Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

What are some risk factors for bipolar disorder? x6

A

no single cause

  • genetic factors (SNPs)
  • prenatal exposure to Toxoplasma gondii
  • premature birth <32 weeks gestation
  • childhood maltreatment
  • postpartum period
  • cannabis use
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2
Q

What are the clinical features of bipolar II and II?

A

Bipolar I - at least one episode of mania
Bipolar II - at least one episode of hypomania, but never an episode of mania. Also at least one episode of major depression

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3
Q

What are the characteristic clinical features of a manic episode?

A

Lasting for at least seven days and have a significant negative functional effect on work and social activities

Elevated mood excessive to circumstance
Elation with increased energy –> overactivity, pressure of speech, decreased need for sleep
Inability to maintain attention, often with marked distractibility
Inflated self-esteem with grandiose ideas of self-importance
Loss of normal social inhibitions

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4
Q

What are some differentials for bipolar disorder? x6

A

Schizophrenia
Organic brain disorder
Drug use
Recurrent depression
Emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD)
Cyclothymia

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5
Q

What is the acute management of mania?

A

secondary care management with oral antipsychotics:
- haloperidol
- olanzapine
- quetiapine
- risperidone

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6
Q

What medications are used in the acute management of depression in bipolar disorder?

A

Fluoxetine + olanzapine
Quetiapine alone
Olanzapine alone
Lamotrigine alone

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7
Q

What is the long-term management for bipolar disorder?

A

Mood stabilising medications e.g. lithium

2nd line Sodium valproate (NOT in pregnant women)

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8
Q

What are some potential complications of bipolar disorder? x4

A

increased risk of death by suicide
increased risk of death by general medical conditions such as cardiovascular disease
side effects of antipsychotics
socioeconomic effects

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9
Q

What are the 3 categories of personality disorders?

A

anxious
suspicious
emotional or impulsive

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10
Q

What are some examples of anxious personality disroders?

A

Avoidant - severe anxiety about rejection and avoidance of social situations/relationships

Dependent - heavy reliance on others to make decisions and take responsibility for their lives

Obsessive compulsive - unrealistic expectations of how things should be done by themselves and others, catastrophising

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11
Q

What are the types of suspicious personality disorders?

A

Paranoid - difficulty trusting others

Schizoid - lack of interest or desire to form relationships with others

Schizotypal - unusual beliefs, thought and behaviours, as well as social anxiety

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12
Q

What are the types of emotional/impulsive personality disorders?

A

Borderline - fluctuating strong emotions and difficulties with identity and maintaining healthy relationships

Histrionic - need to be centre of attention, having to perform to maintain that attention

Narcissistic - feeling that they are special and need other to recognise this

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13
Q

What are personality disorders?

A

Personality disorder (PD) is an umbrella term that covers a number of variations of maladaptive personality traits that cause significant psychosocial distress and interfere with everyday functioning.

characterised by patterns of thought, behaviour and emotions which differ from what is normally expected by society

leads to difficult relationships, reduced quality of life and poor physical health

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14
Q

What are the 3 main categories of personality disorders according to the DSM-5?

A

Cluster A - Suspicious
Cluster B - emotional or impulsive
Cluster C - anxious

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15
Q

What are the management strategies for personality disorders?

A

Risk management (mainly harm to self and others)

Psychological treatment - CBT, DBT (dialectal behaviour therapy)

Medications are not recommended for long term treatment however sedative medications are sometimes used in a crisis short-term

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16
Q

What is post-traumatic stress disorder?

A

a mental health condition resulting from traumatic experiences, with ongoing distressing symptoms and impaired function

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17
Q

What are some examples of traumatic events which may result in PTSD?

A

violence e.g. sexual assault, domestic violence, abuse
major car accidents
major health events e.g. traumatic childbirth, serious illness or death of a loved one
natural disasters
military, combat and war zones

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18
Q

What are some of the key symptoms of PTSD x10

A

intrusive thoughts
re-experiencing (flashbacks, images, nightmares)
hyperarousal (feeling on edge, irritable and easily startled)
negative emotions
negative beliefs
difficulty with sleep
depersonalisation
derealisation
emotional numbing

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19
Q

How is PTSD diagnosed?

A

Trauma screening questionnaire

DSM-5
ICD-11

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20
Q

What are the management options for PTSD?

A

psychological therapy
eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing
Medication e.g. SSRIs, venlafaxine or antipsychotics

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21
Q

What is obsessive compulsive disorder?

A

characterised by obsessions and compulsions

obsessions = unwanted and uncontrolled thoughts and intrusive images which the person finds difficult to ignore

compulsions = repetitive actions which the person feels they have to do

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22
Q

What are the 4 steps of the OCD cycle

A
  1. Obsessions
  2. Anxiety
  3. Compulsion
  4. Temporary relief
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23
Q

Which diagnostic tools are used to confirm OCD diagnosis:?

A

DSM-5 and ICD-11

Yale-brown obsessive compulsive scale is used to assess the severity of symptoms

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24
Q

What are the management options for OCD?

A

Mild cases can be managed with education and self-help resrouces

CBT with exposure and response prevention (ERP)
SSRIs
Clomipramine (TCA)

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25
Q

What are dissociative disorders?

A

when people feel a sense of disruption between their consciousness, body, perceptions, memories, identity and emotions which normally people experience as connected and integrated

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26
Q

What are 3 examples of dissociative disorders?

A

Depersonalisation-derealisation disorder

Dissociative amnesia

Dissociative identity disorder

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27
Q

What is catatonia? what causes it?

A

abnormal movement., communication and behaviour which can look like unusual postures, performing odd actions, repeating sounds or words or remaining blank and unresponsive

most often caused by severe depression and bipolar disorder, rarely physical health conditions like strokes or brain tumours can lead to catatonia

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28
Q

What is reactive attachment disorder?

A

difficulty forming close relationships or attachments with poor response to affection or discipline as a result of severe neglect and trauma in early childhood

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29
Q

What is attachment theory?

A

The importance of creating healthy consistent and secure attachments to at least one nurturing individual during early childhood, particularly for the first 2 years of life

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30
Q

What is factitious disorder/Munchhausen syndrome?

A

where a conscious effort is made to fake illness and seek medical attention for personal gain

symptoms are invented, exaggerated or induced to invoke attention, affection, relationships and care from others

may have repeated presentations with inconsistent and dramatic symptoms which do not fit with examination and investigation findings

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31
Q

What is alien hand syndrome? cause?

A

where the patient loses control of one of their hands so that it acts independently

usually the result of an underlying brain lesion such as brain tumours, injuries, aneurysms or following surgery

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32
Q

What is cotard delusion? causes?

A

The false belief that they are dead or actively dying

also known as walking corpse syndrome

most coften caused by psychiatric conditions like depression and schizophrenia but also can be caused by brain tumours and migraines

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33
Q

What is capgras syndrome?

A

false belief that an identical duplicate has replaced someone close to them

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34
Q

What is De Clerambault’s syndrome?

A

also called erotomania

false belief that a famous or high-social status individual is in love with them leading to inappropriate harassment of the individual by the patient

frequently occurs without any other psychiatric or neurological disease

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35
Q

What is Alice in wonderland/Todd syndrome?

A

incorrectly perceiving the sizes of body parts or objects
also associated with changes to the perception of time and symptoms of migraines

causes include migraine, epilepsy, brain tumours

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36
Q

What is Koro syndrome/

A

a false belief that the sex organs are retracting or shrinking and will ultimately disappear resulting in anxiety and panic attacks

has been linked to cultural beliefs in asia

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37
Q

What is body integrity dysphoria?

A

a strong feeling that a part of the body does not belong to them typically associated with a desire to removed that part of their body

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38
Q

What is foreign accent syndrome?

A

sudden change in a person’s voice most commonly caused by a stroke in the left hemisphere

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39
Q

What is schizophrenia? at what age does it usually present?

A

a severe long-term mental health disorder characterised by psychosis

often presents between age 15-30 and earlier in men than women

symptoms must be present for at least 6 months before schizophrenia is diagnosed

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40
Q

What is schizoaffective disorder?

A

a combination of the symptoms of schizophrenia with bipolar disorder so patients have psychosis with symptoms of depression and mania

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41
Q

How is schizophreniform disorder different to schizophrenia?

A

presents with the same features as schizophrenia but lasts less than 6 months

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42
Q

What are some other causes of psychosis?

A

mania
psychotic depression
drugs
stroke
brain tumours
cushing’s syndrome
hyperthyroidism
huntington’s disease

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43
Q

What causes schizophrenia?

A

thought to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors

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44
Q

How does schizophrenia typically present>

A

a prodrome phase with subtle symtpoms like poor memory, reduced concentration, mood swings, sleep disturbance etc.

then the positive symptoms of psychosis including delusions, hallucinations and thought disorder

lack of insight

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45
Q

What are some key positive symptoms seen typically in schizophrenia?

A

auditory hallucinations
somatic passivity
thought insertion or withdrawal
thought broadcasting
persecutory delusions
ideas of reference
delusional perceptions

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46
Q

What are the 4 A’s which are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

affective flattening
alogia (reduced speech)
anhedonia
avolition (lack of motivation in working towards goals or completing tasks)

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47
Q

What are the different patterns of schizophrenia that can be observed over time?

