • dysmenorrhea (NOT a/w heavy periods)
  • deep dyspareunia (pouch of Douglas = site of trauma during sex)
  • dyschezia/dysuria during menses
210
Q

Why can endometriosis affect fertility?

A

Due to immune factors (cytokines released by areas of endometriosis), oocyte toxicity, adhesions, tubal/ovarian dysfunction

211
Q

How might endometriosis present O/E?

A

tenderness/thickening behind uterus/in adnexa

in mild disease = often normal

212
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for endometriosis?

A

laparoscopy

213
Q

What would be seen on laparoscopy in a women with endometriosis?

A

Red vesicles/punctate marks = acute lesions
white scars/brown spots = less active
Ovarian endometriomas/extensive adhesions = severe
can be graded from 1-4

214
Q

Investigations for endometriosis?

A

laparoscopy +/- biopsy
transvaginal USS can exclude an endometrioma (mottled white)
very extensive disease > MRI

215
Q

How can endometriosis be managed?

A

Sometimes it regresses/doesn’t progress > asymptomatic endometriosis doesn’t need tx

  1. analgesia (may be enough if pt doesn’t wan’t hormonal therapy)
  2. hormonal therapy to either abolish cyclicity or do glandular atrophy
  3. surgery
216
Q

What is the aim behind medical management of endometriosis?

A

oestrogen dependant

tx either mimics pregnancy or menopause

217
Q

What are the hormonal therapy options for endometriosis?

A

abolish cyclicality

a. COCP
b. GnRH agonists

glandular atrophy (give progesterone) = work well if patient doesn’t want to get pregnant

a. oral prostagens/depot provera in cyclical/continuous basis
b. mirena coil (progestogen releasing device)

218
Q

How does the COCP treat endometriosis? How is it given?

A

Mimics pregnancy
Give continuously > atrophy and thinning of endometrium

Give back to back for 3mo = triphasic - then allow to have a period or will eventually have breakthrough bleeds anyway, this way increases compliance

219
Q

How do GnRH agonists work in the treatment of endometriosis?

A

Overstimulation of the pituitary > down regulation of its GnRH receptors > FSH/LH inhibited > ovarian hormone production inhibited
= induces temporary menopause without affecting the ovaries

220
Q

What are the downsides to GnRH agonists?

A

cause menopausal sx = risk of osteoporosis so can only be given short term

add HRT add back therapy (combined o+p) = takes away hot flushes without rebuilding endometrium > reduces risk of osteoporosis so can be given a bit longer term

221
Q

What are the downsides of oral prostagens/depot provera as a tx for endometriosis? How do they work?

A

= mimics pregnancy

SEs: poor cycle control, erratic bleeding, PMS like sx, fluid retention, weight gain

222
Q

Why is the mirena coil an effective tx for endometriosis?

A

effective progesterone delivery, contraception + lightens periods
especially good if pt gets SEs from COCP/POP as progesterone directly to the uterus reduces SEs

223
Q

What are the surgical options for treating endometriosis?

A

If fertility is desired:
- scissors (excision), laser, bipolar diathermy (ablation) laparoscopically at time of dx
+/- adhesiolysis (removal of adhesions/endometriomas)
= may be better than medical tx if struggling to concieve

If severe/likely to be infertile/finished having a family > oophorectomy, consider pelvic clearance (hysterectomy with bilateral sapling-oophorectomy)
(HRT may be required if ovaries are removed)

224
Q

What can unopposed oestrogen put a women at risk of?

A

endometrial carcinoma

225
Q

Define stillbirth

A

a baby delivered with no signs of life known to have died after 24 completed weeks of pregnancy

226
Q

Define intra-uterine foetal death

A

the death is diagnosed when the baby is still inside eg on scan

227
Q

Epidemiology of stillbirth?

A

1/3rd are SGA
50% unexplained
Suboptimal care identified in half of cases

228
Q

Why have the rates of stillbirth remained constant?

A

rising obesity rates

average maternal age

229
Q

What factors make a women’s pregnancy high risk?

A

Underlying medical conditions - HTN, diabetes, epilepsy, RA, asthma, IBD, any almost anything else
Raised/low BMI, smoking/alcohol/drugs, old/young mothers

Complications in previous pregnancies eg c-section, 3rd/4th degree tear, traumatic delivery, pre-eclampsia, PPH, small baby, preterm, stillbirth
Complications in current pregnancy eg pre-eclampsia, breech, gestational diabetes, multiple pregnancy, placenta praevia

230
Q

How are high and low risk pregnancies managed differently?

A

low risk can just be managed in the community

high risk managed by hospital and community

231
Q

How is the foetus monitored in the antenatal period?

A

USS + umbilical artery doppler
Intermittent auscultation with hand-help doppler/pinard stethoscope
CTG

232
Q

What does an USS assess during the antenatal period?

A
  • growth - HC, AC, FL + these 3 give estimated foetal weight > plot on customised growth chart
  • liquor volume
233
Q

What does an umbilical artery doppler measure? How is it read? What should it show?

A

blood flow to baby
Pressure in vessels during systole increases > peaks are systole, troughs are diastole

Want to see flow even in diastole (positive EDF)

234
Q

What are the red flag signs on umbilical artery doppler?

A

no flow (absent EDF/ADEF) or reversed flow (REDF) compared to systole

= evidence of high (rather than low) resistance circulation

235
Q

Define IUGR?

A

EFW <10th centile

236
Q

What are the causes of asymmetrical IUGR? When does it usually happen? What happens to the measurements?

A

due to extrinsic factors e.g. placental insufficiency
Maternal conditions eg smoking, diabetes, HTN
Pregnancy conditions eg pre-eclampsia

Usually in later stages - 3rd trimester
Normal HC, small body and limbs

237
Q

When is US used for foetal monitoring in pregnancy?

A

after the 1st trimester

238
Q

What can low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A indicate?

A

chromosomal abnormalities (screening for Down’s), high risk of IUGR, placental abruption, stillbirth

239
Q

What are the causes of symmetrical IUGR? What happens to the measurements?

A

Intrinsic factors eg early infections (TORCH), aneuploidy (chromosomal)

Shows global growth restriction
Increased risk neurological sequelae

240
Q

What are the TORCH infections?

A

toxoplasmosis, other agents, rubella, CMV, HSV

241
Q

What signs of IUGR may show on US?

A
  • EFW <10th centile
  • Oligohydramnios - too little amniotic fluid
  • Reduced FM possible due to reduced O2
242
Q

How is the amount of amniotic fluid measured?

A

Either look at single deepest pocket they can see

Or measure amniotic fluid index (AFI) by scanning the 4 quadrants of the stomach

243
Q

What are the possible causes of oligohydramnios?

A

reduced excretion - urinary tract problem?
leakage
ruptured membrane
reduced production e.g. reduced renal perfusion

244
Q

How is the foetus monitored intrapartum? Which is used for low vs high risk pregnancy?

A
intermittent auscultation (for low risk)
continuous monitoring (for high risk) e.g. CTG

Pts should classified into low/high risk at the beginning of labour with continual risk assessment

245
Q

What are the NICE guidelines for intermittent auscultation of low risk pregnancies during labour?

