Women's Health 1 (Gynae/Breast) Flashcards

(188 cards)

1
Q

What is pelvic organ prolapse?

A

When pelvic organs descend into the vagina as a result of weakness and lengthening of the ligaments and muscles which surround the uterus, rectum and bladder

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2
Q

What is vault prolapse?

A

occurs in women who have had a hysterectomy and is when the top of the vagina (the vault) descends into the vagina

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3
Q

What is a rectocele? What symptom is this commonly associated with?

A

caused by a defect in the posterior vaginal wall which allows the rectum to prolapse forwards into the vagina

they are particularly associated with constipation as women can develop faecal loading in the part of the rectum which has prolapsed into the vagina

women can use their fingers to press the lump backwards, correcting the anatomical position of the rectum and allowing them to open their bowels

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4
Q

What is a cystocele?

A

where a defect in the anterior vaginal wall allows the bladder to prolapse backwards into the vagina

the urethra can also undergo prolapse (urethrocele) and prolapse of both the bladder and urethra is called a cystourethrocele

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5
Q

What are some risk factors for pelvic organ prolapse?

A

multiple vaginal deliveries
instrumental, prolonged or traumatic delivery
advanced age and postmenopause status
obesity
chronic respiratory disease causing coughing
chronic constipation causing straining

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6
Q

What are the typical presenting symptoms of pelvic organ prolapse?

A

feeling of something coming down in the vagina
dragging or heavy sensation in the pelvis
urinary symptoms e.g. incontinence, urgency, frequency, weak stream and retention
bowel symptoms e.g. constipation, altered sensation, reduced enjoyment
lump or mass in the vagina

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7
Q

What are the gradings in the pelvic organ prolapse quantification (POP-Q) system?

A

Grade 0: Normal
Grade 1: The lowest part is more than 1cm above the introitus
Grade 2: The lowest part is within 1cm of the introitus (above or below)
Grade 3: The lowest part is more than 1cm below the introitus, but not fully descended
Grade 4: Full descent with eversion of the vagina

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8
Q

What is the management for pelvic organ prolapse? 3 main options

A

Conservative management
- physio, weight loss, lifestyle changes, treatment of related symptoms, vaginal oestrogen cream

Vaginal pessary (ring, cube, donut, hodge, Shelf and Gellhorn)

Surgery (definitive treatment)
- many potential surgical methods including hysterectomy
- mesh repair used to be an option but NICE recommend avoiding them due to complications

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9
Q

What is an overactive bladder?

A

also known as urge incontinence

caused by overactivity of the detrusor muscle of the bladder

sudden feeling of needing to pass urine and inability to control bladder

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10
Q

What is stress incontinence?

A

when urine leaks at times of increased pressure on the bladder often when laughing, coughing or surprised

caused by weakness of the pelvic floor and sphincter muscles

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11
Q

What are some risk factors for urinary incontinence? x8

A

increased age
postmenopausal status
increased BMI
previous pregnancies and vaginal deliveries
pelvic organ prolapse
pelvic floor surgery
neurological conditions, such as MS
cognitive impairment and dementia

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12
Q

What are the investigations used to assess urinary incontinence?

A

bladder diary recording fluid intake and episodes of urination and incontinence

urine dipstick testing

post-void residual bladder volume

urodynamic testing (catheters inserted into bladder and rectum which assess pressures)

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13
Q

What is the management for urge incontinence?

A

bladder retraining
anticholinergic medication (oxybutynin, tolterodine and solifenacin)
mirabegron
invasive procedures e.g. botox injections, augmentation cystoplasty

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14
Q

What is the management for stress incontinence?/

A

avoiding caffeine, diuretics and overfilling of the bladder
avoid ecessive or restricted fluid intake
weight loss if needed
supervised pelvic floor exercises
surgery e.g. TVT, autologous sling procedures, colposuspension
duloxetine

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15
Q

What are the most common types of vaginal fistula?

A

vesicovaginal fistula = tract connecting the vagina and bladder
rectovaginal fistula = tract connecting the vagina and the rectum
colovaginal fistula = tract connecting the vagina and colon
enterovaginal fistula = tract connecting the vagina and small intestine

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16
Q

What are some potential causes of vaginal fistualae? x6

A

childbirth
abdo surgery (hysterectomy, c-section)
pelvic, cervical or colon cancer
bowel disease e.g. Crohn’s, diverticulitis
infection
traumatic injury

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17
Q

Briefly describe the embryological development of the female genital tract/

A

the paramesonephric ducts (mullerian ducts) are a pair of passageways along the outside of the urogenital region which fuse and mature to become the uterus, fallopian tubes, cervix and upper third of the vagina

in a male foetus anti-mullerian hormone is produced , which suppresses the growth of the mullerian ducts, causing them to disappear

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18
Q

What is a bicornate uterus? complications? management?

A

where there are two horns to the uterus, giving it a heart-shaped appearance

can be associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes like miscarriage, premature birth or malpresentation but usually pregnancies are successful

in most cases, no specific management is required

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19
Q

What is an imperforate hymen? treatment? complications?

A

where the hymen at the entrance of the vagina is fully formed without an opening

often discovered at menarche as the menses are sealed in the vagina causing cyclical pelvic pain and cramping without vaginal bleeding

treatment is with surgical incision to create an opening in the hymen

potential complication is retrograde menstruation leading to endometriosis

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20
Q

What is transverse vaginal septae? complications? treatment?

A

an error in development where a septum forms transversely across the vagina

can either be perforate or imperforate so some girls will still menstruate but have difficulty with intercourse or tampon use whereas those with imperforate septae will present similarly to an imperforate hymen

can lead to infertility and pregnancy-related complications

treatment is with surgical correction

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21
Q

What is vaginal hypoplasia and agenesis? management?