A

continuous
episodic
single episode only

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48
Q

How is a diagnosis of schizophrenia made?

A

used the DSM-5 criteria
symptoms must have been present for at least 6 months with active phase symptoms present for at least one month

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49
Q

What is the management for schizophrenia?

A

antipsychotic medications
cognitive behavioural therapy

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50
Q

What are some examples oral antipsychotics?

A

chlorpromazine
haloperidol
quetiapine
aripiprazole
olanzapine
risperidone

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51
Q

What are some examples of depot antipsychotics?

A

helpful where adherence may be an issue
aripiprazole
flupentixol
paliperidone
risperidone

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52
Q

What are some key complications of clozapine use?

A

agranulocytosis
myocarditis or cardiomyopathy
constipation
seizures
excessive salivation

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53
Q

What 4 monitoring requirements are required before starting and during antipsychotic treatment ?

A

Weight and waist circumference
Blood pressure and pulse rate
Bloods, including HbA1c, lipid profile and prolactin
ECG

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54
Q

WHat are 5 side effects of antipsychotic drugs?

A

Weight gain
Diabetes
Prolonged QT interval
Raised prolactin
Extrapyramidal symptoms

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55
Q

What are some extrapyramidal side-effects of antipsychotic drugs?

A

Akathisia (psychomotor restlessness, with an inability to stay still)
Dystonia (abnormal muscle tone, leading to abnormal postures)
Pseudo-parkinsonism (tremor and rigidity, similar to Parkinson’s disease)
Tardive dyskinesia (abnormal movements, particularly affecting the face)

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56
Q

What is an illusion?

A

False perception of real, existing sensory stimulus

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57
Q

What is a hallucination?

A

False sensory experience when there is no stimulus present, can be visual, auditory, olfactory, tactile or gustatory

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58
Q

What is a delusion?

A

A false belief that is firmly held despite contradictory evidence.

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59
Q

What is an overvalued idea?

A

An unreasonable and sustained belief that is maintained with less than delusional intensity (i.e. the person is able to acknowledge the possibility that the belief may or may not be true)

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60
Q

What is thought alienation?

A

A symptom of psychosis which occurs when someone feels that their thoughts are no longer under their control. Can include thought insertion, broadcasting, withdrawal

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61
Q

What is thought insertion?

A

When a person feels that thoughts are being spoken to them or are occurring outside of their mind, but they recognize that they are the one thinking them

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62
Q

What is thought withdrawal?

A

When a person feels that their thoughts have been taken out of their mind and they have no power over this.

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63
Q

What is thought broadcast?

A

A type of thought alienation where the person believes that others are able to read their thoughts.

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64
Q

What is thought echo?

A

A symptom of psychosis where someone hears their own thoughts being spoken aloud, shortly after thinking them.

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65
Q

What is thought block?

A

A neuropsychological symptom expressing a sudden and involuntary silence within a speech, and eventually an abrupt switch to another topic.

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66
Q

What is concrete thinking?

A

Reasoning which is based on what you can see, hear, feel and experience in the here and now. Also called literal thinking, because it focuses on physical objects, immediate experiences and exact interpretations.

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67
Q

What is loosening of association?

A

Also known as derailment.
A thought process disorder which is characterised by a lack of connection between ideas. Speech is vague and confusing.

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68
Q

What is circumstantiality? How is it different to tangentiality?

A

Circumstantiality is circuitous and non-direct thinking or speech that digresses from the main point of a conversation but is still linked to the topic.

Whereas tangentiality is where the person strays very far from the main point they’re trying to make and don’t reach a main point or answer questions.

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69
Q

What is perseveration?

A

The repetition of a particular response (word, phrase or gesture) regardless of the absence or cessation of a stimulus.

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70
Q

What is confabulation?

A

A neuropsychiatric disorder wherein a patient generates a false memory without realising it’s not true. Sometimes called “honest lying”.

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71
Q

what is somatic passivity?

A

Experience of bodily sensations (thoughts, actions, emotions) imposed by external agency. e.g. voices commenting on one’s actions

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72
Q

What is delirium?

A

A mental state of confusion and disorientation which can develop suddenly and is often temporary

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73
Q

What is catatonia?

A

A state of apparent unresponsiveness to external stimuli and apparent inability to move normally in a person who is apparently awake.

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74
Q

What are some common behavioural responses to stimuli seen in catatonia?

A

Mutism (absence of speech)
Negativism (performing actions contrary to the commands of the examiner)
Echopraxia (repeating the movements of others)
Echolalia (repeating the words of others)
Waxy flexibility (slight, even resistance to positioning by examiner)
Withdrawal (absence of responses to the environment)

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75
Q

What is psychomotor retardation?

A

The slowing down or hampering of mental or physical activities

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76
Q

What is flight of ideas?

A

A thought disorder which refers to rapid and erratic speech that jumps from one topic to another.

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77
Q

What is poverty of speech?

A

Also known as alogia, a speech disturbance which involves a reduction in the amount and quality of speech.

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78
Q

What is poverty of thought?

A

a thought disorder characterised with a reduction in thought spontaneity and productivity, and vague or repetitive speech

sometimes called intellectual impoverishment

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79
Q

What is anhedonia?

A

A symptom of many mental health conditions which refers to the inability to feel pleasure or joy

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80
Q

What is flattening of affect?

A

A clinical sign where the person has reduced or absent displays of emotion

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81
Q

What is incongruity of affect?

A

When the person’s emotional demeanor doesn’t match what’s happening around them.

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82
Q

What is blunting of affect?

A

decreased ability to express emotion through facial expressions, tone of voice and physical movements.

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83
Q

What is belle indifference?

A

A paradoxical absence of psychological distress despite a serious medical illness or symptoms of a health condition.

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84
Q

What is depersonalisation?

A

When the person feels disconnected from their body, feelings and environment

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85
Q

What is derealisation?

A

A mental state where you feel detached from your surroundings and people and objects may seem unreal.

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86
Q

What is conversion?

A

Conversion is a defense mechanism by which individuals reduce acute anxiety by converting psychological suffering into physical symptoms.

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87
Q

What is dissociation?

A

A mental process where a person disconnects from their thoughts feelings, memories or sense of identities

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88
Q

What is stereotypy?

A

a seemingly purposeful, coordinated, but involuntary, repetitive, ritualistic gesture, mannerism, posture, or utterance e.g. repetitive grimacing, lip smacking etc.

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89
Q

What are mannerisms?

A

Strange or bizarre ways of carrying out normal activities

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90
Q

What is an obsession?

A

a persistent, unwanted, and intrusive thought, urge, or image that causes anxiety, distress, or unease.

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91
Q

What is a compulsion?

A

a repetitive behaviour or mental act that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession

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92
Q

What are the 3 core behaviours of ADHD?

A
  1. Hyperactivity.
  2. Inattention.
  3. Impulsivity.
    (HII)

These symptoms occur in every child from time to time but when they are persistent and impact on daily functions, more investigation is needed

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93
Q

ADHD core behaviours: give 3 signs of impulsivity.

A
  1. Blurts out answers.
  2. Interrupts.
  3. Difficulty waiting turns.
  4. When older, pregnancy and drug use.
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94
Q

ADHD core behaviours: give 3 signs of inattention.

A
  1. Easily distracted.
  2. Not listening.
  3. Mind wandering.
  4. Struggling at school.
  5. Forgetful.
  6. Organisational problems.

Does not appear to be listening when spokento directly
Makes careless mistakes
Looses important items

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95
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for ADHD? According to DSM-5 (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders)

A

ADHD definition <17 Years

6/9 inattentive symptoms and 6/9 hyperactivity/impulsivity.

Present before 12 years
Developmentally inappropriate
Several symptoms in 2 or more settings
Clear evidence symptoms interfere/reduce the quality of social/academic/occupational function
.

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96
Q

Describe the nn pharmalogical treatment for ADHD.

A
  1. Education.
  2. Parenting programmes and school support.
    Behavioural interventions, e.g. encouraging realistic expectations, positive reinforcement of desired behaviours (small immediate rewards), consistent contingency management across home and
    school, break down tasks, reduce distraction.

Implementing Routines
Evidence base for fish oils in diet
Learning support

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97
Q

What are some medicine for ADHD?

A

Methylphenidate (ritalin, concerta, Equasym)
Atomoxetine (Strattera®) A non-stimulant NE reuptake inhibitor licensed for the treatment of ADHD.

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98
Q

What are some things you need to consider/ SE of ADHD medication?

A

headache, insomnia, loss of appetite, stomach ache, dry mouth, nausea

Can stunt growth
Need to Monitor weight, height and BP
Methyphenidate is Not recommended to take during pregnancy

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99
Q

What are the 3 main features of the deficits seen in ASD?