A

offer pinard stethoscope or hand-held doppler

1st stage: IA immediately after a contraction for at least 1 minute, at least every 15 minutes
2nd stage: at least every 5 minutes

246
Q

What does the foetal HR vs placenta sound like on intermittent ausculation?

A

foetal HR = clip clop sound, much faster than mum’s

placenta = whoosh sound

247
Q

What are the drawbacks of intermittent auscultation?

A

Can’t measure variability/decelerations
long-term monitoring not possible
quality of FHR affected by maternal HR and movement = listen for at least a minute

248
Q

What is the most common method to continuous monitoring? When is it used?

A

CTG
2 straps over the abdomen - one over foetus, one to pick up contractions

not useful it patient it low risk
from 26wks gestation

249
Q

What are the advantages of CTG?

A

shows FHR and uterine contractions
long-term monitoring
average variability can be determined

250
Q

What are the disadvantages of CTG?

A

can only be done in hospital number of contractions not strength
some foetal exposure to US insonation
not true beat to beat info

251
Q

What is an acronym to help interpret a CTG?

A

Dr C Bravado

Dr = define risk
C = contractions (bottom line shows no of contractions)
Bra = baseline rate (should be 110-160bpm)
V = variability (how wiggly the line is - should vary between 5 and 25bpm)
A = accelerations (rise form baseline of at least 15 beats for 15secs+ - should be at least 2 every 15 mins, often with contractions)
D = decelerations (drop from baseline for 15 beats for at least 15secs, generally abnormal)
O = overall assessment

Can be reassuring, non-reassuring or abnormal

252
Q

What is the ideal number of contractions during labour? How many is too many?

A

ideally 4 in 10, regular and strong

with each squeeze, potentially reduce blood supply so baby needs time to recover
tachysystole = >5 in 10

253
Q

What is a reassuring CTG?

A

Baseline: 110-160
Variability: >5bpm
Accelerations present
No or early decelerations

254
Q

What is a normal amount of variability on CTG? How long can it be abnormal for?

A

5-25bpm

reduced level of variability acceptable for 40 mins (baby may be sleeping)

255
Q

What are the 3 types of deceleration? What do they indicate?

A

Early: peak of contraction corresponds with trough of deceleration (common cause = head compression due to a contraction > not concerning)

Variable: vary in shape and timing (common cause = cord compression > non-reassuring)

Late: deceleration after contraction (sign of distress, suggests hypoxia = abnormal)

256
Q

What are the concerning features of variable decelerations?

A

last >60 secs, reduced variability within the deceleration, biphasic W (taking longer to recover), loss of shouldering, failure to return to baseline

257
Q

What is the gold standard for FHR monitoring? Why is it the gold standard?

A

direct foetal ECG by scalp ECG

= gives true beat to beat information

258
Q

What are the downsides to a scalp ECG?

A

Invasive, only in labour, must be >2cm dilated/membranes absent, a/w scalp injury and perinatal infection

259
Q

What is a method of obtaining an indirect foetal ECG? What are the advantages of this method?

A

abdominal foetal ECG - only used in high risk patients

only ambulatory method and can be done at home, non-invasive, true beat to beat FHR (shows short term variability) and morphological analysis
not rly used in general practise

260
Q

What is foetal blood sampling used? When is it used?

A

analyses like an ABG

cervix must be 4cm dilated

261
Q

What is a normal and abnormal foetal blood sampling result?

A
  1. 25+ pH = normal, repeat after 1hr if CTG remains the same

7. 20 or less = abnormal, consider delivery

262
Q

Other than umbilical artery, what other methods of doppler are sometimes used?

A

foetal cerebral circulation (resistance/velocity of MCA) - develops low resistance pattern compared to the thoracic aorta/renal vessels in foetal compromise

foetal venous circulation - measures ductus venous as a measure of cardiac function, useful in extremely preterm foetuses

263
Q

Define placenta praevia/LLP

A

Any part of the placenta that has implanted into the lower segment

264
Q

What is the difference between a major and minor placenta praevia?

A
Major = covering/partially covering os = obstructs head
Minor = in lower segment, not cover os
265
Q

Why do LLPs found at the 20wk scan usually resolve by term?

A

Can often be low lying at 20wks but most move up as the pregnancy progresses

Formation of the lower segment of the uterus occurs in the 3rd trimester > the myometrium where the placenta implants moves away from the internal cervical os

266
Q

What examinations should be avoided if the patient has a LLP?

A

Vaginal exams and penetrative intercourse should be avoided = can go through placenta > risk of massive bleeding
Speculum exam safe

267
Q

What are the RFs for placenta praevia?

A
Previous c-section
Previous termination of pregnancy (uterine evacuation)
Multiparity
Multiple pregnancy 
Mother >40yrs
Assisted conception
Manual removal of previous placenta
Fibroids
Endometriosis
268
Q

How does placenta praevia present?

A

Intermittent painless bleeds - increase in frequency/intensity over several weeks

O/E: abnormal lie (transverse and breech positions common), foetal head high and not engaged

269
Q

How does the bleeding differ in placenta praevia vs abruption?

A
abruption = painful and smaller amount of blood
praevia = painless, lots of blood
270
Q

How is placenta praevia diagnosed? When are scans repeated to confirm?

A

on USS at the 20wk anomaly scan
Minor praevia: repeat scan at 36wks
Major praevia: repeat scan at 32wks
If <2cm from the internal os = likely to be praevia at term

If anterior and under a c-section scar > may need 3-D power US to exclude accreta/MRI

271
Q

How is a placenta praevia managed?

A

Advise sx to watch for - any bleeding even if just spotting
OP mx if asymptomatic

Placenta must be >2cm from cervical os to deliver
If minor aim for normal delivery
<2cm = elective c-section at 38-39wks by a senior or before if bleeding doesn’t settle

272
Q

How is a bleeding placenta praevia managed?

A

If recurrent bleeds, may need adx until delivery with weekly x match + anti-D is rhesus -ve

If major:
ABCDE mx - two 14/16G cannulas, IV fluids (crystalloid), X match 6 units, inform senior team and paeds
FBC, clotting
Exam: general, abdo
USS? Check 20wk scan
Foetal monitoring (CTG) +/- delivery
Steroids if <34 wks gestation (ideally 2 doses 12/24hrs apart)

273
Q

What is a key complication of placenta praevia?

A

severe APH

bleeding commonly continues during and after delivery (PPH) as lower segment is less able to contract and constrict the maternal blood supply

274
Q

What can happen if a LLP implants into a previous c-section scar?

A
placenta accreta (> can't separate)
or can penetrate through uterine wall to other structures e.g. bladder = placenta percreta 
> can lead to massive haemorrhage and may require a hysterectomy
275
Q

Define placental abruption

A

Premature separation of part of all of the placenta from the uterine wall

276
Q

What are the 2 types of placental abruption?

A
  1. concealed (blood fluids up behind placenta and can’t drain)
  2. revealed (blood can drain > vaginal bleeding)
277
Q

What are the RFs for a placental abruption?

A
IUGR
Pre-eclampsia
Pre-existing HTN
Maternal smoking, cocaine use
Previous abruption

AI disease, multiple pregnancy, high parity, trauma

278
Q

What sx does a placental abruption present with?

