Neurology Flashcards

(463 cards)

1
Q

What are the 3 types of primary headaches?

A
  • Migraine
  • Cluster
  • Tension-type
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2
Q

What are some causes of secondary headaches? x5

A

Meningitis
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
GCA
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Medication overuse

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3
Q

What are some red flags for headaches?

A
  • thunderclap headache (SAH)
  • seizure + new headache
  • suspected meningitis/encephalitis
  • red eye (acute glaucoma)
  • headache + new focal neurology
  • significantly altered consciousness
  • memory
  • confusion
  • coordination
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4
Q

What is a migraine?

A

An episode of recurrent throbbing headache +/- aura, often with visual changes

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5
Q

What are the main triggers for migraines? (acronym)

A

Chocolate
Hangovers
Orgasms
Cheese
Oral contraceptives
Lie-ins
Alcohol
Tumult (↑noise)
Exercise

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6
Q

What are the 3 main stages of migraines?

A

Prodrome (days before attack) - mood changes, cravings, excessive yawning

Aura (part of attack, minutes before headache onset) - visual phenomena e.g. zigzag lines

Throbbing headache (lasting 4-72hrs)

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7
Q

What is the management for migraines?

A

Acute = oral triptan (sumatriptan) or aspirin 900mg
Prophylaxis - Bb (propranolol) or Topiramate (anti-convulsant which should be avoided in women of child-bearing age) if asthmatic or TCA e.g. amitriptyline (2nd line)

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8
Q

What is the effect of lesions in the dorsal column pathway?

A

ipsilateral loss of/impaired fine touch and proprioception

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9
Q

What is the effect of lesions in the spinothalamic tract?

A

contralateral loss of/impaired pain and temperature sensation

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10
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

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11
Q

What is a myotome?

A

muscles supplied by a single spinal nerve

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12
Q

What are the tests for CN II?

A

visual acuity - snellen chart, read through a pinhole
visual fields
fundoscopy
pupillary light reflex
colour vision (Ishihara plates)

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13
Q

What are the investigations for CN III damage?

A

look for ptosis (drooping eyelid)
eye movements (MR, SR, IR, IO)
pupillary light reflex (parasympathetic)

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14
Q

What is the test for CN IV function?

A

ask patient to look medially and down

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15
Q

What is the test for the abducens nerve (CN VI)?

A

ask patient to abduct their eye
(if affected there will be medial deviation due to LR paralysis)

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16
Q

What are the tests for the trigeminal nerve (CN V)?

A

facial sensation
corneal reflex (touching the cornea–> blinking)
facial muscles - check for wasting,

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17
Q

What are the tests for the facial nerve (CN VII)?

A

taste anterior 2/3
muscles of facial expression

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18
Q

What are the tests for the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)?

A

hearing (Gross hearing test, Rinne’s test, Weber’s test)
balance, gait (Vestibular testing)
caloric test

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19
Q

What are the tests for the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)?

A

taste posterior 1/3 of tongue
gag reflex

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20
Q

What are the test for the vagus nerve (CN X)?

A

hoarseness of the voice? Unilateral vocal cord paralysis.
Difficulty swallowing?
Gag reflex: Light touch to the back of the pharynx (afferents = CN IX; efferents = CN X). Look for reflex contraction / elevation of the palate.
Unilateral lesion of X = palate and uvula deviate away from the side of the lesion (towards the normal side).

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21
Q

What are the tests for acessory nerve function? (CN XI)

A

test sternocleidomastoid (patient turns their head against resistance)
test trapezius (look for symmtery - atrophy?) - shrug shoulders

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22
Q

What is the test for the hypoglossal nerve? (CN XII)

A

tongue deviation (patient sticks out tongue - look for atrophy)

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23
Q

What are the 3 symptoms of meningism?

A

neck stiffness
photophobia
severe headache

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24
Q

What are the common bacterial causes of meningism in neonates?