A

vaginal hypoplasia is an abnormally small vagina
vaginal agenesis is an absent vagina

these occur due to failure of the mullerian ducts to properly develop and can be associated with an absent uterus and cervix

management may involve the use of a vaginal dilator to create an adequate vaginal size
in some cases surgical intervention is required

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22
Q

What is adenomyosis?

A

endometrial tissue inside the myometrium (muscle layer of the uterus)

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23
Q

What is the typical presentation of adenomyosis

A

dysmenorrhoea
menorrhagia
dyspareunia

enlarged, boggy uterus

infertility or pregnancy-related complications
1/3 of patients are asymptomatic

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24
Q

How is adenomyosis diagnosed?

A

1st line - transvaginal USS
MRI and transabdominal USS can also be used

GS = histological examination of the uterus after a hysterectomy (not usually appropriate)

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25
What is the management for adenomyosis?
same as the treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding for women who do not want contraception: - tranexamic acid (if no associated pain) = antifibrinolytic - mefenamic acid (with associated pain) = NSAID for women who want or are happy to have contraceptives: - mirena coil (1st line) - COCP - cyclical oral progestogens
26
What are some potential pregnancy complications caused by adenomyosis? x8
Infertility Miscarriage Preterm birth Small for gestational age Preterm premature rupture of membranes Malpresentation Need for caesarean section Postpartum haemorrhage
27
What is Asherman's syndrome?
where adhesions (sometimes called synechiae) form within the uterus, following damage to the uterus these adhesions form physical obstructions and distort the pelvic organs, resulting in menstruation abnormalities, infertility and recurrent miscarriages
28
What causes Asherman's syndrome?
it usually occurs after a pregnancy-related dilatation and curettage (scraping) procedure, e.g. in the treatment of retained products of conception (removing placental tissue left behind after birth) can also occur after uterine surgery or several pelvic infections the adhesions can bind the uterine walls together, or within the endocervix, sealing it shut
29
What are the presentations of Asherman's syndrome? x4
secondary amenorrhoea significantly lighter periods dysmenorrhoea infertility
30
How is a diagnosis of Asherman's syndrome confirmed? what is the treatment?
hysteroscopy (GS) also the treatment as adhesions can be dissected during this procedure hysterosalpingography (XR imaging of the uterus with contrast) sonohysterography (uterus is filled with fluid before pelvic USS) MRI scan
31
What is lichen sclerosis? what does lichen refer to?
a chronic inflammatory skin condition which presents with patches of shiny, 'porcelain-white' skin and commonly affects the labia, perineum and perianal skin in women lichen refers to a flat eruption that spreads
32
What are the symptoms of lichen sclerosus?
itching soreness and pain (possibly worse at night) skin tightness superficial dyspareunia erosions fissures
33
What is the Koebner phenomenon?
occurs in lichen sclerosus when the signs and symptoms are made worse by friction to the skin
34
What is the appearance of the skin in lichen sclerosus?
porcelain-white colour shiny tight thin slightly raised may be papules or plaques
35
What is the management for lichen sclerosus?
cannot be cured but symptoms can be effectively managed long term strong topical steroids like clobetasol propionate emollients
36
What are the potential complications of lichen sclerosus?
5% risk of squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva sexual dysfunction narrowing of the vaginal or urethral openings bleeding, pain, discomfort
37
What is endometriosis? what is an endometrioma?
a condition where there is ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterus endometrioma = a lump of endometrial tissue outside the uterus
38
What causes endometriosis? what are the theories for the growth of ectopic endometrial tissue?
no clear cause seems to be a genetic element - retrograde menstruation where the endometrial lining flows backwards through the fallopian tubes during menstruation, into the pelvis and peritoneum where it seeds itself - embryonic cells destined to become endometrial tissue remain in areas outside the uterus during foetal development and then develop into ectopic endometrial tissue - spread of endometrial cells through the lymphatic system (similar to cancer spread) - metaplasia of cells outside the uterus into endometrial cells
39
What are the symptoms of endometriosis?
can be asymptomatic cyclical abdominal or pelvic pain deep dypareunia dysmenorrhoea infertility cyclical bleeding from other site e.g. haematuria
40
What investigations are used to diagnose endometriosis?
pelvic USS - may reveal endometriomas and chocolate cysts but more commonly unremarkable laparoscopic surgery (GS) with biopsy and potential to removed deposits for symptom relief
41
What are the management options for endometriosis?
important parts of initial management are education, analgesia and partnership with patient to establish their ICEs hormonal management: COCP, progesterone pill, depo injection, nexplanon implant, mirena coil, GnRH agonists Surgical management: laparoscopic surgery to excise or ablate the endometrial tissue and remove adhesions, hysterectomy
42
What are some differential diagnoses for endometriosis? x8
pelvic inflammatory disease ectopic pregnancy torsion of an ovarian cyst appendicitis primary dymenorrhoea IBS uterine fibroids UTI
43
What is a vulval intraepithelial neoplasia? what are some types of VIN?
a premalignant condition affecting the squamous epithelium of the skin which can precede vulval cancer High grade squamous intraepithelial lesions are a type of VIN associated with HPV infection which typically occur in younger women aged 35-50 Differentiated VIN is an alternative type of VIN associated with lichen sclerosus and typically occurs in older women (50-60 yrs)
44
What are some risk factors for vulval cancer
lichen sclerosus (5% get vulval cancer) advanced age (75+) immunosuppression HPV infection
45
What are the treatment options for VIN? x4
watch and wait wide local excision to remove the lesion imiquimod cream laser ablation
46
What are the symptoms of vulval cancer? x6
vulval lump ulceration bleeding pain itching lymphadenopathy of the groin
47
What are some features of vulval tumours? what part of the vulva is usually affected?
irregular mass fungating lesion ulceration bleeding most commonly affect the labia majora