A
Painful bleeding (usually constant with exacerbations, dark blood) - degree of bleed doesn’t reflect severity of abruption as some may not escape uterus
Posterior abruption > backache
279
Q

How can you tell if a placental abruption is concealed or revealed by the patient’s sx?

A

If pain occurs alone = concealed, if there is bleeding = revealed

280
Q

What are the signs of a placental abruption?

A

woody-hard (in severe cases), tense uterus so foetus is hard to feel - often contracting and labour ensues

Maternal shock eg tachycardia, hypotension, pallor (may be out of proportion to blood loss if concealed)
Foetal heart tones often abnormal/absent, possible foetal distress eg bradycardia

281
Q

What are the signs of a major placental abruption?

A

maternal collapse, coagulopathy, foetal distress, woody hard uterus, poor urine output/renal failure

282
Q

How is a placental abruption diagnosed?

A

Usually clinically - investigate to determine severity

Establish foetal well-being:
CTG - foetal distress, may see very frequent uterine activity
USS - EFW at preterm gestation, exclude placenta praevia, but abruption may not be visible

Establish maternal well-being:
Regular FBC, coag, U&Es + x-match
Catheterization with hourly urine output

283
Q

How are small abruptions managed? Do they need admission?

A

Adx required even without bleeding if there is pain and uterine tenderness

Small abruptions may be managed conservatively
If there is no foetal distress and pregnancy is preterm > steroids given if <34wks, pt monitored on ward, if sx settle > discharged but monitored as pregnancy is now high risk

284
Q

How are large placental abruptions managed?

A

need resuscitation and delivery!

CTG
fluid balance, U&Es, FBC, clotting
Iv fluids to replace loss
early delivery
blood transfusion +/- blood products, anti-D for rhesus -ve
steroids if <34wks 
opiate analgesia
285
Q

When is a foetus delivered if the mother has a placental abruption?

A

mother must be stable for delivery

If foetal distress > urgent c-section
If no foetal distress and gestation 37+wks > induction of labour with amniotomy, close monitoring, c-section if goes into distress
if dead > coagulopathy likely, give blood products, labour induced

286
Q

What are the possible complications of a placental abruption?

A

foetal death common (30%)

APH/PPH (> sheehan’s syndrome)
uterine hyper-contractibility
DIC, renal failure

287
Q

What is Sheehan’s syndrome?

A

pituitary necrosis following PPH

288
Q

Describe the key differences between placental abruption and placental praevia?
In terms of pain, bleeding, tenderness, foetus, on USS?

A

pain:
a = severe, constant with exacerbations
p = usually none

bleeding:
a = may be absent, often dark
p = red and often profuse, often smaller previous APHs

tenderness:
a = often severe, uterus may be hard
p = rare

foetus:
a = lie normal, often engaged, may be dead/distressed
p = lie often abnormal, head high, FHR usually normal

USS:
a = often normal
p = placenta low

289
Q

Define rhesus disease

A

Rbc isoimmunisation occurs when the mother mounts at immune response against antigens on foetal red cells that enter her circulation
Resulting antibodies cross the placenta > foetal rbc destruction

290
Q

How is blood classified?

A

ABO and rhesus genotype

291
Q

How many gene pairs are there in the Rhesus system? How are they inherited?

A

Rhesus system consists of 3 linked gene pairs - one allele of each is dominant to the other (Cc, Dd, Ee)

An individual inherits 1 allele from each pair from each parent

292
Q

What genetics of the parents make a baby most at risk of developing rhesus disease?

A

mother is rh -ve and father is rh +ve > baby has 50-100% of being rh +ve

if father is rh -ve there is no problem

293
Q

Why doesn’t rhesus disease occur in the first pregnancy? As opposed to subsequent pregnancies?

A
  • When sensitisation occurs > maternal immune responses > produces IgM abs which can’t cross the placenta
  • Memory cells are produced
  • If the mother’s immune system is exposed to the antigen again (e.g. another pregnancy) > memory cells means IgG can be rapidly produced
  • IgG can cross the placenta and affect the pregnancy

Worsens with each successive pregnancy as maternal ab production increases

294
Q

What are some example of sensitising events?

A

termination of pregnancy/evacuation of retained products of conception after miscarriage ectopic
vaginal bleeding >12wks/<12wks if heavy
ECV
invasive uterine procedure eg amniocentesis/chorionic villus sampling
intrauterine death
delivery

295
Q

What method of prophylaxis can be used to prevent rhesus disease?

A

Production of maternal anti-D can be prevented by the administration of exogenous anti-D to the mother
= mops up foetal red cells that have crossed the placenta by binding to their antigens > prevents recognition by the mother’s immune system

296
Q

Can you give anti-D if sensitisation has already occurred?

A

Anti-D is pointless if maternal anti-D is already present > sensitization has already occurred

297
Q

What is the only antibody that can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

298
Q

How does rhesus disease present in mild and severe disease?

A

Haemolysis causes:

  • in mild cases: neonatal jaundice only
  • more haemolysis: neonatal anaemia (haemolytic disease of the newborn)
  • more severe disease: in utero anaemia (as this worsens > cardiac failure, ascites, oedema (hydrous) > foetal death)
299
Q

How is the risk of rhesus disease identified?

A

Unsensitized women screened for antibodies at booking and 28wks
- If abs found > foetal genotype should be determined:
If father is homozygous (DD) > foetus = Dd and at risk
If father is heterozygous (Dd)/can’t be tested > maternal blood sampled for free foetal DNA (non-invasive prenatal testing - NIPT) to assess foetal Rh status
If foetus is rh-ve = no risk

Ab testing fortnightly - above 4IU/ml = needs to be investigated for anaemia

300
Q

How is the severity of foetal anaemia investigated in a foetus with rhesus disease?

A

a. USS - doppler US of peak velocity in systole of the foetal MCA
= used fortnightly in at risk pregnancies
Very severe anaemia will show as foetal hydrops/excessive foetal fluid

b. if anaemia is suspected > foetal blood sampling

301
Q

How is foetal anaemia due to rhesus disease treated?

A

transfuse blood

deliver if >36wks

302
Q

How is rhesus disease managed postnatally?

A
  • Blood transfusion - top-up for anaemia and exchange for hyperbilirubinemia due to haemolysis
  • rh -ve women: babies have rhesus group + FBC, blood film, bilirubin
  • If rh +ve: anti-D given to the mother within 72hrs of delivery
  • Kleihauer test - higher dose of anti-D needed?
303
Q

What are the RFs for GD?

A
previous GD
previous macrosomic baby
BMI >30
ethnic origin
FHx diabetes
304
Q

How is pre-existing diabetes managed during pregnancy?

A

weight loss
stop hypoglycaemic agents except metformin + commence insulin

5mg folic acid/day until 12 wks

305
Q

How is GD managed depending on fasting glucose level?

A

<7: trial of diet + exercise
target not met within 1-2wks > start metformin
still not met > + insulin (short-acting)

7+: insulin
6-6.9 + complications eg hydramnios, macrosomia = insulin

glibenclamide if cannot tolerate metformin/fail on metformin and decline insulin

306
Q

What is the screening test for GD? Who has it? Whata re the cut-off scores?