A

They can be categorised as deficits in social interaction, communication and behaviour

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100
Q

Outline some social interaction issues often seen in those with ASD

A

NO DESIRE TO INTERACT WITH OTHERS
BEING INTERESTED IN OTHERS TO HAVE NEEDS MET
LACK OF MOTIVATION TO PLEASE OTHERS
AFFECTIONATE ON OWN TERMS

Touches inappropriately
Poor Eye contact
Plays alone
Finds it stressful to be with other people

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101
Q

Outline some communication issues often seen in those with ASD

A

Repetitive use of words or phrases
Delay, absence in language development
Lack of appropriate non-verbal communication such as smiling, eye contact, responding to others, and sharing interest
Lack of desire to communicate at all
PEDANTIC LANGUAGE, VERY LITERAL, POOR OR NO UNDERSTANDING OF IDIOMS AND JOKES

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102
Q

Outline some behavioural issues seen in Autism

A

USING TOYS AS OBJECTS
INABILITY TO PLAY OR WRITE IMAGINATIVELY
RESISTING CHANGE
PLAYING SAME GAME OVER AND OVER
OBSESSIONS/RITUALS
There may be self-stimulating movements that are used to comfort themselves, such as hand-flapping or rocking.
Extremely restricted food preferences

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103
Q

Describe the treatment for ASD.

A
  • Education and games to encourage social communication.
  • Visual aids and timetables.
  • Parenting workshops and school liaison.
    Manage Comorbidity

There are no medications available for ASD

Diagnosis should be made by a specialist in autism. This may be a paediatric psychiatrist or paediatrician with an interest in development and behaviour. A diagnosis can be made before the age of 3 years. It involves a detailed history and assessment of the child’s behaviour and communication..

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104
Q

What are some risk factors for depression?

A

Prior depression
Family Hx depression
Female
Hx abuse
Drug and alcohol use
Low socioeconomic status
Recent bereavement, stress or medical illness, traumatic life event
Co-existing medical conditions (chronic disease)

105
Q

What are the 3 key symptoms of depression?

A

Low mood
Loss of energy (anergia)
Anhedonia (loss of enjoyment of formerly pleasurable activities)

106
Q

What are some things you may find on consulation/examination/investigations for depression?

A

Carry out mental state examination
- Appearance may be normal, or evidence of self beglect. substnace abuse, tearfulllness, anxious, fidegty

Speach may be monotonic and slow - patient may appear distracted

Psychotic features - eg auditory hallucinations, loss of insight

Baseline tests for FBC and TFT may be useful for ruling out anaemia and hypothyroidism, that can lead to depression

107
Q

What is the name of the questionaire used in depression?

A

The Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (scored out of 27) is used to grade depression

– It asks patients to report over the last 2 weeks how often they have been experiencing symptoms

– Made of 9 items which is scored from 0-3

– Mild = 5-9 – Moderate = 10-14 – Moderate/Severe = 15-19 – Severe = >19

108
Q

What is the non pharmalogical measurements for mild depression?

A

Mild depression
* Watchful waiting (GP monitoring progress post diagnosis)
* Guided self-help: workbook/online course + therapy support
* Exercise
* Talking therapies - CBT, interpersonal therapy (IPT), psychodynamic psychotherapy
○ CBT:
§ Aim to help understand thoughts/behaviour + how they affect you
§ Recognises events in past but concentrates on how can change thinking/feeling/behaviour in present
§ Available on NHS for depression/mental health problems
○ IPT:
§ Focus on relationships with others and problems within them
§ E.g. issues with communication, coping with bereavement

109
Q

What is the treatment for moderate/severe depression?

A

Moderate/severe depression
* Antidepressants (SSRIs, TCAs) - continued for 6+ mths after Sx stop
* Combination therapy e.g. meds + talking therapy

SSRI - Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors eg Sertraline, paroxetine, fluoxetine, citalopram
Fluoxetine 1L in children

TCAs (Tricyclic antidepressants):
Imipramine, amitriptyline

SNRIs (Serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors):
Venlafaxine, duloxetine, Mirtazapine

110
Q

What is some treatment for very severe depression

A

Resistant depression Tx w/ combo of antidepressants +
Lithium
Atypical antipsychotic
Another antidepressant

ECT very effective in severe cases (Electroconvulsive Therapy)

111
Q

Outline what bipolar disorder consists of - what is the ICD-10 definition

A

Bipolar affective disorder - recurrent episodes of altered mood and activity

Involving upswings and downswings (hypomania/mania + depression)

Hx of 2 mood disorders, at least one:
Hypomania < 4d
Mania >7 d

112
Q

What are some things you might see in an episode of hypomania? How long do these tend to last?

A

Lasts about 4 days

Elevated mood
Increased energy, talkativeness
Poor concentration
Mild reckless behaviour (overspending)
Sociability/overfamiliarity
Increased libido/sexual disinhibition
Increased confidence
Decreased need to sleep
Change in appetite

113
Q

Types of bipolar - outline what is seen in cyclothymia -

What differentiates mania from hypomania?

A

Cyclothymia - chronic mood fluctuations over 2+ yrs, episodes of depression and hypomania (not mania). Rapid cycling, episodes only lasting few days

**presence of psychotic Sx e.g. auditory hallucinations/grandiose delusions differentiates mania from hypomania

114
Q

What are some differentials that you need to rule out in bipolar disorder?

A

Substance abuse (amphetamines, cocaine)
Endocrine disease - Cushing’s, steroid-induced psychosis
Schizophrenia
Schizoaffective disorder - Dx when affective and first rank schizophrenic Sx equally prominent
Personality disorders - emotionally unstable, histrionic
ADHD in younger people

115
Q

What are some side effects of lithium

A

L - leukocytosis
I - insipidus diabetes (nephrogenic)
T - tremors (if coarse, think toxicity)
H - hydration (easily dehydrates, need to drink lots, is renally cleared)
I - increased GI motility
U - underactive thyroid
M - metallic taste (warning of toxicity), mums beware - teratogenic

Lithium + diuretics -> dehydration

Lithium + NSAIDs -> kidney damage

& weight gain, hypothyroidism

116
Q

What are some other conditions you would want to do to rule out other causes of symptoms seen in GAD?

A

depression and obsessive compulsive disorder

Hyperthyroidism - do TFTs
Pheochromocytoma
Lung disease - excessive salbutamol use
Congestive HF - heart meds -> anxiety
Hypoglycaemia
Do Bloods, and BP

117
Q

What are some risk factors/causes of developing GAD?

A

Family Hx anxiety
Physical/emotional stress
Financial, bereavement etc
Hx physical/sexual/emotional trauma (in childhood)
Excessively pushy parents in childhood
Other anxiety disorder - coexisting depression
Chronic physical health condition
Worries about physical health
Female 2:1 Male

Environmental triggers/contributors: family relationships, friendships, bullies, school pressures, alcohol and drug use e.g. benzodiazepines

118
Q

What is the non pharmalogical management of GAD?

A

Mild anxiety can be managed with watchful waiting and advice about self-help strategies (e.g. meditation), diet, exercise and avoiding alcohol, caffeine and drugs.

Moderate to severe anxiety can be referred to CAMHS services to initiate:

Counselling
Cognitive behavioural therapy

119
Q

What are some common phobias? What causes them?

A

animals (spides, snakes, worms)
Blood/injection/injury
Situational (lifts, flying, enclosed space)
Natural environment (storms, heights, water)
Other: choking, vomiting, clowns

Amygdala, anterior cingulate cortex and insula hyperactivity involved in underlying mechanism of action

120
Q

What are the 3 types of Phobias?

A

Simple phobia Inappropriate anxiety in the presence of ≥1 object/situation, e.g. flying, enclosed spaces, spiders

Social phobia Intense/persistent fear of being scrutinized or negatively
evaluated by others leads to fear and avoidance of social situations (e.g. using a telephone, speaking in front of a group).

Agoraphobia fear of fainting and/or loss of control are
experienced in crowds, away from home, or in situations from which escape is difficult. Avoidance results in patients remaining within their
homes where they know symptoms will not occur.

121
Q

What are the general treatments for phobias?

A

For simple phobias - Treatment is only needed if symptoms are frequent, intrusive, or prevent necessary activities. Exposure therapy is effective.

For social and agoraphobia -
drug therapy SSRIs, and TCAs eg Clomipramine
Psychological therapies CBT (cognitive restructuring) +/- exposure

122
Q

Outline some neuropathology that is thought to be linked to GAD

A

Low levels of GABA, contribute to anxiety.
Been seen that frontal cortex and amygdala
undergo structural remodelling induced by the stress of maternal separation and isolation, which alters behavioural and physiological responses in adulthood.

  • Heightened amygdala activation occurs in response to disorder-relevant stimuli in post-traumatic stress disorder, social phobia and specific phobia

Basically overfiring/activation of the amygdala

123
Q

What is the pharmacological management of GAD?

A

SSRI (sertraline is first-line SSRI)
– Be careful in young people as the SSRI increases anxiety initially and can lead to suicidal thoughts
Pre-gabalin

– If acutely anxious –> Benzodiazepine (but not for > 4 weeks)

Beta blockers e.g. bisoprolol for physical Sx

124
Q

Define PTSD

A

Post traumatic stress disorder
Develop (immediately/delayed) post exposure to stressful event/threatening, catastrophic situation

125
Q

What are some common causes of PTSD?

A

Serious accident e.g. RTA
Witness of violence - school, domestic, torture, terrorist attack, rape
Combat exposure
Natural disaster
Sudden death of loved one
Multiple major life stressors

126
Q

What are the clinical feautres of PTSD? How long must they be present for?