48
How is a diagnosis of vulval cancer established?
Biopsy of the lesion Sentinel node biopsy to demonstrate lymph node spread Further imaging for staging (e.g. CT abdomen and pelvis)
49
What are the management options for vulval cancer?
Wide local excision to remove the cancer Groin lymph node dissection Chemotherapy Radiotherapy
50
What is HPV? What are the important strains and associations? How does it increase the likelihood of cancer?
a viral STI associated with anal, vulval, penis, mouth and throat cancers important strains are type 16 and 18 which are responsible for around 70% of cervical cancers and also the strains targeted with the HPV vaccine HPV produces two proteins (E6 and E7) which inhibit the tumour suppressor genes, P53 and pRb respectively, promoting cancer development as a result
51
What are some of the risk factors for cervical cancer?
HPV - early sexual activity, multiple sexual partners, not using condoms not having cervical screening smoking HIV COCP for 5+ years family history exposure to diethylstilbestrol during foetal development
52
What are some symptoms of cervical cancer?
abnormal vaginal bleeding vaginal discharge pelvic pain dyspareunia
53
What is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia? what are the grades?
a grading system for the level of dysplasia in the cells of the cervix CIN I: mild dysplasia, affecting 1/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to return to normal without treatment CIN II: moderate dysplasia, affecting 2/3 the thickness of the epithelial layer, likely to progress to cancer if untreated CIN III: severe dysplasia, very likely to progress to cancer if untreated
54
How is cervical cancer staged?
Stage 1: Confined to the cervix Stage 2: Invades the uterus or upper 2/3 of the vagina Stage 3: Invades the pelvic wall or lower 1/3 of the vagina Stage 4: Invades the bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis
55
What is the management for cervical cancer?
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and early-stage 1A: LLETZ or cone biopsy Stage 1B – 2A: Radical hysterectomy and removal of local lymph nodes with chemotherapy and radiotherapy Stage 2B – 4A: Chemotherapy and radiotherapy Stage 4B: Management may involve a combination of surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy and palliative care
56
What is colposcopy?
a procedure where the epithelial lining of the cervix is examined in detail and stains such as acetic acid and iodine solution are used to identify abnormal areas
57
What is large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)?
also known as a loop biopsy and can be performed with local anaesthetic during a colposcopy procedure uses a loop of wire with electrical current to remove abnormal epithelial tissue on the cervix
58
What is a cone biopsy? what are the potential risks?
a treatment for CIN and very early-stage cervical cancer an operation performed under general anaesthetic where the surgeon removes a cone-shaped piece of the cervix using a scalpel which is then sent for histology to assess for malignancy risks: - pain - bleeding - infection - scar formation with stenosis of the cervix - increased risk of miscarriage and premature labour
59
What is pelvic exenteration
an operation which can be used in advanced cervical cancer and involves removing most or all of the pelvic organs, including the vagina, cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, bladder and rectum
60
What is bevacizumab ?
a monoclonal antibody that may be used in combination with other chemotherapies in the treatment of metastatic or recurrent cervical cancer targets vascular endothelial growth factor A which is responsible for the development of new blood vessels also used to treat wet age-related macular degeneration
61
What are the most common types of cervical cancer?
80% are squamous cell carcinomas adenocarcinoma rarely small cell cancer
62
What is the screening programme for cervical cancer in the UK?
A smear test is offered to all women between the ages of 25-64 years 25-49 years: 3-yearly screening 50-64 years: 5-yearly screening cervical screening cannot be offered to women over 64 (unlike breast screening, where patients can self-refer once past screening age)
63
What are the potential cytology results of cervical screening?
inadequate normal borderline changes low-grade dyskaryosis high-grade dyskaryosis (moderate/severe) possible invasive squamous cell carcinoma possible glandular neoplasia can also identify bacterial vaginosis, cadididasis and trichomoniasis
64
What are the management options for smear results?
Inadequate sample – repeat the smear after at least three months HPV negative – continue routine screening HPV positive with normal cytology – repeat the HPV test after 12 months HPV positive with abnormal cytology – refer for colposcopy
65
What is endometrial hyperplasia? prognosis? types?
a precancerous condition involving thickening of the endometrium most cases return to normal over time less than 5% will progress to endometrial cancer 2 types: hyperplasia without atypia and atypical hyperplasia
66
What is the treatment for endometrial hyperplasia?
intrauterine system e.g. mirena coil continuous oral progestogens e.g. medroxyprogesterone
67
What are some risk factors for endometrial cancer? x8
Increased age Earlier onset of menstruation Late menopause Oestrogen only hormone replacement therapy No or fewer pregnancies Obesity (adipose tissue is a source of oestrogen) Polycystic ovarian syndrome Tamoxifen (oestrogenic effect on the endometrium)
68
Why is PCOS a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
it lead to increased exposure to unopposed oestrogen due to a lack of ovulation when ovulation occurs a corpus luteum is formed in the ovaries from the ruptured follicle that released the egg and its the corpus luteum which produces progesterone and provide endometrial protection during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle women with PCOS are less likely to ovulate and form a corpus luteum so progesterone is not produced and the endometrial lining has more exposure to unopposed oestrogen
69
What is used for endometrial protection in women with PCOS? x3
COCP intrauterine system like mirena coil cyclical progestogens to induce a withdrawal bleed
70
What are some protective factors against endometrial cancer?
COCP mirena coil increased pregnancies cigarette smoking (due to anti-oestrogenic effect)
71
What are the symptoms of endometrial cancer? x7
Postcoital bleeding Intermenstrual bleeding Unusually heavy menstrual bleeding Abnormal vaginal discharge Haematuria Anaemia Raised platelet count
72
What is the referral criteria for a 2 week-wait urgent cancer referral for endometrial cancer?