A

OGTT - women with RFs or a large fetus/polyhydramnios/glucose on urine dipstick

cut-offs:
fasting: <5.6
at 2hrs after glucose drink: <7.8
(think 5 6 7 8)

307
Q

How is antenatal care different for women with GD?

A
  • monitor blood sugar
  • 4wkly US to monitor fetal growth/AFV after 28wks

fasting >7 or >6 and macrosomic or diet and exercise not helped: insulin + metformin

308
Q

How much folic acid should diabetic women take until 12wks?

A

5mg

309
Q

Do pregnant women with pre-existing diabetes need extra antenatal care?

A

retinopathy screening at booking + 28wks
planned delivery between 37-39wks

continue managing diabetes as before pregnancy

310
Q

When can women with GD stop their diabetic medication?

A

should improve immediately after birth = stop meds
test fasting glucose for 6wks after

existing diabetes - lower insulin = higher risk of hypoglycaemia

311
Q

What events decrease and increase insulin sensitivity?

A

decrease = pregnancy

increase = after birth, breastfeeding

312
Q

What are the 2 key complications of GD?

A

macrosomia > shoulder dystocia

neonatal hypoglycaemia - accustomed to large supply of glucose in pregnancy > cannot maintain usual supply with oral feeding

313
Q

How is neonatal hypoglycaemia managed? What is the target blood sugar?

A

> 2mmol/L

IV dextrose + NG feeding

314
Q

What is obstetric cholestasis?

A

reduced outflow of bile acids from liver which resolves after delivery

315
Q

When is obstetric cholestasis likely to occur during pregnancy?

A

usually after 28wks

316
Q

How does obstetric cholestasis present?

A

ITCHING (build up of bile in blood) - esp palms of hands/soles of feet

fatigue, dark urine, pale/greasy stools, jaundice
NO rash

317
Q

What are causes of pruritus and deranged LFTs during pregnancy?

A

obstetric cholestasis
gallstones
acute fatty liver
AI or viral hepatitis

318
Q

How will obstetric cholestasis present in bloods?

A

abnormal LFTs - esp ALT, AST, GGT

raised bile acids

319
Q

A rise of which LFT with otherwise normal LFTs is normal during pregnancy?

A

ALP - produced by placenta

320
Q

How is obstetric cholestasis treated?

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

itching mx with emollients + antihistamines
water-sol vit K if clotting deranged

321
Q

Obstetric cholestasis is a/w with what risk to fetus?

A

still birth

monitor LFTs
consider planned delivery after 37wks depending on severity

322
Q

Define monozygotic versus dizygotic twins

A
mono = identical twins from single zygote
di = non-identical from two zygotes
323
Q

Define mono versus dichorionic twins?

A
mono = share single placenta
di = two separate placentas
324
Q

What type of twin pregnancy have the best outcome?

A

diamniotic dichorionic

325
Q

How can each type of twin pregnancy be determined on US?

A

dichorionic diamniotic = lambda sign (triangular)

monochorionic diamnoitic = T sign

monochorionic monoamniotic = no membrane between twins

326
Q

What are the risks of multiple pregnancy to the mother?

A
anaemia
polyhydramnios
HTN
malpresentation
preterm birth/instrumental delivery/c-section
PPH
327
Q

What are the risks of multiple pregnancy to the fetus?

A
miscarriage/stillbirth
growth restriction
prematurity
twin-twin transfusion syndrome
twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence
congenital abnormalities
328
Q

What is twin-twin transfusion syndrome? Which type of twin pregnancy can it occur in?

A

monochorionic pregnancies

one fetus receives the majority of the blood from the placenta

329
Q

What are the different risks to the recipient and donor fetus in twin-twin transfusion syndrome?

A

recipient: fluid overload > HF, polyhydramnios
donor: growth restriction, anaemia, oligohydramnios

330
Q

What is twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence?

A

less acute than twin-twin transfusion syndrome

one twin becomes anaemic + one becomes polycythaemic

331
Q

How are women with multiple pregnancy managed differently?

A

extra anaemia monitoring - FBC @ booking, 20 + 28wks
additional USs for growth monitoring
early planned birth depending on type of twin pregnancy

332
Q

When/what type of delivery is aimed for in mono versus diamniotic twins?

A

mono = elective LSCS at 32-34wks

di = 37-39wks
vaginal if 1st baby is cephalic/LSCS may be needed for 2nd baby/elective LSCS if presenting twin not cephalic

333
Q

How is prematurity classified?

A

<23: non-viable
<28: extreme preterm
28-32: very preterm
32-37: mod-late preterm

334
Q

What are 2 methods of preventing preterm labour?

A
  1. vaginal progesterone - maintains pregnancy, decreases activity of myometrium + prevents cervix remodelling
  2. cervical cerclage - stitch in cervix to keep it closed
    rescue one can be offered later if there is dilatation without ROM

= offered to women with cervical length <25mm on US between 16-24wks
+ previous premature birth or cervical trauma for cerclage

335
Q

What needs to be given after preterm prelabour ROM?

A

prophylatic abx for chorioamnionitis - erythromycin

induction from 34wks

336
Q

What tests can check the likelihood of preterm labour if unsure/intact membranes?

A
TVUS - cervical length >15mm = unlikely
fetal fibronectin (glue between chorion + uterus = in vagina during labour) <50ng/ml = unlikely
337
Q

What measures are used to improve outcomes in preterm labour?

A

fetal monitoring
tocolysis (nifedipine, suppresses labour)
maternal corticosteroids (<35 wks, for lung maturation)
IV MgSO4 (<34wks, protects brain)
delayed cord clamping (increases circulating blood vol + Hb)

338
Q

What is tocolysis? What is the medication of choice?

A

stop uterine contractions to delay delivery
can be given between 24 + 34 wks

nidefipine

339
Q

Why are antenatal steroids given in suspected preterm labour? What is an example regime?

A

develop fetal lungs > reduce RDS postnatally
can be given <36wks

2x dose IM betamethasone 24hrs apart

340
Q

Why is MgSO4 given in suspected preterm labour? When must it be given?

A

help protect fetal brain > reduces risk of cerebral palsy

given within 24hrs of delivery in babies <34weeks

require monitoring for Mg toxicity

341
Q

What causes a neural tube defect?

A

incomplete closure of the neural tube within 28 days of conception > birth defect of brain/spinal cord

342
Q

What are the 3 most common NTDs?

A

anencephaly
spina bifida
encephalocele

343
Q

What are the RFs for NTDs?

A
maternal folate/vit B12 deficiency 
previous hx of infant with NTD
smoking
diabetes
obesity
antiepileptic drugs
344
Q

What is an important preventative method for NTDs?

A

400mcg daily folic acid before conception + until week 12

5mg daily for women at higher risk

345
Q

When is the first prenatal US? What does it check for?

A

11-13 weeks

number of fetuses, heartbreat, crown rump length, nucha translucency, ovaries

346
Q

What is the miscarriage risk in amniocentesis and CVS?

A

amnio: 1%
CVS: 1-2%

347
Q

What can amniocentesis detect?

A

chromosomal abnormalities, infections eg CF, CMV, SCD, toxoplasmosis

348
Q

How long does amniocentesis take compared to CVS?

A

3 weeks versus 2 days

349
Q

What is CVS?