A

Symptoms – These must be present >1 month

– Persistent intrusive thoughts and re-experiencing –> flashbacks, nightmares and intrusive images

– Autonomic hyperarousal –> persistent activation gives startle, hypervigilance, insomnia

– Avoidance –> patient avoids situations and stimuli associated with the event

– Emotional detachment –> feeling detached from people and lack of ability to experience feelings

– Higher risk of depression, substance misuse, unexplained physical symptoms

127
Q

What are some non pharmalogical managements for PTSD

A

CBT - eg education about the nature of PTSD, selfmonitoring of symptoms, anxiety management, breathing techniques

Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR): Using voluntary multi-saccadic eye movements to reduce anxiety associated with disturbing thoughts

Stress management
Hypnotherapy

128
Q

What are some pharmaogical managments for PTSD

A

SSRIs (e.g. paroxetine 20–40mg/day; sertraline 50–200mg/day) are licensed for PTSD,

It may be helpful to target specific symptoms:
* Sleep disturbance (including nightmares): may be improved by mirtazapine (45mg/day),

  • Anxiety symptoms/hyperarousal: consider use of BDZs (e.g. clonazepam 4–5mg/day), buspirone, antidepressants, propranolol.
  • Intrusive thoughts/hostility/impulsiveness: some evidence for use of carbamazepine, valproate, or lithium.
  • Psychotic symptoms/severe aggression or agitation: may warrant use of an antipsychotic (some evidence for olanzapine, risperidone etc)
129
Q

What are some primary causes of insomia?

A

Fear/anxiety about falling asleep
Change of environment (adjustment disorder) Inadequate sleep hygiene
Idiopathic insomnia (rare, lifelong inability to sleep)
Behavioural insomnia of childhood

130
Q

What are some secondary causes of insomia?

A

Sleep-related breathing disorder e.g. sleep apnoea
Circadian rhythm disorders
Shift work

REM behavioural disorder e.g. Lewy body dementia, PD

Medication conditions causing pain -> awake

Psychiatric disorders - depression (early morning waking), anxiety (early/middle insomnia)

Drugs/alcohol - steroids, antidepressants, stimulants

131
Q

What are some nonpharmacological management options for insomnia?

A

Encourage good sleep hygiene, routines
Remove noise, light, and distractions
Wind down before bed
Avoid caffeine/stimulation
Sleep restriction
Prevent naps during day to promote sleeping @ night

132
Q

What are some pharmalogical management options for insomnia?

A

Medication (once good sleep hygiene proved unsuccessful)
Z drugs 1L - zopiclone, zolpidem, zapeplon
Sedating antidepressants - mirtazepine

Melatonin

133
Q

What is paraphrenia?

A

psychotic illness characterized by delusions and hallucinations, without changes in affect (although there may be reactive anxiety), a form of
thought, or personality.

it’s the most common form of psychosis in old age - aka late-onset schizophrenia

134
Q

What are some things you’d see in paraphrenia?

A

*no evidence of dementia w/ later onset cases - no memory problems

Delusions, hallucinations - often about neighbours
Paranoid - often re. neighbours spying, taking things
can also be misidentification, hypochondraical, religious
Partition delusion - believe people/objects can go through walls
Less -ve Sx (blunting/apathy) and formal thought disorder compared to early onset

135
Q

What is the treatment steps in paraphrenia?

A

Relieve isolation and sensory deficits.
Low-dose atypical antipsychotics preferred as elderly are very sensitive
to side-effects, but non-compliance secondary to lack of insight is often
an issue.

136
Q

Broadly speaking, what is seen in a cognitive impairment?

A

Minor problems w/ cognition - mental abilities: memory, thinking
Not severe enough to interfere w/ everyday life
Mild cognitive impairment = pre-dementia condition in some people

137
Q

What are some causes of a cognitive decline, particulary in the elderly?

A

Depression, anxiety, stress
Sleep apnoea and other sleep disorders
Physical illness (constipation, infection)
Poor eyesight/hearing
Vitamin/thyroid deficiencies e.g. Vit B12
SE of medication: CCBs, anticholinergics, benzodiazepines
Drug/alcohol abuse

Uncontrolled health conditions like high BP, high cholesterol, diabetes, obesity

138
Q

What are the symptoms of cognitive decline?

A

Not severe enough to interfere w/ daily life -> not defined as dementia
(dementia Dx = 2/more of problems with: memory, reasoning, language, coordination, mood, behaviour)

Memory - forgetting recent events/repeating same question
Reasoning, planning, problem solving - struggling to think things through
Attention - v easily distracted
Language - taking longer than usual to find right word for something
Visual depth perception - struggling to interpret 3D object, judge distances, navigate stairs

139
Q

What are some investigations for a cognitive decline

A

Take a thorough, collateral history

Review of medications
MSE
Input from family/collateral Hx
Bloods/urine if suspect infection/another clinical cause

140
Q

What is the management for a cognitive impairment>

A

Prophylaxis/Mx of precipitative Sx:
Poorly controlled heart condition/diabetes/strokes -> ^ risk MCI
So control e.g. prevent high BP

Medication management of depression/anxiety
Good sleep hygiene

Preparation for the future when memory may get worse
Power of attorney etc

141
Q

What are some causes of Psychosis, that can be differentials to schizophrenia?

A

Bipolar disorder – often may present with symptoms of schizophrenia
Psychotic Depression
Alcohol hallucinations, due to withdrawal
Drugs - especially Cannabis, Cocaine, LSD, magic Mushrooms (Psilocybin)
Dopamine Agonists, like Levo Dopa in Parkinsons

Other health conditions, like
Encephalitis
Epilspeys (temporal lobe seizure,)
Dementia, and Parkinsons
B12 def,
hypoglycaemia,
Trauma
Brief Psychotic disorder – symptoms are present for less than a month, then disappear.

142
Q

What are some atypical anti psychotics, and how do they work?

A

Atypical anti-psychotics – work by blocking dopamine and serotonin:

Quetiapine
Olanzapine
Risperidone
Clozapine
Aripiprazole

Atypical are first line now (other than clozapine)

143
Q

What are some typical anti-psychotics, and how do they work?

When should they be tried?

A

Typical anti-psychotics – work by dopamine blockade (D2 receptors):
Haloperidol
Chlorpromazine

144
Q

When should you trail clozapine as an antipsychotic? What do you need to do with it?

A

If two other anti-psychotics have not been effective, then clozapine should be considered.

Second line – Clozapine – atypical antipsychotic – this is not included as a first line treatment, as requires close monitoring as it has a tendency to cause aplastic anaemia, which can be fatal. If two other anti-psychotics have not been effective, then clozapine should be considered.

CPMS – Clozepine monitoring system. A national service in the UK, that gives advice on the drug dosage to use, depeninding on the blood test results you send to them. Compulsory for anyone on clozepine. Only consultant psychiatrists can prescribe clozapine

145
Q

What checks need to be done regulary for people on antipsychotic medications?

A

ECG – as QTC prolongation can occur

Glucose and lipids – antipsychotics can lead to diabetes and metabolic syndrome

If on CLOZAPINE – regular FBCs to check for AGRANULOCYTOSIS

146
Q

What are some other side effects of antipsyhcots?

A

Diabetes/insulin resistance and dyslipidaemia
QT segment changes on ECG
Agranulocytosis – clozapine
Extra-pyramidal side effects due to the dopamine blockade -
Urinary retention
Blurred vision
Dry mouth
Weight gain
Hyperprolactinaemia (due to dopamine blockade and dopamine down regulates prolactin)

147
Q

What are some extra pyrimidial side effects of antipsycotics, and how can they be treated?

A

Acute dystonic reaction (hours)
Muscle spasm, acute torticolis, eyes rolling back

Parkinsonism (days)
Tremor, bradykinesia

Akathisia (days to weeks)
“inner restlessness, pacing and agitated, often intolerable. They literally can’t stop moving e.g. shaking legs, touching table
Massive RF for suicide in young males with schizophrenia

Tardive dyskinesia (months to years)
Grimacing, tounge protrusion, lipsmacking
Very difficult/impossible to treat as you’ve upregulated all the D2 receptors
These side effects are worse and more common in the older antipsychotics

Treat with Procyclidine, an anticholinergic drug

148
Q

What are some non pharmacological treatments of schizophrenia?

A

Individual CBT: normally consists of at least 16 one-on-one sessions. It helps patients create links between their thoughts, feelings and actions with their experience of schizophrenia.

Family intervention: should include the patient suffering from schizophrenia if possible as well as their main carer. Normally consists of 10 sessions over 3 months - 1 year.

Art therapies can be particularly helpful for negative symptoms.
Self-help groups and forums (e.g. Hearing Voices groups) enable people with psychosis to share experiences and ways to cope with symptoms

This should be done alongisde antipyscotic

149
Q

Outline some differential diagnosis for medically unexplainable symptoms

A

Factitious, symptoms are fabricated and not experienced as real by the patient

Somatoform disorder - Symptoms are unconsciously generated by the mind, but experienced as real by patient

Undiagnosed - symptoms are arising from a physical cause that hasn’t been identified yet

150
Q

Give the definition of personality

A

The characteristics and relatively
permanent sets of behaviours, cognitions,
and emotional patterns that evolve from
biological and environmental factors

‘Characteristic lifestyle and mode of relating
to others’ (ICD – International
Classification of Diagnosis)

151
Q

What is Charles - Bonnet Syndrome? What conditions are known to cause it

A

Complex visual hallucinations in a person with partial or severe blindness

(macular degeneration, diabetic retinopathy)

Patients understand that the hallucinations are not really and often have insight compared to other disorders

For those experiencing CBS, knowing that they have this syndrome and not a mental illness seems to be the most comforting treatment so far, as it improves their ability to cope with the hallucinations.