postmenopausal bleeding (12+ months after last menstrual period)
73
What potential symptoms of endometrial cancer trigger referral for a transvaginal USS in women over 55?
unexplained vaginal discharge visible haematuria (with raised platelets, anaemia or raised blood glucose)
74
What are the 3 main investigations for diagnosing endometrial canceR?
Transvaginal ultrasound for endometrial thickness (normal is less than 4mm post-menopause) Pipelle biopsy, which is highly sensitive for endometrial cancer making it useful for excluding cancer Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy
75
What are the stages of endometrial cancer?
Stage 1: Confined to the uterus Stage 2: Invades the cervix Stage 3: Invades the ovaries, fallopian tubes, vagina or lymph nodes Stage 4: Invades bladder, rectum or beyond the pelvis
76
What is the management for endometrial cancer?
For stage 1 and 2 usually a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy (TAH and BSO) where the uterus, cervix and adnexa are removed A radical hysterectomy involves also removing the pelvic lymph nodes, surrounding tissues and top of the vagina Radiotherapy Chemotherapy Progesterone may be used as a hormonal treatment to slow the progression of the cancer
77
What are the types of ovarian cancers
epithelial cell tumours (serous tumours (MC), endometrioid carcinomas, clear cell, mucinous tumours, undifferentiated tumours) dermoid cysts/ germ cell tumours - teratomas (can contain other tissue types e.g. skin, teeth, hair and bone), particularly associated with ovarian torsion sex cord-stromal tumours - rare and can be benign or malignant, arise from the stroma or sex cords, include sertoli-leydig cell tumours, granulosa cell tumours metastasis - krukenberg tumour is a common type of metastasis in the ovary usually from the GI tract and these have characteristic signet ring cells on histology
78
What are some risk factors for ovarian cancer?
age (peak age 60) BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes increased number of ovulations obesity smoking recurrent use of clomifene
79
What are 3 protective factors for ovarian cancer?
COCP breastfeeding pregnancy
80
What are the symptoms of ovarian cancer? x8
abdo bloating early satiety loss of appetite pelvic pain urinary symptoms weight loss abdo pain or pelvic mass ascites
81
What examination findings trigger a 2 week-wait referral for ovarian cancer?
ascites pelvic mass abdo mass
82
What are the investigations for ovarian cancer?
CA1245 blood test pelvic USS CT scan histology using a CT guided biopsy, laparoscopy or laparotomy paracentesis
83
What are the factors considered in the risk of malignancy index (RMI) for an ovarian mass?
menopausal status USS findings CA125 level
84
Which tumour markers could indicate a possible germ cell tumour?
Alpha-fetoprotein (α-FP) Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
85
What are some non-malignant caused of a raised CA125? x6
Endometriosis Fibroids Adenomyosis Pelvic infection Liver disease Pregnancy
86
What is the staging for ovarian cancer?
Stage 1: Confined to the ovary Stage 2: Spread past the ovary but inside the pelvis Stage 3: Spread past the pelvis but inside the abdomen Stage 4: Spread outside the abdomen (distant metastasis)
87
What is vaginal cancer? how does it usually present ?
a squamous cell carcinoma involving the posterior wall of the upper third of the vagina. It may directly invade the bladder or rectum. Lesions may be ulcerative or exophytic. 80% of vaginal cancers are metastatic spread i.e. from the urethra, bladder, rectum etc. vaginal bleeding/bloody discharge
88
What are the investigations for vaginal cancer?
colposcopy biopsy, cervical cytology, endometrial biopsy CT scan fluorodeoxyglucose-positron emission tomography CXR cytoscopy, sigmoidoscopy
89
What is the staging for vaginal cancer?
Stage 0 - squamous cell carcinoma in situ; this disease is usually multifocal and commonly occurs at the vaginal vault. Stage I - the disease is limited to the vaginal wall mucosa. Stage II - the disease involves the subvaginal tissue, but not the pelvic wall. Stage III - the disease extends to pelvic wall. Stage IV - the disease either extends beyond the true pelvis or involves the bladder or rectal mucosa: Stage IVA - the disease has spread to adjacent organs. Stage IVB - the disease has spread to distant organs.
90
What are the management options for vaginal cancer?
dependent on tumour stage surgery and radiotherapy are very effective in early-stage disease radiation therapy is the treatment of choice in most patient with vaginal cancer, particularly in later-stage disease chemoradiation therapy (cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil)
91
What is a hydatidiform mole? complete vs partial?
also known as a molar pregnancy where a mass of tissue grows inside the womb which will not develop into a baby a complete mole occurs when two sperm cells fertilise an ovum which contains no genetic material and so the genetic material of the sperm combine and divide a partial mole is when 2 sperm cells fertilise a normal ovum at the same time so that it has 3 sets of chromosomes and then divides and multiplies into a tumour called a partial mole (some foetal material may develop)
92
What are some indicators for a molar pregnancy which differ from a normal pregnancy?
molar pregnancies generally behave like a normal pregnancy - more severe morning sickness - vaginal bleeding - increased enlargement of the uterus - abnormally high hCG - thyrotoxicosis (hCG can mimic TSH and stimulate the thyroid to produce excess T3/T4)`
93
What is the characteristic sign of a molar pregnancy on USS?
snowstorm appearance (created by the presence of many hydropic villi which give the appearance of a central heterogenous mass filling the entire uterine cavity)
94
What is the management for molar pregnancies?
evacuation of the uterus to remove the mole the products of conception need to be sent for histological examination to confirm a molar pregnancy patients should be referred to the gestational trophoblastic disease centre for management and follow up hCG levels should be monitored until they return to normal occasionally the mole can metastasise and the patient may need systemic chemotherapy
95
What is gestational trophoblastic disease?
a group of pregnancy-related tumours which develop from the cells which surround the fertilised egg or embryo e.g. hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma, placental site trophoblastic tumour, epithelioid trophoblastic tumours
96
What are the potential causes of primary amenorrhoea? x3