A

biopsy of trophoblast

350
Q

What is hydrops fetalis?

A

abnormal fluid accumuldation in 2+ fetal compartments eg ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, skin oedema

351
Q

What are the 2 types of hydrops fetalis and the main causes of each?

A
  1. immune - complication of severe Rh incompatability
  2. nonimmune (90%) - cadiac abnormalities, severe anaemia (congenital parvovirus, alpha thalassaemia major, massive materno-fetal haemorrhage), trisomy 13/18/21/turner’s, infection (CMV, toxoplasmosis, rubella, varicella, TTTS, chorioangioma
352
Q

How can hydrops fetalis be detected antenatally?

A

high AFV
abnormally large placenta
fluid causing swelling in/around organs - liver, spleen, heart, lungs

amniocentesis/frequent US to monitor severity

353
Q

How is hydrops fetalis managed? What is the prognosis?

A

antenatal:
early delivery
intrauterine blood transfusion

postnatal:
often results in death 
immune - exchange transfusion, transfusion of matched rbcs
remove extra fluid with needle
control HF
ventilation
354
Q

What is the difference between SGA and IUGR?

A

sga = baby is small for dates without stating why eg may be constitutionally small and growing appropriately which = no increased risks

IUGR = small/not growing as expected fetus due to pathology reducing the amount of nutrients/O2 delivered to the fetus

355
Q

What are the causes of placenta mediated growth restriction?

A
idiopathic
pre-eclampsia
maternal smoking/alcohol
anaemia
malnutrition
infection
maternal health conditions
356
Q

What are the causes of placenta mediated growth restriction?

A

ie pathology of fetus

genetic or structural abnormalities
fetal infection
errors of metabolism

357
Q

What signs would indicate IUGR as the cause for a baby SGA?

A

reduced AFV
abnormal doppled
reduced movement
abnormal CTG

358
Q

What are the short term complications of IUGR?

A

fetal death/stillbirth
birth asphyxia
neonatal hypothermia or hypoglycaemia

359
Q

What are the long term complications of IUGR?

A

CVD, esp HTN
T2DM
obesity
mood/behavioural problems

360
Q

Define SGA + severe SGA

A

<10th centile for their GA
severe = <3rd centile

based on estimated fetal weight + fetal abdo circumference

361
Q

What factors are considered in a customised growth chart?

A

with women’s weight, height, ethnicity, parity

362
Q

Define low birth weight

A

<2500g

363
Q

What are the 2 causes of SGA?

A
  1. constitutionally small - match mothers/family, growing appropriately
  2. IUGR
364
Q

What are the RFs for having a baby SGA?

A

previous SGA baby

obesity
smoking
diabetes
existing HTN
>35yrs
antiphospholipid syndrome

pre-eclampsia
multiple pregnancy
low PAPPA
APH

365
Q

Which women require serial growth scans for SGA monitoring?

A

symphisis fundal height fallen <10th centile from 24wks
3+ minor or 1+ major RFs
issues measuring SFH eg fibroids, high BMI

366
Q

What is measured in serial growth scans of women with/at risk of a SGA baby?

A

serial US scans with umbilical artery doppler measuring:

EFW + AC
umbilical arterial pulsatility index
AFV

367
Q

How is an SGA baby managed antenatally?

A

identify underlying cause

tx modifiable RFs
aspirin if risk of pre-eclampsia
serial growth scans

early delivery if growth static/other concerns + corticosteroids before

368
Q

What ix are done to explore an underlying cause of SGA babies?

A
BP + urine dipstick (pre-eclampsia)
uterine artery doppler scanning 
fetal anatomy scan
karyotyping (chromosomal abnormalities)
test for infections
369
Q

Can pregnant women have the MMR vaccine?

A

NO - live vaccine

given before if planned/offer after giving birth

370
Q

What window of pregnancy can congenital rubella syndrome occur?

A

maternal infection in 1st 20wks

risk highest <10wks

371
Q

Why is chickenpox dangerous during pregnancy?

A

more severe case in mother eg varicella pneumonitis/heptitis/encephalitis
fetal varicella syndrome
severe neonatal varicella syndrome

372
Q

If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox during pregnancy and are not immune, what can they be treated with?

A

IV varicella IGs as prophylaxis within 10 days of exposure

373
Q

How is chickenpox during pregnancy treated? When can it be?

A

oral aciclovir if present within 24hrs + >20wks

374
Q

How does congenital varicella syndrome present? When does the infection have to occur?

A

<28wks

IUGR
microcephaly, hydrocephalus, LDs
scars/sig skin changes in specific dermatomes
limb hypoplasia
cataracts + inflammation in eye (chorioretinitis)

375
Q

What type of bacteria is listeria? How is it transmitted?

A

gram +ve bact

transmitted by unpasteurised dairy products, processed meat, contaminated food = AVOID in pregnancy eg blue cheese + good food hygiene

376
Q

How does listeriosis present in a pregnant woman?

A

much more likely in pregnant women

may be asymptomatic
flu-like illness
possibly pneumonia/meningoencephalitis

377
Q

Why is listeriosis dangerous in pregnant women?

A

high rate of miscarriage/fetal death

severe neonatal infection

378
Q

How is CMV transmitted?

A

via infected saliva/urine of asymptomatic children

379
Q

How does congenital CMV present? How common is it?

A

most CMV in pregnancy don’t cause congenital CMV

IUGR
microcephaly, hearing/vision loss, LDs, seizures

380
Q

How is toxoplasmosis transmitted?

A

usually contamination with faeces from a cat that is host of the parasite

381
Q

How does toxoplasmosis present in a pregnant woman?

A

usually asymptomatic

382
Q

What is the classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis? When is the risk highest?

A

risk higher later in pregnancy

intracranial calcification
hydrocephalus
chorioretinitis

383
Q

How does congenital parvovirus B19 present? When does parvovirus in pregnancy cause the most complications?

A

1st + 2nd trimesters

miscarriage/fetal death
severe fetal anaemia
hydrops fetalis
maternal pre-eclampsia-like syndrome (hydrops + placental oedema + maternal oedema)

384
Q

Define cord prolapse

A

umbilical cord descends below presenting part of fetus into vagina, after ROM

385
Q

What is the main danger in cord prolapse?

A

presenting part of fetus compresses cord = feta hypoxia

386
Q

What is the most significant RF for cord prolapse?

A

abnormal lie after 37 wks - provides space for cord to prolapse below presenting part

387
Q

When should cord prolapse be suspected?

A

fetal distress on CTG

confirm by vaginal exam

388
Q

How is cord prolapse managed?

A

emergency c-section (normal = high risk of cord compression)

while waiting:
keep cord warm, wet + minimal handling (risk of vasospasm)
lie in left lateral with pillow under hip/all fours to draw fetus away from pelvis
tocolytics to minimise contractions

389
Q

What is recommended after instrumental delivery to reduce risk of infection?

A

co-amoxiclav single dose

390
Q

When is an instrumental delivery indicated?

A

failure to progress
fetal distress
maternal exhaustion
control of head in various fetal positions

391
Q

What type of pain management during labor increases the risk of needing an instrumental delivery?

A

epidural

392
Q

What are the increased risks to mother during an instrumental delivery?