152
Q

Outline what is seen in Muchausens syndrome

A

This is a condition where patients will produce physical or psychological symptoms to attain a patient’s role

– Patients can feign the symptoms, exaggerate them or deliberately hurt themselves to produce symptoms

– Typically, patients take hallucinogens, inject faeces to make abscesses and contaminate urine samples.

153
Q

Outline what is seen in malingering

A

Malingering (FINANCIAL GAIN)
This is when a patient feigns or exaggerates their symptoms purely for a financial reward or other gain.

– Unlike Munchanhausen syndrome, it is not to play a patient’s role but to receive compensation, personal damages or get off work

– It is not a medical diagnosis, but can lead to a large economic burden on health care systems

154
Q

Give some other types of delusional disorders

A

Erotomanic - believe another person (often famous/important) is in love with them, may attempt to contact/stalking behaviour
Grandiose - overinflated sense self worth, power, identity, believe have talent/made important discovery
Jealous - spouse/sexual partner unfaithful without any concrete evidence
Persecutory - believe someone/something is mistreating/spying on/attempting to harm them, may repeatedly contact legal authorities
Somatic - physical issue/medical problem e.g. parasite, bad odour

155
Q

Define paranoid personality disorder and list some of its features (A)

A

unwarranted tendency to interpret the actions of others as demeaning or threatening

Thinks the world is – a conspiracy
Think people are – devious
Acts as if – always on guard, suspicious

156
Q

Define schizoid personality disorder and list some of its features (A)

A

pervasive pattern of indifference to social relationships and a restricted range of emotional experience and expression aloof

Thinks the world is – uncaring
Thinks people are – pointless, replaceable
Thinks they are the only person they can depend on
Commonest behaviour – withdrawal
Least likely to be – emotionally available and close

SchizoiD - = Distant

157
Q

deifne schizotypal personality disorder and list some of its features (A)

A

pervasive pattern of deficits in interpersonal relatedness and peculiarities of ideation, experience, appearance and behaviour

Strong desire to have relationships, unable to maintain them - poor at gauging others perception of them

SchizoTypical -

magical thinking

158
Q

What are some similarities and differences between cluster A personality disorder and schizophrenia?

A

Similarities - can have paranoia, and will experience the negative symptoms - of flat affect, and blunted emotions

indeed, maybe a genetic link between the two? ask about FH of one in relatives when taking a history for the other*

Differences - Paranoia is more intense in schizophrenia, and in schizophrenia, you have delusions, as well as positive symptoms like hallucinations and racing thoughts

159
Q

What are the personality disorders grouped together in Cluster B?

A

Bad

borderline (emotioanlly unstable)
antisocial,
histrionic
narcissist,

BAHN

160
Q

Define borderline personality disorder and list some of its features

A

Aka emotionally unstable - intense joy <–> rage
Most common type
Definition = pervasive pattern of instability of mood, interpersonal relationships and self-image

  • Self-damaging impulsivity (spending, sex,
    substance abuse, reckless driving, binge-eating)

Thinks people are – untrustworthy
Ashamed of themselves
Commonest behaviour – self-harm
Terrified of abandonment - might do extreme things to keep from leaving
Least likely to be – able to show self-compassion

Charlotte from Strike?

161
Q

Define antisocial personality disorder and list some of its features

A
  • Gross irresponsibility
  • Incapacity for maintaining relationships
  • Irritability
  • Disregard for moral values,
  • manipulative
  • Often charming
  • Low threshold for frustration and aggression
  • Incapacity for experiencing guilt
  • Deceitfulness
  • Disregard for personal safety

Have to be over 18 to get the diagnosis of this, with a history of conduct disorder
Overrepresented in the prison population

162
Q

Define histrionic personality disorder and list some of its features

A

Definition = pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking
Thinks the world is – their audience
Thinks people are – in competition for attention
Thinks they are vivacious (attractively lively and animated)
Commonest behaviour – exhibitionism
Least likely to be – able to listen to others

Few meaningful relationships, v superficial

163
Q

Define narcissistic personality disorder and list some of its features

A

pervasive pattern of grandiosity, lack of empathy and hypersensitivity to the evaluation of others
Thinks the world is – a competition
Thinks people are – inferior
Thinks they are – special
Commonest behaviour – competitiveness
Least likely to be – humble

164
Q

What personality disorders can be seen in Cluster C?

A

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (ICD), or Anankastic (DSM)
Anxious (ICD) or Avoidant (DSM)
Dependant PD

OAD

165
Q

Name some other conditions that are thought to have a genetic link with personality disorders seen in Cluster B?

A

Depression
Bipolar
Substance abuse disorder

166
Q

Define anankastic/obsessive compulsive personality disorder and list some of its features

How can it be distinguished from OCD (obsessive compulsive disorder)

A

pervasive pattern of perfectionism and inflexibility

  • Excessive doubt, caution, rigidity and stubbornness
  • Preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order
  • Perfectionism interfering with task completion
167
Q

Outline some of the management optiosn seen in helping those with personality disorders

A

Structure, consistency and clear boundaries (i.e. agreement of behaviour that is acceptable and unacceptable)

help with housing and other social
matters

Drugs are sometimes used to treat specific PD traits, e.g. mood stabilisers for impulsivity (not generally recommended because of lack of evidence).

Continuity of care very important – changes in doctors etc. may invoke strong emotional reactions

168
Q

What is some additional treatment you can give for treatment for an boarderline personality disorder?

A

Medications – mood stabilisers, sedatives during borderline PD crises

Mood stabilising medication
Topiramate
Lithium
Valproate
Lamotrigine

Adapted CBT for borderline PD

169
Q

Outline the method of action for SSRIs

A

SSRIs inhibit the reuptake of serotonin. As a result, the serotonin stays in the synaptic gap longer than it normally would, and may repeatedly stimulate the receptors of the recipient cell

170
Q

What are some side effects of SSRIs?

A

Nausea, indigestion
Worsening of sexual dysfunction
Weight gain
Suicidal thoughts in younger people
Serotonin syndrome

171
Q

What are some drugs that SSRIs interact with, that you would need to provide w PPI cover?

A

NSAIDs, Aspirin and Heparin - give a PPI cover

NB - fluoxetine and paroextine have higher risk of interaction, as particulary good at inhibiting Liver enzymes

172
Q

What are some drugs that can precipitate serotonin syndrome in people with SSRIs?

A

Linezolid
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Lithium
MDMA
Tramadol
St. John’s wort
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

NB - fluoxetine and paroextine have a higher risk of interaction, as particularly good at inhibiting Liver enzymes

173
Q

What is serotonin syndrome?

A

Serotonin syndrome (SS) is a group of symptoms that may occur with the use of certain serotonergic medications or drugs.

Diagnosis is based on a person’s symptoms and history of medication use. Other conditions that can produce similar symptoms such as neuroleptic malignant syndrome, malignant hyperthermia, anticholinergic toxicity, heat stroke, and meningitis should be ruled out

174
Q

What are some symptoms of serotonin syndrome

A

The symptoms are often present as a clinical triad of abnormalities:

Cognitive effects: headache, agitation, mental confusion, hallucinations, coma

Autonomic effects: shivering, sweating, hyperthermia, vasoconstriction, tachycardia, nausea, diarrhea.

Neuromuscular hyperactivity : myoclonus (muscle twitching), hyperreflexia (manifested by clonus), tremor.

175
Q

Outline examples of SNRIs

A

Venlafaxine
Duloxetine

176
Q

Outline some different examples of SSRIs

A

Sertraline
Citalopram
Fluoxetine

177
Q

What is the MOA of SNRIs?

A

Leads increased concentration of norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft. - Inhibits 5HT reuptake pumps and NAd transporter

At low doses, they act like an SSRI - noradrenaline changes don’t occur much at low doses

178
Q

What are some side effects of SNRIs?

A

aise BP, contraindicated in heart disease
Similar to SSRIs

Similar to SSRI = Sweating

Dose-dependant hypertension

179
Q

Outline some examples of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Amitriptyline

Imipramine

Clomipramine

Dosulepin

Higher Dose depression, lower dose - used for pain

180
Q

Give some roles of Serotonin in the brain

A

CNS
Modulates thermoregulation, behaviour and attention

PNS
Regulates GI motility, vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction, uterine contraction

Other
Promotes platelet aggregation (combined use with antiplatelet can increase bleeding risk

181
Q

Outlline the MOA of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Action on the presynaptic neurone - inhibit the uptake of monoamines at the presynaptic membrane (bind to ATPase monoamine pump)

Increase serotonin, noradrenaline

Decrease acetylcholine, histamine, sodium and calcium

182
Q

What are some side effects of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Dangerous in overdose due to It affecting sodium and calcium - very cardiotoxic
CHECK ECG IF THE PATIENT IS ON THESE
Look for
- Wide QRS - more than 3 small squares
- Sinus tachycardia

Anticholinergic side effects:
Blurred vision - pupil dilation
Urinary retention
Dry mouth
Constipation
Confusion
agitation

183
Q

When would you consider using Monoamine Oxidase inhibitors?