A

E. coli
Group B streptococcus
Listeria monocytogenes

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25
What are the common causes of bacterial meningitis in infants?
Neisseria meningitidis Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae
26
What are the common causes of bacterial meningitis in young adults?
Neisseria meningitidis Streptococcus pneumoniae
27
What are the common causes of bacterial meningitis in the elderly?
Streptococcus pneumoniae Neisseria meningitidis Listeria monocytogenes
28
Which viruses can cause meningitis? x3
enteroviruses (e.g. coxsackievirus) herpes zoster virus varicella zoster virus
29
What is meningitis?
inflammation of the meninges
30
What are the fungal causes of meningitis?
cryptococcus, histoplasma, blastomyces
31
What are the risk factors for meningitis? x5+
extremes of age immunnocompromised non-vaccination crowding exposure to pathogens cranial anatomical defects cochlear implants sickle cell disease (due to impaired splenic function)
32
What are the key presentations of meningitis? x4
meningism (photophobia, neck stiffness, severe headache) fever altered consciousness seizures
33
What are 3 key signs of meningitis?
non-blanching rash in children (meningococcal septicaemia) Kernig sign (can't extend knee when hip is flexed without pain) Brudzinski sign (when neck is flexed, knees + hips automatically flexed)
34
What non-specific signs of meningitis can neonates present with? x5
hypotonia poor feeding lethargy hypothermia bulging fontanelle
35
What are the gold standard investigations for meningitis?
lumbar puncture + CSF analysis (sample taken from L3/4)
36
What is the management for bacterial meningitis?
ceftriaxone/cefotaxime (3rd gen. cephalosporin) + steroids (dexamethasone)
37
What is the management for viral meningitis?
none if enteroviral cause Aciclovir if cause is HSV or VZV
38
What is the management for fungal meningitis?
long course, high dose antifungals (e.g. fluconazole)
39
What CSF changes are seen in bacterial meningitis?
Increased opening pressure Cloudy yellow appearance Increased WCC (neutrophilia) Increased protein (>1g/L) Decreased glucose (<50% serum level)
40
What are the CSF changes seen in fungal meningitis?
Increased opening pressure Cloudy + fibrinous appearance Increased WCC (lymphocytosis) Increased protein (>1g/L) Decreased glucose (<50% serum level)
41
What CSF changes are seen in viral meningitis?
Normal opening pressure Clear, normal colour CSF Increased WCC (lymphocytosis) Normal protein levels Increased glucose (>60% serum level)
42
What is encephalitis?
inflammation of the cerebral cortex
43
What is it called when a patient has symptoms of encephalitis + meningism?
meningo-encephalitis
44
Which viruses can cause encephalitis? x6
Herpes simplex varicella zoster parvoviruses HIV mumps measles
45
What virus causes 95% of cases of encephalitis?
herpes simplex virus 1
46
What are the risk factors for encephalitis? x7
immunocompromised extremes of age vaccination post-infection organ transplantation animal or insect bites location (e.g. increased risk of exposure to malaria, ebola, trypanosomiasis)
47
Which part of the brain is most commonly affected by encephalitis? How does it present?
temporal lobe, presents with aphasia
48
What are the key presentations of encephalitis?
fever headache focal neurology altered cognition/consciousness focal seizures rash lethargy and fatigue
49
What are the investigations for encephalitis?
lumbar puncture + CSF analysis (viral PCR testing) MRI head (GS) EEG recording swabs HIV testing
50
What is the management for encephalitis?
IV aciclovir if HSV encephalitis suspected
51
What are the complications of encephalitis?
lasting fatigue and prolonged recovery change in mood/personality changes to memory and cognition chronic pain
52
What is a brain abscess?
a pus-filled pocket of infected material in the brain
53
What are the key presentations of brain abscesses? x8
fever headache changes to mental state focal neurological deficits grand mal seizures nausea vomiting neck stiffness
54
What symptoms are associated with rupture of a brain abscess?
suddenly worsening headache, followed by emerging signs of meningism
55
What is the definition of a stroke?
acute neurological deficit lasting more than 24hrs of cerebrovascular cause
56
What is the gold standard investigation for a brain abscess and what does it show?
CT scan - abscess appears as a radiolucent space-occupying lesion