A

PPH
episiotomy, perineal tears, injury to anal sphincter
incontinence
temporary nerve injury (obturator/femoral nerve)

393
Q

What is the key risk to baby during a ventous delivery?

A

cephalohaematoma

394
Q

What are the risks to baby during a forceps delivery?

A

key risk = facial nerve palsy

bruising on face
fat necrosis (hardened lumps on cheeks)
395
Q

What are the indications for an elective caesarean?

A
previous caesarean
symptomatic after previous sig perineal tear
placenta/vasa praevia
breech
multiple pregnancy 
uncontrolled HIV
cervical Ca
396
Q

What is a category 1 emergency caesarean? How long must the time to delivery be?

A

immediate threat to life of mother/baby

30 mins

397
Q

What is a category 2 emergency caesarean? How long must the time to delivery be?

A

not an imminent threat to life but ceasarean required urgently due to compromise
75 mins

398
Q

What is a category 3 emergency caesarean?

A

delivery required by mum/baby are stable

399
Q

What is a category 4 emergency caesarean?

A

elective

400
Q

What medications can be given before/during to reduce risks during a c-section?

A

H2 receptor antagonists (eg ranitidine) or PPI: for aspiration pneumonitis caused by acid reflux/aspiration during prolonged lying flat

prophylactic abx: infection
oxytocin: PPH
LMWH: VTE

401
Q

What are the increased risks for future pregnancies caesarean?

A

repeat caeserean
uterine rupture
placenta praevia
stillbirth

402
Q

What are the possible complications in the postpartum period after a caeserean?

A

PPH
wound infection/dehiscence
endometritis

403
Q

What VTE prophylaxis methods should be considered for women post-caeserean?

A

early mobilisation
anti-embolism stockings
LMWH eg enoxaparin

404
Q

What is the most common cause of shoulder dystocia?

A

macrosomia 2ndary to gestational diabetes

405
Q

What are 2 key signs that failure to deliver the body is due to shoulder dystocia?

A

failure of restitution - head remains face down and doesn’t turn sideways
turtle neck sign - head delivered but retracts back into vagina

406
Q

What techniques can be used to manage shoulder dystocia?

A

obstetric emergency

episiotomy
pressure to anterior shoulder

mcroberts manoeuvre - hyper flexion of mother at hip > posterior pelvic tilt to lift pubic symphysis out of way
rubins manoeuvre - reach into vagina and put pressure on posterior aspect of baby’s anterior shoulder
wood’s screw manoeuvre - during rubins, other hand used to put pressure on anterior aspect of posterior shoulder (or vice versa)
zavanelli manoeuvre - push head back in to do emergency c-section

407
Q

What are the 4 key complications of shoulder dystocia?

A

fetal hypoxia
brachial plexus injury + Erb’s palsy
perineal tears
PPH

408
Q

What are the RFs for VTE in pregnancy?

A
smoking
parity 3+
age >35
BMI >30
reduced mobility
multiple pregnancy
pre-eclampsia
gross varicose veins
family hx
thrombophilia
IVF
409
Q

When should VTE prophylaxis be started from, in which women?

A

4+ RFs > 1st trimester
3 RFs > 28 wks

risk assessed at booking + after birth + extra if admission/surgery etc

410
Q

What VTE prophylaxis is given to women at higher risk?

A

LMWH eg enoxaparin, dalteparin (continued until 6wks postnatally, temporarily stopped during labour)

if CI:
intermittent pneumatic compression
anti-embolic compression stockings

411
Q

What are the key sx to look out for in a DVT?

A

UNILATERAL calf/leg swelling + tenderness + oedema + colour change
dilated superficial veins

412
Q

How is leg swelling defined in a suspected DVT?

A

measure calf 10cm below tibial tuberosity

> 3cm difference between legs = significant

413
Q

What are the key sx to look out for in a PE?

A
SoB
cough +/- blood
pleuritic chest pain
hypoxia
raised RR

tachycardia
low grade fever
haemodynamic instability

414
Q

1st line ix for DVT?

A

doppler US

415
Q

What are the 1st line and definitive diagnosis ix for PE?

A

1st line:
cxr
ECG

definitive:
CTPA = best
ventilation-perfusion scan

416
Q

Is d-dimer helpful in pregnancy?

A

no - pregnancy is a cause of raised d-dimer

wells score not validated

417
Q

How is a VTE in pregnancy managed?

A

LMWH - start immediately, before dx if delay in scan
continue for pregnancy + 6weeks after is confirmed

massive PE/haemodynamic compromise > life-threatening > consider unfractioned heparin, thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy

418
Q

What is the spectrum and timeline of postnatal mental health illness?

A

baby blue - majority of women in 1st wk after birth

postnatal depression - 1 in 10, peaks 3mo after birth

puerperal psychosis - starts a few weeks after birth

419
Q

How long must sx last for a dx of postnatal depression?

A

2 wks

same triad as depression

420
Q

How is mild, moderate and severe postnatal depression managed?

A

mild: additional support, self-help, follow-up with GP
mod: SSRI, CBT
severe: specialist services, possibly inpatient care in mother + baby unit

421
Q

What is the screening tol for postnatal depression?

A

edinburgh scale

out of 30, >10 suggests PND

422
Q

What is the risk to neonates if the mother has taken SSRIs during pregnancy?

A

neonatal abstinence syndrome

presents in 1st few days > irritability + poor feeding
supportive mx

423
Q

Irregular menstruation indicates what about ovulation?

A

anovulation or irregular ovulation

424
Q

What are the DDx of irregular menstruation?

A

early menarche/perimenopause
physiological stress - excess exercise, low body weight, chronic disease, pyschosocial
medication - prog only contraception, ADs, antipsychotics

hormonal imbalances eg thyroid, cushing’s, high prolactin
PCOS

425
Q

What are the DDx of IMB?

A

cervical ectropion
cervical/endometrial/vaginal polyps or cancer = possible RF
STI

hormonal contraception
pregnancy
ovulation - can cause spotting, in some women
medications eg SSRIs, anticoags

426
Q

What are the DDx of dysmenorrhoea?

A

primary dysmenorrhoea - no pathology

endometriosis/adenomyosis
fibroids
PID
cervical/ovarian cancer

copper coil

427
Q

Define menorrhagia

A

excessive menstrual blood loss that occurs regularly which interferes with a woman’s physical, emotional, social and material quality of life

usually >80ml blood loss (usually 40ml)

428
Q

What is normal versus excessive menstrual blood loss?

A

excessive = 80ml+ +/- duration of 7+ days +/- need to change menstrual products every 1-2hrs +/- passage of clots greater than 2.54cm +/- reported as ‘very heavy’ by woman

average = 30-40ml

429
Q

What is abnormal versus dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

any variance of normal menstrual cycle on basis of frequency, regularity, duration or volume

+ dysfunctional = AUB dx after excluding pregnancy and pathology

430
Q

What are the DDx of menorrhagia?

A

dysfunctional uterine bleeding
extremes of reproductive age
contraceptives esp copper coil

fibroids
endometriosis/adenomyosis
PID
endometrial hyperplasia/cancer
PCOS

anticoag meds
bleeding disorders
endocrine disorders eg diabetes, hypothyroid
connective tissue disorders

431
Q

How to distinguish between placental abruption and praevia?