A

MAOIs are seldom used, and then only in treatment -
resistant depression or atypical depression old fashioned

(depression with increased sleep, increased appetite, and phobic anxiety).

Basically, in atypical depression

184
Q

How do monoamine oxidase inhibitors work?

A

MAOIs inactivate monoamine oxidase enzymes that
oxidise the monoamine neurotransmitters, such as dopamine, noradrenaline, serotonin (5 - HT), and tyramine. - more of them in the CNS

185
Q

What are some side effects of Monoamine oxidase inhibitors?
Give some examples of them

A

Can cause v. v. high BP if taken with tyramine (aged cheese, cured meats, broad beans). Tyramine reaction crisis can lead to SAH

anticholinergic side - effects, weight gain, insomnia, postural hypotension, tremor, paraesthesia of the limbs, and peripheral oedema

eg Selegiline, Phenelzine

186
Q

Define Phenomenology - how does it shape psychiatric practise?

A

the direct investigation and description of phenomena as consciously experienced by an individual, namely a patient

Pysch, emphasises that psychiatric symptoms should be diagnosed according to their form rather than according to their content.

This means, for example, that a delusion is a delusion not because it is deemed implausible by a person in a position of authority, such as a doctor, but because it
is ‘ an unshakeable belief held in the face of evidence to the contrary, and that cannot be explained by culture orreligion ’
<3 xxxx

187
Q

When would you perscribe lithium?

A

acute manic episodes and in the long-term prophylaxis of Bipolar affective disorder

Lithium should only be started if there is a clear inten
ion to continue it for at least three years, as poor complince and intermittent treatment may lead to rebound mania. The starting dose of lithium should be cautious

188
Q

Give some side effects of atypical antidepressants, like Mirtazapine

A

Drowsiness
Weight gain

189
Q

What are some side effects of lithium at lower dose?

A

Side effects - at lower doses 0.4-1 mmol/L
* Nausea
* Fine tremor
* Weight gain
* Oedema
* Polydipsia and polyuria
* Hypothyroidism

190
Q

What are some side effects of lithium toxicity? Above 1.0 mmol/L

A

Above 1.0 mmol/L
Signs of toxicity
* Vomiting
* Diarrhoea
* Coarse tremor
* Slurred speech
* Ataxia
* Drowsiness and confusion

Lithium is Teratrogenic!!

191
Q

What pyschiatric disorder could you use sodium valporate and carbamazepine, and lamotrigeine for?

A

Bipolar, prophylactically

They are Teratrogenic!!

192
Q

What are some side effects of Sodium valporatte and lamotrigine ?

A

Lamotrigine
Skin reactions (including Stevens–
Johnson syndrome)
aseptic meningitis drowsiness
diplopia
leucopenia
insomnia

Sodium valpoarate
Nausea
Gastric itrartaion
diarrhoea
Weight gain

They are Teratrogenic!!

193
Q

Name 3 broad kinds of psychological therapies

A

1 Supportive therapy

Explorative pyschotherapies=
2 Cognitive and Behavioural therapies
3 Psychodynamic therapies

194
Q

Outline what is seen in supportive therapy - for what may it be used?

A

Explanation and reassurance

establishing rapport, facilitating emotional expression, reection, reassurance

  • Non-directive problem-solving,
    e.g. for adjustment disorders, stress, bereavement
  • Mild depression or anxiety

Counselling is similar to supportive therapy
in that it involves explanation, reassurance, and support.

195
Q

Outline what is seen in CBT

A

This is a therapy with works on the interplay between thoughts, emotions and behaviours. Its aim it to tackle both negative the cognitive thinking and behaviour in mental illness.

a) Cognitive –> Aim is to help people identify and challenge automatic negative thoughts and abnormal beliefs

b) Behaviour –> This is based on learning theory of operant condition (positive and negative reinforcement)

– If people have habitual wrong behaviours (e.g. avoidance in anxiety) it teaches people relaxation techniques and gradual exposure with positive reinforcement to change their behaviour.

196
Q

For what things can CBT be used to treat?

A

CBT is used to treat depression, anxiety, eating disorders and
some personality disorders. It can also be used to treat psychosis

197
Q

Outline what is seen in psychodynamic/pyshcoanalyitc therapies

A

psychoanalysis stems from the work of Sigmund Freud.

  • views human behaviour as determined by unconscious forces derived from primitive emotional needs.

Therapy aims to resolve longstanding underlying conflicts and unconscious defence mechanisms (e.g. denial, repression).

Helping the person to become more aware of the unconscious processes which are giving rise to
symptoms or to difficult repeating patterns

Helping the person construct a narrative of their life and give meaning to symptoms

198
Q

What is the general procedure seen in Psychodynamic therapies?

e. g. Psychoanalysis + Psychodynamic Psychotherapy

A

– The patient explores their subconscious by using free association (says whatever is on their mind)

– The therapist interprets these statements to link the patient’s past experience with their current life and their relationship with the therapist. This uses 2 skills:

– Transference –> when the patient re-experiences strong emotions from early relationships with the therapist

– Counter-transference –> When the therapist experiences strong emotions towards the patient

The relationship heals!!!!!!

199
Q

Outline what is seen in
Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT)

For what can it be used?

A

Short time, cheaper pyschological treatment

– It looks at the ways an individual think and feels and the events and relationships underlying experiences.

– They key of this therapy is reflection after – therapist writes a goodbye letter and asks patient to respond - gets patients to find new nad better ways of coping with established problems

Used in ‘Personality Disorder’, Eating disorders

200
Q

What is seen in Dialetcai ldehvaiour therapy? When may it be used?

A

similar to CBT and also provides group skills training to equip the individual with alternative coping strategies

Skills such as mindfulness (bringing one’s attention back to thepresent moment), which is derived from Buddhist meditation.

Used for those with Boarderline personality disorders, eating disorders

201
Q

Outline what is seen in Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing

A

– Patients then recall the disturbing events and the emotion they felt at the time (e.g. sexual abuse and feeling powerless

– They then work together to create a positive belief about the event (“I am stronger now and so not powerless”)

– The therapist then activates both sides of your brain using Dual Activation Stimulation (DAS) by making they do eye movements usually involves the therapist directing the patients’ lateral eye movements by asking them to look first one way then the other
(saccadic eye movements)

– This allows the brain to reprocess the upsetting memories by removing the old emotion and replacing it with the more positive, empowering emotion

– This means the memory is no longer experienced as a traumatic.

202
Q

What is seen in interpersonal psychotherapy, and for what may it be used for?

A

IPT is a talking treatment that helps people with depression identify and address problems in their relationships with family, partners and friends.

The idea is that poor relationships with people in your life can leave you feeling depressed, it gets the patient to view their emotions in terms of their interpersonal network e.g. a close member may have died (causing grief)
The rest of the session then involves work on how to cope and change their views of these events and transform their relationship into a positive one

used for moderate and severe depression

IPT is usually offered for 16 to 20 sessions.

203
Q

What is ECT? For what can it be used for?

A

Electroconvulsive Therapy - uses electrodes to induce a modified cerebral seizure

Severe depression
Prolonged or severe episode of mania that has not responded to treatment
Cataonia

ECT should be used to induce fast and short-term improvement of severe symptoms after all other treatment options have failed, or when the situation is thought to be life-threatening (because of high risk of suicide or not eating and drinking).

204
Q

How is ECT thought to work?

A

This is a treatment option which uses electrodes to induce a modified cerebral seizure in the brain

– This leads to massive amounts of neurotransmitter release, hormone secretion and a transient increase in blood brain barrier permeability.

– It is used to induce fast improvement after all other treatment options have failed

205
Q

When does English Mental Health Act permit
ECT to be given?

A

Patient gives informed consent
(before every treatment)

The patient lacks capacity, and it does not conflict with
advance decision
AND
It’s an emergency, and the independent consultant has
not yet assessed (Section 62 of Mental Health Act)
OR
An Independent Consultant (appointed by Mental Health Act Commission) agrees to it

IF A PATIENT HAS CAPACITY AND REFUSES, IT CANNOT BE GIVEN

206
Q

Outline the procedure of ECT

A

Procedure:

– Patient is nil-by-mouth for 4 hours before intervention

– Patient is given short-acting anaesthetic + muscle relaxant drug

– Preoxygenation is given to increase SpO2

– A shock is delivered to the scalp either bilaterally or unilaterally

– This evokes a 20-60s seizure within the brain

207
Q

What are some contraindications for ECT

A

– Raised intracranial pressure (absolute)

– Stroke and MI (relative contraindication

208
Q

What are some side effects of ECT?

A

Patients have reported that ECT causes cognitive impairment.
Therefore cognitive function should be assessed prior to, during
and after a course of treatment. Assessment should include:
* orientation and time to reorientation after each treatment,
* new learning,
* retrograde amnesia,
* subjective memory impairment.
* dysrhythmias due to vagal stimulation,
postictal headache,
* confusion,
* retrograde and anterograde amnesia with difficulties in registration and recall that may persist for several weeks

209
Q

What is the management of serotonin syndrome?