57
What is the management for brain abscesses?
drain intracranial collection administer effective antibiotic therapy (early treatment is essential) eliminate primary source of infection
58
What are the most common bacterial causes of brain abscesses? x4
staph. aureus streptococus bacteriodes listeria spp.
59
What are some non-bacterial causes of brain abscesses?
fungi e.g. aspergillus, candida, cryptococcus protozoa e.g. toxoplasma gondii, entamoeba histolytica helminths e.g. taenia solium
60
What is the definition of stroke? (as a clinical syndrome)
Acute neurological deficit lasting more than 24hrs of cerebrovascular cause Divided into ischaemic (caused by vascular occlusion or stenosis) and haemorrhagic (caused by vascular rupture)
61
What are the causes of ischaemic stroke? x4
thrombus formation or embolus atherosclerosis shock vasculitis
62
What are the causes of haemorrhagic stroke? x3
trauma hypertension berry aneurysm rupture
63
What are the risk factors for stroke? x8(+)
CVD previous stroke or TIA atrial fibrillation carotid artery disease hypertension diabetes smoking vasculitis thrombophilia combined contraceptive pill over 55 years FHx
64
What are the key presentations for stroke?
unilateral sudden onset of: weakness of limbs facial weakness onset dysphagia visual or sensory loss headache
65
What is the FAST acronym for stroke recognition?
F-face A - arm S - speech T - time (act fast and call 999)
66
What is the ROSIER tool?
Recognition Of Stroke In the Emergency Room
67
What are the factors assessed when using the ROSIER tool for stroke recognition?
Loss of consciousness or syncope Seizure activity Asymmetric facial weakness Asymmetric arm weakness Asymmetric leg weakness Speech disturbance Visual field defect
68
What is the immediate investigative step needed to diagnose stroke in an acute setting?
Non-contrast CT head
69
What are the differential diagnoses for stroke? x3
hypoglycaemia hypertensive encephalopathy TIA
70
What is the management for ischaemic stroke?
Aspirin 300mg STAT asap within 24hrs after ischaemic confirmed Thombolysis with alteplase (started asap within 4.5hrs of stroke symptom onset) Thrombectomy (offer asap and within 6 hrs of symptom onset)
71
What is the management for haemorrhagic stroke?
IV mannitol for ↑ICP
72
What is the secondary prevention for stroke? x4
clopidogrel 75mg OS atorvastatin 80mg carotid endarterectomy or stenting in patients with carotid artery disease
73
What is the action of alteplase?
A tissue plasminogen activator which rapidly breaks down clots and can reserve stroke effects if given in time
74
What is the definition of TIA?
Transient ischaemic stroke - an episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord or retinal ischaemia without acute infarction where symptoms resolve within 24hrs.
75
What is a crescendo TIA?
2 or more strokes in one week, carries very high risk of developing into a stroke
76
What are the causes of TIAs? x3
carotid thrombo-emboli (29%) small-vessel occlusion (16%) in situ thrombosis of intracranial artery-to-artery embolism of thrombus as a result of stenosis or unstable atherosclerotic plaque (16%)
77
What are the risk factors for TIA? x9
AF valvular disease carotid stenosis congestive heart failure hypertension diabetes mellitus smoking alcohol abuse advanced age
78
What are the key presentations of TIAs? x7
sudden onset and brief duration of symptoms (<24hrs) unilateral weakness of paralysis dysphagia ataxia, vertigo or loss of balance amaurosis fugax homonymous hemianopia diplopia
79
What are the investigations for TIAs
Often clinical diagnosis blood glucose, FBC, platelets, PT, INR, lipids, electrolytes, ECG
80
What are the differential diagnoses for TIA? x4
stroke hypoglycaemia seizure complex migraine
81
What is the management for TIA
aspirin 300mg daily for 2 weeks then dual platelet therapy (aspirin and clopidogrel) for 3 weeks then clopidogrel lifelong as secondary prevention for CVD/stroke
82
What are the secondary prevention measures for stroke/CVD? x9
- BP control - Antiplatelet agents (clopidogrel/aspirin) - Anticoagulants - stop smoking - statin for high cholesterol - reduce alcohol intake - lose weight - increase physical activity - healthy diet
83
What is a subarachnoid haemorrhage?
rapidly developing signs of neurological dysfunction and/or headaches due to bleeding into the subarachnoid space
84
What are the causes of subarachnoid haemorrhage