primary amenorrhoea = when the patient has never developed periods abnormal functioning of the hypothalamus or pituitary gland (hypogonadotropic hypogonadism) abnormal functioning of the gonads (hypergonadotropic hypogonadism) imperforate hymen or other structural pathology
97
What are some potential causes of secondary amenorrhoea? x9
pregnancy (MC) menopause physiological stress due to excessive exercise, low body weight, chronic disease or psychosocial factors polycystic ovarian syndrome medications, such as hormonal contraceptives premature ovarian insufficiency (menopause before 40yrs) thyroid hormone abnormalities (hypo or hyperthyroid) excessive prolactin e.g. from a prolactinoma Cushing's disease
98
What is an endometrial polyp?
also known as uterine polyps a fleshy tag of tissue which can appear on the neck or in the cavity of the uterus usually benign but some can be cancerous or precancerous
99
What are some of the symptoms associated with endometrial polyps?
vaginal bleeding post-menopause intermenstrual bleeding frequent, unpredictable periods with varying length/heaviness infertility
100
What are some risk factors for endometrial polyps? x4
being peri or post menopausal obesity tamoxifen (drug therapy for breast cancer) HRT
101
What investigations would be used to diagnose endometrial polyps?
transvaginal USS hysterosonography hysteroscopy endometrial biopsy
102
What is the treatment for endometrial polyps?
watch and wait progestins or gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists to relieve symptoms polypectomy during hysteroscopy
103
What are uterine fibroids?
benign tumours of the smooth muscle of the uterus also known as uterine leiomyomas
104
What are the types of uterine fibroids?
intramural (within the myometrium) - they change the shape of the uterus as they grow subserosal (just below the outer layer of the uterus) - the grow outwards and can be very large submucosal (just below the lining of the uterus) pendunculated (on a stalk)
105
What are the symptoms of fibroids? x7
often asymptomatic heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia) prolonged menstruation abdo pain bloating or feeling full in the abdomen urinary or bowel symptoms (due to pelvic pressure or fullness) deep dyspareunia reduced fertility
106
What are the investigations for fibroids?
hysteroscopy pelvic USS MRI scanning
107
What are the management options for fibroids <3cm?
for fibroids less than 3cm (same as management for heavy menstrual bleeding): mirena coil symptomatic management combined oral contraceptive cyclical oral progestogens e.g. medroxyprogesterone acetate endometrial ablation resection of submucosal fibroids during hysterectomy hysterectomy
108
What are the management options for fibroids >3cm?
for fibroids more than 3cm referral to gynaecology needed symptomatic management with NSAIDs and tranexamic acid mirena coil combined oral contraceptive cyclical oral protestogens uterine artery embolisation myomectomy hysterectomy
109
Briefly explain the following terms which are surgical treatments for fibroids: myomectomy endometrial ablation hysterectomy
myomectomy = surgical removal of the fibroid via laparoscopic surgery or laparotomy endometrial ablation = destruction of the endometrium by inserting a specially designed balloon into the endometrial cavity and filling it with high-temperature fluid which burn the endometrial lining of the uterus hysterectomy = removal of the uterus and fibroids which can be laparoscopy (keyhole), laparotomy (open) or vaginal approach
110
What are some of the complications of uterine fibroids? x9
menorrhagia (+/- anaemia) reduced fertility pregnancy complications e.g. miscarriages, premature labour, and obstructive delivery constipation urinary outflow obstruction and UTIs red degeneration of the fibroid torsion of the fibroid malignant change to a leiomyosarcoma (very rare)
111
What is red degeneration of the fibroid? why does it occur?
ischaemia, infarction and necrosis of the fibroid due to disrupted blood supply more likely to occur in larger fibroids (5cm+) in the 2nd or 3rd trimester of pregnancy may occur as the fibroid rapidly enlarges during pregnancy, outgrowing its blood supply and becoming ischaemic may also occur due to kinking in the blood vessels as the uterus changes shape and expands during pregnancy
112
What symptoms indicate red degeneration of fibroids? what is the management?
severe abdo pain low-grade fever tachycardia vomiting management = supportive - rest, fluids and analgesia
113
What is an ovarian cyst?
a fluid-filled sac in the ovary majority benign in premenopausal women but more concerning for malignancy in postmenopausal women
114
What is required for a diagnosis of PCOS?
anovulation hyperandrogenism polycystic ovaries on USS
115
What are some symptoms of ovarian cysts?
mostly asymptomatic pelvic pain bloating fullness in the abdomen palpable pelvic mass
116
What are the 2 types of functional ovarian cysts? what causes them?
follicular cysts - occur when the developing follicle fails to rupture and release the egg but a cyst persists corpus luteum cysts - occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and instead fills with fluid
117
What is the management for simple ovarian cysts in premenopausal women? size-dependent
less than 5cm - almost always resolve within 3 cycles and do not require a follow up scan 5-7cm - require routine referral to gynaecology and yearly USS monitoring 7+cm - consider an MRI scan or surgical evaluation persistent or enlarging cysts may require laparoscopy or ovarian cystectomy or oophorectomy
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What are some potential complications of ovarian cysts?
torsion haemorrhage into the cyst rupture with peritoneal bleeding
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What is Meig's syndrome
triad of: ovarian fibroma pleural effusion ascites typically occurs in older women and removal of the tumour results in complete resolution of the effusion and ascites
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What is ovarian torsion?
where the ovary twists in relation to the surrounding connective tissue, fallopian tube and blood supply usually due to an ovarian mass >5cm e.g. cyst or tumour twisting of the adnexa and blood supply to the ovary leads to ischaemia so if the torsion persists, necrosis occurs and the function of the ovary will be lost therefore ovarian torsion is an emergency requiring prompt diagnosis and management
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How does ovarian torsion present? what might be found on examination?
sudden onset severe unilateral pelvic pain the pain is constant, gets progressively worse and is associated with nausea and vomiting can take a milder and more prolonged course in some cases with less severe pain occasionally the ovary can twist and untwist intermittently resulting in pain which comes and goes localised tenderness and potentially a palpable mass in the pelvis on examination