A

IV fluids, cooling measures
Benzodiazepines
Stop offending agent
If Sx persist after stimulus removed, consider cyproheptadine (serotonin antagonist)

210
Q

What is Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Psychiatric emergency caused by excess of neuroleptic medication (aka both typical and atypical antipsychotics) or acute withdrawal from Parkinson’s medication

Cocaine and ectasy can also cause it

211
Q

Why does Neuroleptic malignant syndrome happen? What are some symptoms of it?

A

NMS results from as dopaminergic hypothalamic spinal tracts are blocked, so they can’t tonically inhibit preganglionic sympathetic neurons as usual

Occurs over hrs-days (within 10d) - gradual
Hyperpyrexia
Hyporeflexia
Fluctuating consciousness
Diffuse rigidity
Raised CK - Rhabdomyolysis can occur

212
Q

What is the management of Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

The mainstay of treatment involves stopping
the drug and supportive measures such as oxygen, IV fluids, and cooling blankets

Drugs - dantrolene and lorazepam may also be used to decrease muscle rigidity.

213
Q

What are some symptoms of opiate overdose

A

Acute presentation = drowsiness
Respiratory depression -> resp acidosis CO2 retention)
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Pinpoint pupils
Chronic = constipation

214
Q

What is the management of an opiate overdose?

A

ABCDE approach

  • Methadone (opioid agonist) or buprenorphine (opioid partial agonist) are first line; they are less euphoriant and have a
    relatively long half-life than opioids of abuse.
  • Lofexidine is sometimes used for short detoxification treatments or where abuse is mild or uncertainNaltrexone (opioid antagonist) blocks the euphoric effects and
    is occasionally used to help prevent relapse.
215
Q

What are some signs of opioid withdrawal?

A

Clinical features of withdrawals are mediated by noradrenaline overactivity:
* Dilated pupil
* Tachycardia + hypertension
* Insomnia, restlessness, anxiety, irritability,
tremor
* Abdo pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
* Watering eyes
* Muscle aches

Treatment Lofexidine

216
Q

Give some risk factors for a substance abuse disorder

A

Addiction liability - depends on:
How substance taken: orally, injection, inhaling
Rate substance crosses blood brain barrier and triggers reward pathway in brain
Time takes to feel effect of substance
Substance ability to induce tolerance ± withdrawal symptoms

Male
Aged ~ 18-25
Mental health conditions: ADHD, bipolar, depression, GAD, panic disorder, PTSD
Adverse childhood experiences: childhood abuse/neglect, witnessing domestic violence, family members with SUD

217
Q

How many g and ml is one unit of alchohol

A

One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10ml or 8g of pure alcohol

218
Q

Outline some of the physiological effects that alcholol has on the body

A
  • Alcohol increases GABA function (GABA-A receptor activation)
  • GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain - calming effect
  • Alcohol reduces glutamate function - inhibitory action at NMDA glutamate receptors
    ○ Glutamate is the major excitory neurotransmitter that is involved in brain processing such as learning and memory
    ○ Effects on glutamate lead to amnesia and sedation
219
Q

What are some signs of alchohol dependance?

A

CANT STOP
C - compulsion to drink
A - aware of harms but persists
N - neglect of other activities
T - tolerance to alcohol
S - stopping causes withdrawal
T - time preoccupied with alcohol
O - out of control use
P - persistent, futile wish to cut down

Withdrawal
Tremors
Anxiety
Nausea, vomiting
Headache
Tachycardia
Irritability, aggression
Delirium

220
Q

In both ICD - 10 and DSM - IV the first step in diagnosis is to specify the substance or class of substance - what kind of substances are commonly involved in substance abuse?

A

ICD - 10
F10 Alcohol
F11 Opioids
F12 Cannabinoids
F13 Sedatives or hypnotics
F14 Cocaine
F15 Other stimulants, including caffeine
F16 Hallucinogens
F17 Tobacco
F18 Volatile solvents
F19 Multiple drug use and other

221
Q

The second step in diagnosis is to specify the type of
disorder involved, according to the ICD 10 - what types of substance abuse disorders are there?

A

ICD - 10
.0 Acute intoxication
.1 Harmful use
.2 Dependence syndrome
.3 Withdrawal state
.4 Withdrawal state with delirium
.5 Psychotic disorder
.6 Amnesic syndrome
.7 Residual and late-onset psychotic disorder
.8 Other mental and behavioural disorders

222
Q

What are some investigations/questionaires to screen for alcohol dependency?

A

CAGE questionnaire screening
C - do you ever think about cutting down
A - do you get annoyed when others comment on drinking habit
G - ever feel guilty about drinking
E - ever drink in morning (eye-opener)

AUDIT questionnaire
Developed by WHO
Multiple choice for harmful alcohol use screen

223
Q

What are some blood tests results you would see in an alcoholic?

A

Bloods
Raised MCV
Raised ALT and AST (AST:ALT ratio above 1.5 suggests ALD)
Raised GGT
Raised ALP later in disease
Raised bilirubin in cirrhosis
Low albumin (reduced synthetic function of liver, reduced clotting factor production)
Deranged U&Es in hepatorenal syndrome

224
Q

What is the management for someone who is alcohol dependant?

A

Management – Patients are often referred to an alcohol dependence programme to help them quit.

– They can use a mixture of behavioural interventions (e.g. CBT) and pharmacological treatment

– Disulfiram –> this inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, so people feel hungover as soon as they drink alcohol (avoid in ischaemic heart disease)

– Acamprosate –> this is a weak NMDA antagonist which is used to reduce alcohol craving

225
Q

Outline the pathophysiology behind delirium tremens

A

Alcohol boosts GABA, which inhibits the brain and dampens excitatory glutamate receptors. Over time, the brain adapts, becoming more sensitive to excitatory signals.

When alcohol stops, the brain becomes overactive, causing symptoms like confusion and agitation.

226
Q

what are some symptoms of delerium tremens? What is the management?

A

Symptoms – Together they are called delirium tremens – Early on –> increased anxiety, with sweating and agitation

– After 24 hours –> Seizures with visual hallucinations

– From 48-72 hours –> Course tremors, agitation, delusions and severe visual hallucinations

Management – 1st line is benzodiazepine chlordiazepoxide

227
Q

How can we gauge the severity of alcohol withdrawal?

A

The CIWA-Ar is used to guide the pharmacological management of alcohol withdrawal.

Clinicians add up scores for all ten criteria. The total CIWA score can be used to assess the presence and severity of alcohol withdrawal:

Absent or minimal withdrawal: score 0-9
Moderate withdrawal: score 10-19
Severe withdrawal: score > 20
The total CIWA score influences the frequency at which further observations are made:

Initial score is ≥ 8: repeat hourly for 8 hours. Then if stable 2-hourly for 8 hours. Then if stable 4-hourly.
Initial score < 8: assess 48-hourly for 72 hours and if score < 8 for 72 hours, discontinue assessment.
The total CIWA score guides clinicians with regards to the need for pharmacological management of alcohol withdrawal:

Symptom-triggered regimen (not prescribed regular withdrawal medication): give PRN medication when CIWA score is ≥ 8
Fixed-dose reducing regime with PRN medication (prescribed regular withdrawal medication): give additional PRN medication if CIWA score is ≥ 15

228
Q

Define Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

A

is a neurological emergency resulting from thiamine deficiency with varied neurocognitive manifestations.

229
Q

What is Korsakoff’s Syndrome? How is it related to Wernickes?

A

Hypothalamic damage & cerebral atrophy due to thiamine
(vitamin B1) deficiency (eg in alcoholics).

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is the acute, reversible stage of the syndrome, and if left untreated it can later lead to Korsakoff syndrome, which is chronic and irreversible.

230
Q

How can chronic alcoholism lead to a thiamine deficiency?

A

It block the phosphorylation of thiamine, stopping it from being converted into its active form

Ethanol reduces gene expression of Thiamine transporter, so can stop it getting absorbed in the duodenum.

Alcoholic tend to have a poor diet, relying on alcohol for calories so will not get enough Thiamine (b1) anyway

231
Q

How can a lack of thiamine (vit B1) affect the brain?

A
  • Thiamine deficiency impairs glucose metabolism and this leads to a decrease in cellular energy.
  • The brain is particularly vulnerable to impaired glucose metabolism since it utilises so much energy.
232
Q

What is the classical triad seen in Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

1 confusion
2 ataxia (wide-based gait; fig 2)

3 ophthalmoplegia (nystagmus,
lateral rectus or conjugate gaze palsies).

233
Q

What does Wernicke - Korsakoff syndrome predominantly target? What symptoms does this cause?

A
  • Mainly targets the limbic system, causing severe memory impairment:
    • Anterograde amnesia: inability to create new memories
    • Retrograde amnesia: inability to recall previous memories.
    • Confabulation: creating stories to fill in the gaps in their memory which they believe to be true.
    • Behavioural changes
234
Q

What investigations would you do in suspected Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
  • Diagnosis is typically made based on clinical presentation
  • Bloods including LFTs: measure thiamine levels, measure blood alcohol levels, liver function may be deranged in alcoholism
  • Red cell transketolase test: rarely done, thiamine is a co-enzyme to transketolases so transketolase activity will be low
  • MRI/CT: can confirm diagnosis by showing degeneration of the mammillary bodies

Lumbar puncture to rule out other causes of the symptoms of wernickes

235
Q

What is the management for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Urgent replacement to prevent irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome (p718). Give thiamine (Pabrinex®)

Oral supplementation (100mg OD) should continue until no longer ‘at risk’, give other B vitamins as well

Correct Magnesium deficiency as well
If there is coexisting hypoglycaemia, correct it

236
Q

Why do you need to give Thiamine before you give glucose in a patient with Wernicke’s?