MC: berry aneurysm rupture in the circle of willis trauma
85
What are the risk factors for subarachnoid haemorrhage? x8
hypertension smoking family history Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) alcohol /drug use Marfan Ehlers-danlos syndrome Pseudoxanthoma elasticum (connective tissue disorder) Neurofibromatosis type I
86
What are the key presentations for subarachnoid haemorrhage? x7
severe sudden onset headache Kernig sign (cant extend leg when knee is flexed) Brudzinski sign (knees automatically flex when neck is elevated) Depressed consciousness/loss of consciousness Nerve palsies CN III/VI (III - fixed dilated pupil, VI - non-specific signs of ↑ICP) neck stiffness and muscle aches eyelid, drooping, diplopia with mydriasis, orbital pain
87
What are the investigations for subarachnoid haemorrhage?
CT head (star shape bleed) If CT head is indicative --> CT angiogram If CT head is unclear --> lumbar puncture (xanthochromia)
88
What is the management for subarachnoid haemorrhage?
1st line = neurosurgery (endovascular coiling) + Nimodipine (CCB, ↓vasospasm + ↓BP)
89
What are the causes of subdural haemorrhage?
caused by rupture of a bridging vein often due to deceleration injuries also seen in abused children (e.g. shaken baby syndrome)
90
What are the risk factors for subdural haemorrhage? x6
trauma child abuse cortical atrophy (e.g. dementia) coagulopathy anticoagulant use advanced age (65+)
91
What is the pathophysiology of subdural haemorrhage?
typically result from torsional or shear forces causing disruption of bridging cortical veins emptying into dural venous sinuses
92
What are the key presentations of subdural haemorrhage?
gradual onset with latent period --> small amount of bleeding which accumulates over time + autolysis of blood --> symptoms after days/weeks/months
93
What are the symptoms of subdural haemorrhage?
nausea/vomiting headache diminished eye/verbal/motor responses confusion
94
What is the investigation for subdural haemorrhage?
NCCT head (sickle-shaped haematuria)
95
What is the management for subdural haemorrhage?
sugery: burr hole + craniotomy IV mannitol to ↓ICP
96
What is an extradural haemorrhage?
an acute haemorrhage between the dura mater and inner surface of the skull
97
What is the aetiology of extradural haemorrhage?
most commonly caused by skull trauma in the temporoparietal region, typically following a fall, assault or sporting injury can also occur secondary to vein rupture, arteriovenous abnormalities or bleeding disorders
98
What are the risk factors for extradural haemorrhage?
head trauma age 20-30yrs
99
What are the key presentations of extradural haemorrhage? x6
reduced GCS (with lucid interval intially) headaches vomiting confusion seizures pupil dilation
100
What is the gold standard investigation for extradural haemorrhage? What indicates EDH diagnosis?
NCCT (egg shaped haematoma - due to blood being contained by dura and skull)
101
What is the management for extradural haemorrhage?
Urgent surgery (craniotomy + vessel ligation) IV mannitol to ↓ICP
102
What are the differentials for extradural haemorrhage? x5
epilepsy carotid dissection carbon monoxide poisoning subdural haematoma subarachnoid haemorrhage
103
What is amaurosis fugax?
also known as retinal transient ischaemic attack = a sudden, short-term, painless loss of vision in one eye
104
What are the causes of amaurosis fugax? x4
stenosis or occlusion of internal carotid artery or central retinal artery inflammation of optic nerve or nervous system giant cell arteritis in individuals >60yrs old
105
What is multiple sclerosis?
chronic and progressive neurological disorder caused by demyelination of the myelinated neurons in the CNS
106
What are the types of MS?
Relapsing-remitting = symptoms then incomplete recovery then symptoms return Primary progressive = gradual deterioration without recovery Secondary progressive = relapsing remitting --> primary progressive (around 75% of RR cases evolve to this)
107
What are the risk factors for MS? x6
female 20-40yrs autoimmune disease FHx EBV vitamin D deficiency
108
What is the pathophysiology of MS?
Inflammation around the myelin covering nerves in the CNS and infiltration of immune cells causes damage to the myelin and affects the way the electrical signals travel along the nerves
109
What are the key presentations of MS?