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How is ovarian torsion diagnosed? management?
pelvic USS which may show a whirlpool sign, free fluid in pelvis and oedema of the ovary laparoscopic surgery is used to make a definitive diagnosis and treat it detorsion or oophorectomy may be performed during laparoscopic surgery
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What are the rotterdam criteria for PCIS?
oligoovulation or anovulation (irregular or absent menstrual periods) hyperandrogenism (characterised by hirsutism and acne) polycystic ovaries on USS diagnosis requires 2 or 3 of these features
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What are some key features of PCOS? x6
oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea infertility obesity (~70% patients) hirsutism acne hair loss in a male pattern
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What are some other conditions/symptoms linked with PCOS? x8
insulin resistance and diabetes acanthosis nigricans (due to insulin resistance) cardiovascular disease hypercholesterolaemia endometrial hyperplasia and cancer obstructive sleep apnoea depression and anxiety sexual problems
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What are some differential diagnoses for hirsutism? x5
PCOS medications e.g. phenytoin, ciclosporin, corticosteroids, testosterone and anabolic steroids ovarian or adrenal tumours secreting androgens Cushing's syndrome congenital adrenal hyperplasia
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What are the blood tests recommended in PCOS diagnosis? x6 which are usually raised?
testosterone sex hormone-binding globulin luteinizing hormone follicle-stimulating hormone prolactin thyroid-stimulating hormone LH, LH:FSH ratio, testosterone, insulin and sometimes oestrogen are all typically raised in PCOS
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What is seen on USS in PCOS?
string of pearls appearance where the follicles are arranged around the periphery of the ovary ovarian volume of >10cm3
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What are the general management steps for PCOS?
weight reduction if appropriate risk management for risks associated with diabetes, cardiovascular disease, endometrial cancer e.g. smoking cessation, antihypertensive medications, COCP, mirena coil (continuous endometrial protection)
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What are some treatments for hirsutism and acne associated with PCOS?
COCP (1st line for acne) topical adapalene (retinoid), antibiotics (clindamycin with benzoyl peroxide) or azelaic acid for acne topical elflornithine (for facial hirsutism) spironolactone (mineralocorticoid antagonist with anti-androgen effects), flutamide (non-steroidal anti-androgen) and finasteride (5a-reductase inhibitor which decreases testosterone production)
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WHat are some treatments for infertility associated with PCOS?
weight reduction if applicable metformin, clomifene or a combination to stimulate ovulation (ongoing efficacy debate) gonadotrophins ovarian drilling (puncturing holes into the ovaries to improve the woman's hormonal profile and result in regular ovulation and fertility)
132
What is a prolactinoma? how can they be classified?
a type of pituitary adenoma size classification: microprolactinoma = <1cm and macroprolactinoma = >1cm hormonal status classification: secretory/functioning adenoma produces an excess of a particular hormone and a non-secretory/functioning adenoma does not produce excess hormone
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What are some features of excess prolactin in women? x4
amenorrhoea infertility galactorrhoea osteoporosis
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What are some features of excess prolactin in men? x4
impotence loss of libido galactorrhoea gynaecomastia
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What are some symptoms of pituitary macroadenomas?
headache visual disturbances e.g. bitemporal hemianopia or upper temporal quadrantanopia symptoms and signs of hypopituitarism (lethargy, anorexia, decreased muscle strength and bone density, impotency)
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How are prolactinomas diagnosed and managed>
diagnosis = MRI management: - dopamine agonists e.g. cabergoline, bromocriptine which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland - trans-sphenoidal surgery to remove the tumour (when medical therapy failed) - radiation therapy
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What are the minimum investigations for a palpable breast mass for women: - under 25 years - 25-40 years - over 40 years
<25 yrs - histology or cytology only. No imaging if clinically feels benign. USS if clinically indeterminate or suspicious. Risk of malignancy negligible in this age group. 25-40 years: breast USS plus histology or cytology. Triple assessment over 40 yrs: mammography and USS and either histology or cytology: Triple assessment
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Why is USS favoured over mammography in women under 40?
In younger women the breast tissue is dense and predominately glandular. With age it becomes less dense and dominated by fatty tissue. Mammograms struggle to differentiate between fluid-filled cysts and solid masses in dense breasts so are less useful diagnostically in younger women
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What are breast cysts and what are they like on examination?
benign, individual, fluid-filled lumps *most common cause of breast lumps* on examination: smooth well-circumscribed mobile possibly fluctuant
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What are the clinical assessment gradings of breast lumps?
P1 - Normal P2 - Benign P3 - Indeterminate P4 - Suspicious P5 - malignant
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What is the most common cause of a breast lump?
breast cyst
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What is fat necrosis in the breast? how does it present on examination? what are the common triggers? how is it diagnosed/managed?
localised degeneration and scarring of fat tissue in the breast which causes a benign lump O/E: painless firm irregular fixed in local structures may be skin dimpling or nipple inversion may be associated with an oil cyst containing liquid fat commonly triggered by localised trauma, radiotherapy or surgery --> an inflammatory reaction resulting in fibrosis and necrosis of the fat tissue can appear similar to breast cancer on mammogram so biopsy may be required to rule this out conservative management as can resolve spontaneously over time surgical excision may be used if required for symptoms