A

abruption: shock sx inconsistent with vaginal loss, pain common and severe, bleeding often absent/may be dark, lie normal/often engaged/may be distressed
praevia: shock sx consistent with vaginal loss, PAINLESS, red profuse bleeding/often hx of small APHs, lie abnormal/head high/not in distress

432
Q

What is the pathway of tests for a male in an infertile couple?

A

semen analysis
if azoospermic > LH, FSH, serum karyotype

MRI brain to rule out pit/hypothalamic tumour
?arrested spermatogenesis > testicular biopsy

433
Q

What is the most common type of vaginal cancer?

A

mets

primarily from cerix or endometrium

434
Q

What is the most common type of primary vaginal cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

less common = adenocarcinoma

435
Q

Where is a vaginal cancer most likely to metastasise to?

A

lungs

liver

436
Q

Positive routine asymptomatic bacteriuria screen in a pregnant woman. Next steps?

A

asymptomatic bacteriuria requires tx

contamination of 1st culture possible > confirm with 2nd test

437
Q

Define oligo and polyhydramnios in terms of AFI?

A

poly: AFI >24cm or 2000ml+
oligo: AFI <5cm or <200ml

438
Q

What are the causes of polyhydramnios?

A

most idiopathic

macrosomia
maternal diabetes
structural deformities of fetus
viral infectins

439
Q

What is the most common treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage?

A

Anti-phospholipid syndrome (a/w SLE)

440
Q

How does endometritis vs RPOC present as causes of 2ndary PPH?

A

both vaginal bleeding thats getting worse, lower abdo pain

endometritis = foul smelling discharge + fever (risk of sepsis)
RPOC = odourless discharge, no fever unless infected
441
Q

How does lochia present?

A

normal bleeding after pregnancy due to endometrium breaking down

bright red then darkens, gets less

442
Q

For how many weeks are women considered infertile after pregnancy?

A

3wks

443
Q

Exclusive breastfeeding after birth + amenorrhoea, does she need contraception?

A

lactational amenorrhoea covers for 6mo

444
Q

Differential of itching in pregnancy?

A

obstetric cholestasis
acute fatty liver > can cause hepatitis

both in 3rd trimester

445
Q

How to treat acute fatty liver?

A

admit

emergency c-section

446
Q

What are the SEs of ERPOC?

A
endometritis
ashermans (adhesions in the uterus due to trauma)
447
Q

What contraception can be used straight after birth?

A

lactational amenorrhoea

POP/implant

448
Q

When can a coil be inserted after birth?

A

within 48hrs

or after 4wks

449
Q

What contraception should be avoided in breastfeeding?

A

COCP

450
Q

How long after birth if not breastfeeding should the COCP be avoided?

A

6wks

451
Q

How may Sheehan’s present?

A

woman struggling to breastfeed

necrosed pituitary > no prolactin

452
Q

2nd repeat smear is HPV+ve with normal cytology, next step?

A

colposcopy

453
Q

What is the diagnostic traid for HG?

A

> 5% weight loss
dehydration
electrolyte imbalance

454
Q

What scoring system is used to determine the severity of HG?

A

PUQE - pregnancy unique classification of emesis

455
Q

When in pregnancy is HG most likely?

A

8-12wks

can be up to 20wks

456
Q

What conditions are a/w HG?

A
multiple pregnancy
trophoblastic disease
hyperthyroid
nulliparity
obesity
457
Q

What is a protective factor for hyperemesis?

A

smoking

458
Q

When should a pt with HG be admitted?

A

unable to keep down fluids/oral antiemetics
ketonuria +/- >5% weight loss despite oral antiemetics
confirmed/suspected comorbidity

459
Q

How is HG treated?

A

1st line: antiemetic - oral cyclizine/promethazine or alternative - prochlorperazine

2nd line: ondansetron (increased risk of cleft lip in 1st tri) or metoclopramide (extrapyramidal SE, use for no longer than 5 days)

admission for IV hydration may be required

460
Q

Tx for urge incontinence

A
  1. bladder retraining

2. muscarinic antagonist: oxybutynin, tolterodine, solifenacin

461
Q

When must methotrexate be stopped before pregnancy?

A

stopped in both partners 6mo before conceiving

inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase affects DNA synthesis

462
Q

What medication can be used to reduce fibroid size before surgery?

A

GnRH agonist eg triptorelin

463
Q

What usually happens to BP in pregnancy?

A

falls in 1st tri, continues to fall until 20-24wks

then increases to pre-pregnancy levels by term

464
Q

Women at high risk of pre-eclampsia should take what medication?

A

aspirin 75mg from 12wks - birth

465
Q

Which women are high risk for pre-eclampsia?

A

hypertensive disease in previous pregnancies
CKD
AI disease
DM

466
Q

How should gestational HTN be treated?

A
  1. oral labetalol

2. nifedipine

467
Q

What is the most common cause of cord prolapse?

A

AROM

468
Q

Which abx is used for GBS prophylaxis? When is it given?

A

IV benzylpenicillin

women with a previous pregnancy with neonatal sepsis
remember strep agalactiae is a GBS

469
Q

What are the differentials of postcoital bleeding?

A
cervical cancer/ectropion/infection
trauma
atrophic vaginitis
polyps
endometrial/vaginal cancer
470
Q

What are fibroids?

A

benign oestrogen-sensitive smooth muscle tumours in the uterus

471
Q

How do fibroids present?

A

mostly asymptomatic

HMB!! + prolonged bleeding
cyclical pelvic pain, deep dyspareunia
bloating, feeling full
urinary + bowel sx
O/E: pelvic masses, enlarged firm uterus
infertility
472
Q

How are fibroids investigated?

A

submucosal fibroid presenting with HMB > hysteroscopy

larger fibroids > pelvic US
before surgery > MRI

473
Q

How are fibroids <3cm managed?

A

1st line = mirena
+ sx mx with NSAIDs/tranexamic acid
alternatives = COCP/cyclical prog

surgical options: endometrial ablation, resection during hysteroscopy, hysterectomy

474
Q

How are fibroids >3cm managed?

A

Refer to gynae

medical mx options = NSAIDS/tranexamic acid, mirena depending on shape/size of fibroids (or COCP, cyclical prog)
surgical options = uterine artery embolisation, myomectomy, hysterectomy

475
Q

Which is the only treatment of fibroids known to potentially increase fertility?

A

myomectomy

476
Q

Which medication can be given short-term before surgery to reduce the size of fibroids?

A

GnRH agonist eg goserelin, leuprorelin > menopausal state > oestrogen > reduce size

477
Q

What are the possible complications of fibroids?

A
infertility 
HMB
red degeneration
torsion
malignant change (rare)
miscarriage/preterm birth if pregnant 

constipation
urinary obstruction, UTIs

478
Q

What is red degeneration of a fibroid?

A

necrosis, infarction and ischaemia of a fibroid during pregnancy

479
Q

When in pregnancy is red degeneration of a fibroid likely to happen? Why?

A

2nd/3rd trimester
in larger fibroids
rapidly enlarges during pregnancy > outgrows blood supply

480
Q

How does red degeneration of a fibroid present?