optic neuritis (mc) eye movement abnormalities (double vision, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, conjugate lateral gaze disorder) focal weakness (Bell's palsy, Horner's syndrome, limb paralysis, incontinence) focal sensory symptoms (trigeminal neuralgia, numbness, paraesthesia, Lhermitte's sign) ataxia (sensory or cerebellar)
110
What are the investigations for MS?
McDonald criteria (2 attacks disseminated in time (separate events) + space (different parts of CNS affected) MRI scan (GS)
111
What is the management for MS?
acutely (during symptomatic episodes) --> IV methylprednisolone patient education prophylaxis --> B interferon (DMARDs, biologic therapies)
112
What are the most common differentials for MS?
migraine with aura hypoglycaemia hypothyroidism electrolyte abnormalities
113
What is the epidemiology of MS?
More common in women 20-40 most common age for diagnosis More common in white More common in northern latitudes Symptoms will improve in pregnancy and post-partum period
114
What is Uhthoff's phenomenon?
worsening of MS symptoms following a rise in temperature, such as a hot bath
115
What is optic neuritis?
demyelination of the optic nerve which presents with: - unilateral reduced vision - central scotoma - pain on eye movement - impaired colour vision (red)
116
What is the McDonald criteria based on ?
2 or more relapses and either: - objective evidence of two or more lesions - objective evidence of one and a reasonable history of a previous relapse 'objective evidence' = abnormality on neurological exam, MRI or visual evoked potentials
117
What is used to treat a MS relapse?
oral or IV prednisolone plasma exchange: to remove disease-causing antibodies
118
What is used for maintenance of MS?
flare ups - IV methylprednisolone DMARDs - ocrelizumab Beta-interferon - decreases the level of inflammatory cytokines Monoclonal antibodies Glatiramer acetate (immunomodulator) Fingolimod
119
What are the stroke symptoms from anterior circulation strokes?
either hemisphere: hemiparesis hemisensory loss visual field defect dominant hemisphere (usually left) language dysfunction - expressive dysphasia - receptive dysphasia - dyslexia - dysgraphia (inability to write) non-dominant hemisphere anosognosia (impaired ability to comprehend illness) - neglect of paralysed limb - denial of weakness visuospatial dysfunction - geographical agnosia - dressing apraxia - contructional apraxia
120
What are the posterior circulation symptoms of stroke?
- unsteadiness - visual disturbance - slurred speech - headache - vomiting - others e.g. memory loss, confusion
121
What percentage of strokes are ischaemic/haemorrhagic?
Ischaemic - 80% Haemorrhagic - 20%
122
What are the pathological subtypes of ischaemic strokes?
large vessel disease (50%) small vessel disease (25%) cardioembolic (20%) cryptogenic/rarities (5%)
123
What are the pathological subtypes of haemorrhagic stroke?
primary intracerebral haemorrhage subarachnoid haemorrhage
124
What are some examples of stroke mimics?
epileptic seizure space occupying lesion (subdural, tumour, arteriovenous malformation) infection metabolic (e.g. hyponatraemia/hypoglycaemia/alcohol/drugs) multiple sclerosis functional neurological disorder (FND) migraine
125
What is the TOAST classification for types of ischaemic stroke?
1) large-artery atherosclerosis 2) cardioembolism 3) small-vessel occlusion 4) stroke of other determined etiology 5) stroke of undetermined etiology
126
What is the most common cause of ischaemic strokes in under 45 yr olds?
carotid or vertebral dissection
127
What is a primary intracerebral haemorrhage (PICH)?
leakage of blood directly into brain tissue due to : - hypertension (weakens deep perforating blood vessels) - amyloidosis - arteriovenous malformation - aneurysm rupture
128
What are the causes of secondary intracerebral haemorrhages? Are they classed as strokes?
trauma warfarin bleeding into a tumour Not classed as strokes but can cause similar symptoms
129
What is the most common type of brain cancer/
High grade glioma (85% of all new cases of malignant primary brain tumour)
130
What are the red flags for brain tumour?
headache + features of raised ICP and/or focal neurology new onset focal seizure rapidly progressive focal neurology past history of other cancer
131
What is a glioblastoma multiforme?
a grade IV glioma, which is a fast-growing and aggressive brain tumour
132
What are the types of glioblastoma