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What is a lipoma? how does it present on examination? management?
benign tumour of adipose tissue which commonly occurs in the breast O/E: soft painless mobile do not cause skin changes typically treated conservatively with reassurance, in some cases can be surgically removed
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What is a galactocele? how do they present on examination? management?
breast milk filled cysts which occur when the lactiferous duct is blocked, preventing the gland from draining milk O/E: firm mobile painless usually beneath the areola usually resolve without treatment is possible to drain them with a needle small risk of infection
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What is a phyllodes tumour? how are they managed?
rare tumour of the connective tissue of the breast which occur most often in 40-50yr old women large and fast growing can be benign (50%) or malignant (25%) treatment involves surgical removal of the tumour and the surrounding tissue (wide excision) can reoccur after removal chemotherapy may be used in malignant or metastatic tumours
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What are fibroadenomas? How do they present on examination? how are they managed?
common benign tumours of stromal/epithelial breast duct tissue typically small and mobile within the breast tissue more common in younger women between 20-40yrs O/E: painless smooth round well circumscribed (well-defined borders) firm mobile usually up to 3cm diameter usually not treated, in some cases surgical removal is indicated
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What are some risk factors for breast cancer? x7
female increased oestrogen exposure (earlier onset of periods and later menopause) more dense breast tissue (more glandular tissue) obesity smoking family history (1st deg relative) HRT (particularly combined) *COCP --> small increase in breast cancer risk but it returns to normal ten years after stopping the pill
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Which genes are assocaited with breast cancer? what chromosomes are they associated with?
BRCA1 on chromosome 17 BRCA2 on chromosome 13
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What are some of the common types of breast cancer? x6
Invasive ductal carcinoma (MC) also known as 'No Special Type' while other rarer types are known as 'Special type' Invasive lobular carcinoma Ductal carcinoma-in-situ Lobular carcinoma-in-situ Inflammatory Breast Cancer Paget's disease of the nipple
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What are some rarer types of breast cancer?
medullary breast cancer mucinous breast cancer tubular breast cancer multiple others
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What is Paget's disease of the nipple?
an eczematoid change of the nipple associated with an underlying breast malignancy and is present in 1-2% of patients with breast cancer
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What is inflammatory breast cancer?
where cancerous cells block the lymph drainage resulting in an inflamed appearance of the breast accounts for around 1 in 10,000 cases of breast cancer
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What is the NHS screening program for breast cancer? how is this modified for high risk patients?
to offer a mammogram every 3 years to women aged 47-73yrs old annual mammogram screening is offered to women with increased risk between specific age ranges, depending on their level of risk
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What are some potential downsides to screening for breast cancer?
anxiety and stress exposure to radiation, with a very small risk of causing breast cancer missing cancer, leading to false reassurance unnecessary further tests or treatment where findings would not have otherwise caused harm
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What are the options for chemoprevention in patients at high risk of breast cancer?
tamoxifen if premenopausal anastrozole if postmenopausal (except with severe osteoporosis)
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What are some clinical features which may suggest breast cancer?
hard, irregular, painless or fixed lumps lumps tethered to the skin or chest wall nipple retraction skin dimpling or oedema lymphadenopathy (especially in the axilla)
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What are the referral criteria according to NICE guidelines for suspected breast cancer?
an unexplained breast lump in patients aged 30 or above unilateral nipple changes in patients aged 50 or above (discharge, retraction, other changes) consider 2 week wait referral for: an unexplained lump in the axilla in patients aged 30 or above skin changes suggestive of breast cancer
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What is included in the triple diagnostic assessment for suspected breast cancer? Why is it important?
clinical assessment imaging (USS or mammography) biopsy (fine needle aspiration or core biopsy) Important to ensure concordance i.e. a clinically suspicious mass should have suspicious imaging and cytology before a decision is made to remove a woman’s breast. If there is discordance it may mean that the biopsy has missed the lesions and that further biopsies should be taken
159
What imaging is used in breast cancer assessment and why?
USS typically used to assess lumps in younger women (breasts are more dense and glandular), helpful in distinguishing solid lumps from cystic lumps Mammograms are generally more effective in older women and can pick up calcifications not seen on USS MRI scans can be used in women at higher risk of developing breast cancer, also to assess size and features of a tumour in more detail
160
What is a sentinel lymph node biopsy and when is it performed?
performed during breast surgery for cancer an isotope contrast and a blue dye are injected into the tumour area and travel through the lymphatics to the first lymph node (the sentinel node) this will show up blue on the isotope scanner and a biopsy can be performed to assess if cancer cells are present
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What breast cancer receptors can be targeted with breast cancer treatments?
oestrogen receptors progesterone receptors human epidermal growth factor (HER2)
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What is triple-negative breast cancer?