A

it’s important to normalise the thiamine levels first, because without thiamine pyrophosphate, most of the glucose will become lactic acid and that can lead to metabolic acidosis. (often the case in
this group of patients),

make sure thiamine is given before glucose, as Wernicke’s can be caused by glucose administration to a thiamine-deficient patient -

NOT GIVING THIAMINE AS YOU JUST THINK ITS HYPOGLYCAEMIA IS A COMMON MISTAKE DOCTORS MAKE

237
Q

What is the mangaement of alchohol withdrawal?

A

Pharmacological management of alcohol withdrawal and detoxification
* Chlordiazepoxide - benzodiazepine commonly used in the UK (long acting)
* Diazepam (long acting)
* Lorazepam (short acting) - can be considered when there is liver injury
Oxazepam (short acting)

238
Q

How do cocaine and ampethamines work?

A

These drugs block the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline (and 5-HT) increasing transmission at synapses

239
Q

What are some signs of a cocaine/amphetmanie overdose?

A

Main effect – Increased energy and concentration, euphoria and hyperactivity

Side effects:

– Cardiovascular –> Increased pulse, blood pressure, hyperthermia, can lead to aortic dissection

– Heart –> QRS widening and QT prolongation

– GI –> Reduced appetite and ischaemic colitis

– Psychological –> Insomnia, agitation and hallucinations e.g. formication (sensation of ants under the skin)

– If you take a prolonged large dose, the euphoria can turn to depression and anxiety

– Can get psychosis –> delusions, visual and auditory hallucinations

240
Q

What is the management of a cocaine overdose?

A

– IV benzodiazepines + treat complications (heart attack, aortic dissections) + antipsychotics

241
Q

What are the 5 key principles you must consider when assessing mental capacity

A

i) A person is assumed to have capacity is assumed until it is established that the person lacks it

ii) A person should not be treated as unable to decide unless all practicable steps to help them have failed

iii) A person should not be treated as unable to decide just because it is unwise

iv) Decisions made on behalf of an incapable person must be in their best interests

v) Regard should be taken to find the solution which is least restrictive of the person’s rights and freedom of action

242
Q

Under the MCA, what are the 3 reasons why you may provide treatment for someone who does not have capacity?

A

– If a valid advanced decision to refuse treatment exists

– If a valid Lasting Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare exists

– If neither exists, the person providing treatment should act in the patient’s best interests.

243
Q

In order to section someone (forcibly admit someone to hospital/secure setting), for assessment what is grounds/personal is required and for how long? What part of the MHA?

A

Under section 2 of the mental health act

Need 2 Drs: one section 12 approved, one ideally previous contact w/ pt, and then approval from approved mental health professional (AMHP) to confirm the section.

Patient suffering from mental disorder to degree that warrants detention in hospital for assessment

Pt should be detained for own health/safety or the protection of others

Lasts 28 days, cannot be renewed

244
Q

In order to section someone (forcibly admit someone to hospital/secure setting), for treatment what is grounds/personal is required and for how long? What part of the MHA?

A

Under section 3 of the mental health act

Again, Need 2 Drs: one section 12 approved, one ideally previous contact w/ pt, and then approval from approved mental health professional (AMHP) to confirm the section.

Patient suffering from mental disorder to degree that warrants detention in hospital for treatment.
Pt should be detained for own health/safety or the protection of others
The treatment needed cannot be effectively provided unless the patient is detained.
Appropriate medical treatment is available to them.

lasts 6 months, can be renewed

245
Q

What is outlined in section 4 of the MHA?

A

Patient suffering from mental disorder to degree that warrants detention in hospital for assessment
Pt detained for own safety/safety of others
Not enough time for 2nd Dr to attend i.e. due to risk

1 Dr (does not need to be section 12 approved)

Can only last 72 hours

246
Q

What is outline in section 5 of the mental health act, both in 5(2) and 5(4)

A

For pt already admitted (to psychiatric/general hospital) but wanting to leave

section 5(4) says Nurses can detain patients in hospital (this is their holding power until a Dr can attend,) for 6 hours

Section 5(2) says Doctors (this is their holding power until section 2/3 can be put in place)
NB - has to be Dr on a specific ward, cannot be done in A&E, for 72 hours

247
Q

What is outlined in section 135 of the mental health out

A

135 - allows police to enter house and mreove a patient to a place of safety

136 allows police to take someone to a place of safety for an assessment

Both can be done by a police, but the should try and confirm this with a doctor or nurse
Both for a duration of 72 hours

248
Q

If a patient has been detained under section 2,3,35,36 or 37, is consent required for treatment

A

Consent to Treatment
As a general rule, once a patient is detained under S2, 3, 35, 36 or 37 of the MHA, consent is not required for the administration of psychiatric treatment.

– The justification for treatment is provided by S63 which states that:

“The consent of a patient shall not be required for any medical treatment given to him for the mental disorder from which he is suffering”

Treatments are Covered by S63

All medical treatment for the mental disorder, including:

Treatments for the disorder itself (e.g. antipsychotics for schizophrenia)
Treatments for conditions causing the disorder (e.g. hypothyroidism causing depression)
Treatments for the physical consequences of the disorder (e.g. NG in anorexia)
Safe holds and physical control and restraint (when necessary)

249
Q

Define what self harm is - what are some reasons for it?

A

Intentional non-fatal self-inflicted harm

  • a desire to interrupt a sequence of events seen as inevitable and undesirable
  • a need for attention
  • an attempt to communicate/express themselves
  • a true wish to die

Used to express something hard to put into words, change emotional pain into physical pain, have a sense of being in control, punish themselves for feelings/experiences…

250
Q

What are some risk factors for self harm

A

Unlike completed suicide, DSH is more frequent in women,
the under-35s, lower socia l classes and the single or divorced.
* Like suicide, DSH is associated with psychiatric illness, particularly depression and personality disorder

251
Q

What are some clinical signs of self harm?

A

Cuts/scratches on arms/legs
Picking at skin
Burns
Bruising
Weight loss/weight gain
Hair loss (pulling at hair)

252
Q

When assessing self harm/suicide attempt, what are the 3 domains you should split factors into?

A

Before
During
After

253
Q

Suicide and self-harm risk assessment - what things should you try to find out about BEFORE they attempted suicide/self-harm?

A

Precipitants - specific event/build up?

Planned/impulsive?

Precautions taken against discovery? (left the house, turned off phone etc)

Alcohol/recreational drugs at time of event? - suggests more impulsive

254
Q

Suicide and self-harm risk assessment - what things should you try to find out about DURING they attempted suicide/self-harm?

A

Method (if drugs - what did they take, how much)
Was pt alone
Where was it - more remote = higher risk
What went through mind at the time
Did they think their self-harm would end their life?
What did they do straight after the self-harm?

255
Q

Suicide and self-harm risk assessment - what things should you try to find out about AFTER they attempted suicide/self-harm?

A

Did pt call anyone? Go to A&E?
Who were they found by
How they felt when help arrived
Current mood
Still feel suicidal? - would they attempt again

256
Q

What are some clinical signs of suicidal behaviour?

A

Warning signs:
* Obsessive thinking about death
* Feelings of hopelessness, worthlessness, helplessness
* Behaviours suggestive of absolute death wish:
○ Put financial affairs in order
○ Visiting people to say goodbye

in community, awareness of pts who:
Frequently, repeatedly attend
Disengaged w/ services
Prescribed several antidepressants
Heightened concern from family members

257
Q

What are some risk factors for suicide?

A

SAD PERSONS

Sex (male)
Age <19 or >45
Depression

Previous suicide attempt
Excess alcohol or substance use
Rational thinking loss
Separated or single
Organised plan
No social support
Sickness

258
Q

What are some management options for self harm?

A

A good first step is to agree with patients what their problems
are and what immediate interventions are both feasible and
acceptable to them.
* Ensure that they know who they can turn to if suicidal intent
returns (e.g. A & E).
* Crisis Resolution Team referral may be necessary if suicidal
ideation is present.
* Think about reducing access to means of suicide if possible –
for example, by encouraging patients to dispose of unneeded tablets from the home, and by prescribing antidepressants of lower
lethality (e.g. SSRIs rather than tricyclics) and in small batches.
* Consider psychological therapy and encouraging engagement
in self-help and community social and support organisations.

259
Q

what are some principles around suicide prevention?

A
  • Detect and treat psychiatric disorders.
  • Be alert to risk and respond appropriately to it.
  • Prescribe safely
  • Give urgent care at appropriate level of patients with suicide intent – refer to Crisis Resolution and Home Treatment Teams.
  • Can also admit for hospitalization (consider detention under the Mental Health Act) if patients considered unsafe outside hospital even with intensive support.

*Provide careful management of deliberate self-harm (DSH)

  • Act at the population level, tackling unemployment and reducing access to methods of self-harm.