multifocal - can be seen to have multiple areas of high grade cancerous formations joined together by other abnormal brain tissue (2-20% of all glioblastomas) multicentric - more than one GBM tumour that has arisen in the brain at the same time, or within a very short timeframe which have normal brain tissue between them
133
What is a primary brain tumour?
abnormal growth originating from cells within the brain (gliomas, germ cell tumours, meninigiomas)
134
Where do brain tumours commonly metastasise from?
lungs breast colorectal testicular renal cell malignant melanoma
135
What is the aetiology of brain tumours? x4
majority no cause found ionising radiation 5% family history (associated genetic syndromes (neurofibromatosis, tuberose sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease) immunosuppression
136
What are the key presentations of brain tumours? x5(+)
Wide variation depending on tumour type, grade and site Headache (woken by headache, worse in the morning, associated with N/V, exacerbated by coughing, sneezing, drowsiness) Seizures Focal neurological symptoms (symptoms specific to site in the brain e.g. loss of right arm motor function due to damage to left side motor cortex) - hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, visual field defect, dysphasia Other non-focal symptoms (personality change/behaviour, memory disturbance, confusion) Signs of ↑ICP - altered mental state, visual field defects, seizures, unilateral ptosis, 3rd and 6th nerve palsies, papilloedema (on fundoscopy)
137
How can low grade and high grade brain tumours be differentiated clinically?
low grade - typically present with seizures (can be incidental finding) high grade - rapidly progressive neurological deficit + symptoms of raised intracranial pressure
138
What are the investigations for brain tumours?
1st line - contrast CT GS - MRI other - functional MRI (shows which areas of the brain are most active)
139
What is the management for high grade brain tumours? x5
Steroids - reduce oedema Palliative care Chemotherapy - temozolamide, PCV (procarbazine, lomustine + vincristine) Radiotherapy - mainstay, radical vs palliative Surgery - biopsy or resection
140
What is the management for low grade brain tumour?
Surgery - early resection Radiotherapy and early chemotherapy
141
What is the grading for brain tumours?
1 - slow growing, non-malignant, and associated with long-term survival 2 - have cytological atypia. These tumours are slow growing but recur as higher-grade tumours 3 - have anaplasia and mitotic activity. These tumours are malignant 4 - anaplasia, mitotic activity with microvascular proliferation, and/or necrosis. These tumours reproduce rapidly and are very aggressive malignant tumours.
142
What is the action of sodium valproate in epilepsy treatment?
increases the activity of GABA which has a relaxant affect on the brain by stopping the release of excitatory neurotransmitters
143
What is status epilepticus?
medical emergency defined as seizures lasting more than 5 minute or >= 2 seizures within a 5-minute period without the person returning to normal between them
144
What is the management for status epilepticus?
ABCDE approach: - securing the airway - giving high concentration O2 - checking blood glucose levels - gaining IV access Medical treatment: - benzodiazepine 1st line, repeated after 5-10 mins if the seizure continues - 2nd line options (following 2x benzodiazepine) are IV levetiracetam, phenytoin or sodium valproate - 3rd line options are phenobarbital or general anaesthesia
145
What is epilepsy?
an umbrella term for chronic conditions where patients have a tendency to have recurrent, unprovoked epileptic seizures
146
What are seizures?
Transient episodes of abnormal electrical in the brain which cause changes in behaviour, sensation or cognitive processes
147
What are 3 types of generalised seizure?
Myoclonic jerks Absence Primary generalised tonic clonic
148
What is a focal seizure?
also known as a partial seizure, these occur in an isolated brain area and affect hearing, speech, memory and emotions - patients remain awake during simple focal seizures (focal aware seizure) but lose awareness during complex focal seizures (focal impaired awareness seizure)
149
What are the symptoms associated with focal/partial seizures? x4
these depend on the location of the abnormal activity: - deja vu - strange smells, tastes, sight or sound sensations - unusual emotions - abnormal behaviours
150