A

severe abdo pain
low grade fever
vomiting
tachycardia

481
Q

How is red degeneration of a fibroid managed?

A

supportive: rest, fluids, analgesia

482
Q

What are functional ovarian cysts?

A

related to fluctuating hormones
majority benign
very common in premenopausal women

483
Q

What is the traid a/w Meigs syndrome?

A
  1. benign ovarian fibroma
  2. pleural effusion
  3. ascites

resolves on tumour resection

484
Q

How do ovarian cysts present?

A

usually asymptomatic
pelvic bloating/pain/fullness
mass felt
disrupted menstruation

acute pain > torsion, rupture, haemorrhage

485
Q

Name the 6 types of ovarian cysts

A

follicular: most common, developing follicle persists, resolves in a few cycles, benign, thin walled + empty

corpus luteum cyst: benign, often in early pregnancy, pelvic discomfort/pain + delayed menstruation

mucinous/serous cystoadenoma: benign tumours of epithelial cells, mucinous can get extremely big

dermoid: contain hair/teeth/bone

stromal/sex-cord tumour: can be benign or malignant

endometrioma: pain + disrupted ovulation

486
Q

What is there an increased risk of with dermoid cysts?

A

torsion

487
Q

How are ovarian cysts investigated?

A

1st line = USS

pre-men + simple cyst + <5cm: no further ix

CA-125
if <40 + complex cyst > dermoid cyst markers = lactase dehydrogenase, AFP, hcg

488
Q

Which 3 factors make up the risk of malignancy index for ovarian cysts?

A

menopause status
USS findings
CA-125

489
Q

How are ovarian cysts managed?

A

dermoid cyst likely > refer
complex cyst/increased CA-125 > 2ww

Pre-men + simple + normal CA-125:
<5cm = nothing
5-7cm = routine referral, USS monitoring yrly
>7cm = MRI/surgical evaluation

Post-men + simple + normal CA-125: USS monitoring 4-6monthly

increasing in size/persisting: consider ovarian cystectomy +/- oopherectomy

490
Q

What are the complications of ovarian cysts?

A

haemorrhage
rupture > bleed into abdomen
torsion

491
Q

How should HMB be investigated?

A

none is simple hx w/o other RFs/sx

speculum + bimanual
FBC - IDA

hysteroscopy if suspected fibroids/endometrial pathology/persistent IMB
pelvic + TVUS if possible fibroids/adenomyosis/exam difficult

swabs, coagulation, ferritin, TFTs if indicated

492
Q

How is non-pathological HMB managed?

A

no contraception:
- tranexamic acid (antifibrinolytic) if no pain
- mefenamic acid (NSAID) is a/w pain

contraception wanted:
1. mirena
2. COCP
3. cyclical oral prog eg norethisterone
4. prog only contraception

tx unsuccessful > referral

> consider endometrial ablation, hysterectomy

493
Q

Define the 3 criteria used to make a dx of PCOS?

A

Rotterdam crtieria: 2/3 needed
1. oligo/anovulation
2. hyperandrogenism - biochemical or sx eg hirsutism
3. polycystic ovaries on US

494
Q

How is a woman with PCOS likely to present?

A

oligo/amenorrhoea
infertility
obesity
hirsutism
acne
hair loss in a male pattern
insulin resistance

495
Q

What are the DDx of hirsutism?

A

PCOS
meds eg phenytoin, ciclosporin, steroids, testosterone
ovarian/adrenal tumours that secrete androgens
cushing’s
CAH

496
Q

How does insulin resistance in COS drive hyperandrogenism and anovulation?

A

insulin promotes androgen release from ovaries + adrenals
+ suppresses SHBG production by liver which binds to androgens and suppresses their function

resistance > produce more insulin to get response from cells > increased androgens + reduced SHBG > promotes hyperandrogenism

high insulin halts follicle development > anvoluation > multiple partially developed follicles in ovaries = polycystic

497
Q

What are the key blood test changes in PCOS?

A

high LH
high LH:FSH

high testosterone + insulin
normal/high oestrogen

498
Q

What is the diagnostic US criteria for PCOS?

A

TVUS
follicles around periphery of ovary = string of pearls

12+ developing follicles in 1 ovary
ovarian volume >10cm3

499
Q

How is the increased risk of obesity/T2DM/high cholsterol/CVD in PCOS managed?

A

weight loss, diet, exercise, smoking cessation, BP control, statins
- orlistat = lipase inhibitor to aid weight loss in women with BMI >30

500
Q

Which gynae cancer are women with PCOS at high risk of?

A

endometrial

anovulation = don’t produce sufficient prog = unopposed oestrogen + endometrial proliferation

501
Q

How is the increased risk of endometrial cancer managed in PCOS? When should it be monitored?

A

reduce risk of endometrial cancer: mirena/induce withdrawal bleed at least every 3-4mo with cyclical prog or COCP

> 3mo between periods/abnormal bleeding > pelvic US
- use cyclical prog to induce period prior to US
endometrial thickness>10mm > biopsy

502
Q

How is infertility managed in PCOS?

A
  1. weight loss
  2. clomifene
  3. laparoscopic ovarian drilling
  4. IVF

(some evidence metformin + letrozole restore ovulation)

503
Q

What blood tests are done at booking and 28wks?

A

FBC (anaemia)
blood group, rhesus, red cell alloantibodies, haemoglobinopathies
hep B, HIV, syphillis

504
Q

How is GD managed depending on fasting glucose level?

A

<7: trial of diet + exercise
target not met within 1-2wks > start metformin
still not met > + insulin (short-acting)

7+: insulin
6-6.9 + complications eg hydramnios, macrosomia = insulin

glibenclamide if cannot tolerate metformin/fail on metformin and decline insulin

505
Q

For how long after delivery/last seizure should MgSO4 be continued in a woman with eclampsia?

A

24hrs

506
Q

How is endometrial hyperplasia managed?

A

simple > high dose prog eg LNG-IUS + repeat sampling in 3/4m

atypia > hysterectomy advised, in postmenopausal women > total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy

507
Q

What can be given when a cord prolapse is identified whilst waiting for an LSCS?

A

terbutaline

508
Q

Define menopause

A

amenorrhoea >1yr

509
Q

What are the 4 CI to menopause?

A

undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
oestrogen sensitive cancer
current/past breast ca
untreated endometrial hyperplasia

510
Q

What must be avoided in HRT to women with a uterus?

A

unopposed oestrogen > risk of endometrial ca

511
Q

What HRT can be given if a woman does not have a uterus?

A

oestrogen only, as a patch or orally

512
Q

What can HRT increase the risks of?

A

VTE/stroke (all oral forms, not transdermal)
CHD (combined forms)
breast ca (combined forms)
ovarian ca

513
Q

What HRT is preferred in women with increased risk of VTE?

A

transdermal

514
Q

What HRT is preferred in women with migraine and aura?

A

transdermal

515
Q

What regime of HRT should be given to women with definite menopause versus before?

A

amenorrhoea >1yr = continuous regime

before = cyclical (oestrogen daily, prog for a few weeks of the cycle)

516
Q

Which contraception is licensed as the prog part of HRT?

A

mirena - only need oestrogen on top
licensed for 4yrs