where the breast cancer cells do not express any of the breast cancer receptors resulting a worse prognosis due to limited treatment options
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What are the main sites that breast cancer metastasises to?
Lungs Liver Bones Brain Can spread to anywhere though!
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What are the management options for breast cancer? x5
surgery (mastectomy or wide local excision) radiotherapy hormone therapy biological therapy chemotherapy
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What are some indications for mastectomy to treat a breast tumour? x4
multifocal tumour central tumour large lesion in small breast DCIS >4cm
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What are some indications for wide local excision of a breast tumour?
solitary lesion peripheral tumour small lesion in large breast DCIS <4cm
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When is radiotherapy recommended for breast cancer treatment?
whole breast radiotherapy is recommended after a woman has had a wide-local excision as this may reduce the risk of recurrence by around 2/3's radiotherapy is also offered to women who've had a mastectomy for T3-T4 tumours and for those with 4+ positive lymph nodes
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when is hormonal therapy offered for breast cancer? what are the medications offered and how do they work?
if tumours are positive for hormone receptors tamoxifen - a selective oestrogen receptor modulator whic either blocks or stimulates oestrogen receptors depending on the site of action (block in breast, stimulates in uterus and bone) aromatase inhibitors (e.g. letrozole, anastrozole or exemestane) block the creation of oestrogen in fat tissue
169
What are some targeted treatments for HER2 positive breast cancer? x3
trastuzumab = monoclonal antibody which targets the HER2 receptor, may be used in patients with HER2 positive breast cancer pertuzumab = monoclonal antibody which targets the HER2 receptor neratinib = tyrosine kinase inhibitor, reducing the growth of breast cancers, may be used in HER2 positive breast cancer
170
What are the criteria for being classed as a high risk patient for breast cancer?
a first-degree relative with breast cancer under 40 yrs a first-degree male relative with breast cancer a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer, first diagnosed under 50 yrs two first-degree relatives with breast cancer
171
When is radiotherapy indicated for breast cancer treatment?
- always given to the remaining breast after wide local excision - after some mastectomies for poor prognosis, high-risk tumours - as palliation for large or inoperable primary cancers - to treat symptomatic bone mets - to treat the axilla in women who cannot have axillary clearance surgery - to reduce local recurrence rates (usually around 2/3rds)
172
Who is offered hormonal therapy for breast cancer?
all women with oestrogen sensitive breast cancer are offered 5 or more year of anti-oestrogen therapy
173
What are the 1st line hormonal therapies in pre and post menopausal women?
Pre-menopausal women: - tamoxifen (30% increase in survival rate) (selective oestrogen receptor modulator which acts on oestrogen receptors throughout the body) Post-menopausal women: - aromatase inhibitors e.g. exemestane, letrozole, anastrozole (prevent the peripheral conversion of adrenal androgens to oestrogens by the aromatase enzyme in fatty tissues)
174
What is the follow up for a patient who has had breast cancer?
a mammogram every year for 5 years
175
What is the treatment for breast pain?
*Reassurance that they do not have breast cancer is sufficient for 85% of women* Cyclical pain 1. simple explanation, reassurance and occasional simple analgesia 2. Danazol - weak androgen and mild inhibitor of gonadal function by inhibition of LH and FSH (significant side effects to breast) 3. Tamoxifen - can't be given long term due to risk of endometrial cancer 4. Goserelin - agonist of LH and FSH which causes stimulation of these receptors followed by a block Non-cyclical pain - NSAIDs
176
What is mammary duct ectasia?
a benign condition where there is dilation of the large ducts in the breasts leading to intermittent discharge from the nipple which can be white, grey or green. occurs most frequently in perimenopausal women ectasia = dilation
177
What are the signs/symptoms of mammary duct ectasia?
nipple discharge tenderness of pain nipple retraction or inversion a breast lump
178
What are the investigations used to diagnose duct ectasia?
Clinical assessment (history and examination) Imaging (ultrasound, mammography and MRI) Histology (fine needle aspiration or core biopsy) *Microcalcifications are a key finding on mammogram Ductography Nipple discharge cytology Ductoscopy
179
What is the management for duct ectasia?
can resolve without any treatment symptomatic management of mastalgia (breast pain) antibiotics if infection is suspected or present surgical excision of the affected duct in problematic cases
180
What is intraductal papilloma?
a warty lesion which grows within one of the ducts in the breast as a result of epithelial cell proliferation
181
What are the presenting signs/symptoms of intraductal papillomas?
can occur at any age often asymptomatic nipple discharge (clear or blood stained) tenderness or pain palpable lump
182
How does an intraductal papilloma present on ductography>
in ductography contrast is injected into the abnormal duct and a mammogram is then performed to visualise the duct the papilloma will be seen as an area that does not fill with contrast
183
What is the management for intraductal papillomas?
they require complete surgical excision
184
What are the options for breast reconstruction following mastectomy?
Implants Flap reconstruction The breast can be reconstructed using a portion of the latissimus dorsi and the associated skin and fat tissue. Transverse Rectus Abdominis Flap (TRAM Flap) Deep Inferior Epigastric Perforator Flap (DIEP Flap) The breast can be reconstructed using skin and subcutaneous fat from the abdomen (no muscle) as a free flap. The deep inferior epigastric artery, with the associated fat, skin and veins, is transplanted from the abdomen to the breast.
185
what are the 3 features of physical examination which require 2ww referral for suspected ovarian cancer?
ascites pelvic mass (unless clearly due to fibroids) abdominal mass
186
What 3 factors are taken into account in the risk of malignancy index?
menopausal status USS findings CA125 level
187
What are some non-malignant causes of raised CA125?>
endometriosis fibroids adenomyosis pelvic infection liver disease pregnancy
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