In focal seizures what lobe of the brain would be affected if a patient had limb jerking?
the frontal lobe
151
In focal seizures what lobe of the brain would be affected if a patient had paraesthesia?
the parietal lobe
152
What are examples of generalised seizures? x5
tonic-clonic, absence, myoclonic, tonic, atonic
153
What are the risk factors for epilepsy? x7
FHx CNS infection history Head trauma Prior seizure events/suspected seizure events Hx of substance use Premature birth Multiple or complicated febrile seizures
154
What are the stages of an epileptic seizure? x4
prodrome = mood changes, days before aura = minutes before, deja vu + automatisms (lip smacking, rapid blinking) - not always present (most commonly seen in temporal lobe epilepsy) ictal event = seizure post-ictal period = symptoms such as headache, confusion, ↓GCS, Todd's paralysis, dysphasia, amnesia, sore tongue (pts bite tongue during ictal phase)
155
What are the positive ictal symptoms? x7
loss of awareness memory lapse feeling confused difficulty hearing odd smells, sounds or tastes loss of muscle control changes in speech/ability to speak
156
What are examples of post-ictal symptoms? x6
confusion amnesia drowsiness hypertension headache nausea
157
What are some other common features of epileptic seizures? x5
can occur from sleep can be associated with other brain dysfunction lateral tongue bite deja vu incontinence
158
What are the investigations for epilepsy?
EEG, ECG, CT head + MRI
159
What are the criteria for epilepsy diagnosis?
1 of: - 2+ unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24hrs apart - 1 unprovoked seizure and a probability of future seizures (considered >60% risk in 10yrs) - Diagnosis of an epileptic syndrome
160
What is the management for epilepsy?
aim is to be seizure free on the minimum anti-epileptic medications 1st line = sodium valproate also lamotrigine (sv is teratogenic) ideally pts should be on monotherapy with a single anti-epileptic drug
161
What are the features of generalised tonic-clonic seizures? x8
no aura loss of consciousness tonic (muscle tensing, fall to floor) and clonic (muscle jerking) episodes typically tonic before clonic eyes open and upward gazing incontinence tongue biting post-ictal period
162
What is the 1st and 2nd line treatment for generalised seizures?
1st line: sodium valproate 2nd line: lamotrigine or carbamazepine
163
What are the characteristics of absence seizures?
typically occur in children patient becomes blank, stares into space and then abruptly returns to normal last 10-20 seconds
164
What are the characteristic features of myoclonic seizures?
sudden brief muscle contractions like a sudden jump patient normally remains awake during the episode occur in various forms of epilepsy but typically happen in children as part of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
165
What are the features of a frontal focal seizure?
Jacksonian march + Todd's palsy
166
What are the features of a temporal focal seizure?
aura, dysphagia, post-ictal period
167
what are the features of an occipital focal seizure?
vision changes
168
What are the 1st and 2nd line treatments for focal seizures?
1st: carbamazepine or lamotrigine 2nd: sodium valproate or levetiracetam
169
What is the difference between simple and complex focal seizures?
simple: no LOC, patient awake + aware, uncontrollable muscle jerking confined to one part of body complex: LOC, patient unaware, post-ictal period
170
What are the causes of seizures? (VITAMINDE)
Vascular Infection Trauma Autoimmune e.g. SLE Metabolic e,g. Hypocalcaemia Idiopathic e.g. epilepsy Neoplasms Dementia + Drugs (cocaine) Eclampsia
171
What are functional/dissociative seizures?
non-epileptic seizures which present with ictal symptoms as a result of mental processes triggered by internal or external aversive stimuli
172
What are the characteristics of functional/dissociative seizures? x7
situational duration 1-20 mins dramatic motor phenomena/prolonged atonia eyes closed ictal crying and speaking suprisingly rapid or slow post-ictal recovery history of psychiatric illlness, other somatoform disorders
173
What is syncope?
transient loss of consciousness due to cerebral hypoperfusion, characterised by a rapid onset, short duration, and spontaneous compete recovery
174
What are some potential pre-syncopal changes? x6
sweating, nausea, pallor, prolonged standing position, hyperventilation, increased heart rate
175
What are the causes of syncope? x7
neurally mediated/reflex syncope orthostatic hypotension cardiac arrhythmias structural cardiac or cardiopulmonary disease cerebrovascular substance abuse, alcohol intoxication psychogenic
176
What is the treatment for syncope?
most patients with neurally mediated syncope (NMS) just need reassurance and education about how to avoid recurrence if syncope is very frequent, unpredictable or could occur during high risk activities like driving treatments like tilt-training, isometric counterpressure manoeuvres can help for syncope with a clear cause this should be treated
177
What is essential tremor?
a rhythmic oscillatory movement of a body part, resulting from the contraction of opposing muscle groups
178
What are the characteristics of essential tremor? x6
fine tremor (low amplitude) symmetrical more prominent with voluntary movement worse when tired, stressed or after caffeine improved by alcohol absent during sleep
179
What are the differentials for essential tremor?
Parkinson's disease Multiple sclerosis Huntington's chorea Hyperthyroidism Fever Dopamine antagonists (e.g. antipsychotics)
180
What is the management for essential tremor?
There is no definitive treatment If not causing functional or psychological problems it does not require treatment Medications which may improve symptoms are: - Propanol (non-selective beta-blocker) - Primidone (barbiturate anti-epileptic)
181
What is Parkinson's disease?
progressive reduction of dopamine in the basal ganglia of the brain, leading to disorders of movement
182
What are the risk factors for Parkinson's? x3
FHx increased age male
183
What is the classic triad of features of Parkinson's?
resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia
184
What are the features of the Parkinson's tremor?
“pill rolling tremor”, asymmetrical, 4-6hz, worse at rest, improves with intentional movement
185
What are the features of rigidity with Parkinson's?
“cogwheel”, when limb is passively flexed and extended tension in the arm will be felt which gives way to movement in small increments
186
What are some other symptoms of Parkinson's? x5
Depression Sleep disturbance and insomnia Loss of the sense of smell (anosmia) Postural instability Cognitive impairment and memory problems
187
How is Parkinson's diagnosed?
clinical diagnosis based on symptoms and examination DaTSCAN (shows whether there is a loss of dopaminergic neurons in the striatum)
188
What is the management for Parkinson's?
Individual specific depending on symptoms, response to medications No cure Levodopa (synthetic dopamine) combined with peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors (stop levodopa being broken down before it reaches the brain) => co-benyldopa (levodopa + benserazide), co-careldopa (levodopa + carbidopa) COMT inhibitors - entacapone (metabolises levodopa in the body and brain, taken with levodopa + decarboxylase inhibitor) Dopamine agonists - mimic dopamine in the basal ganglia and stimulate dopamine receptors - bromocriptine, pergolide, cabergoline Monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors
189
What are is the main potential side effect of levodopa?
dyskinesia (abnormal movements associated with excessive motor activity) e.g. - dystonia (excessive muscle contraction leading to abnormal postures or exaggerated movements) - chorea (abnormal jerking/random movements) - athetosis (involuntary twisting or writhing movements, usually in the fingers, hands or feet)
190
What is Motor Neuron Disease?
Neurodegenerative disease which causes upper and lower motor neuron signs
191
What are the 4 diagnoses encompassed in MND?
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - most common progressive bulbar palsy progressive muscular atrophy primary lateral sclerosis
192
What are the risk factors for MND? x4
FHx Smoking Exposure to heavy metals and certain pesticides Age
193
What are the key presentations of MND? x7
gradual progressive weakness of the muscles throughout the body (particularly affecting the limbs, trunk, face and speech) Fatigue when exercising Clumsiness Dropping things more often Dysarthria (slurred speech) Signs of LMN disease - muscle wasting, hypotonia, fasciculations, hyporeflexia Signs of UMN: hypertonia, spasticity, hyperreflexia, plantar responses
194
What are the signs of LMN disease? x4
muscle wasting hypotonia fasciculations hyporeflexia
195
What are the signs of UMN disease? x4
hypertonia spasticity hyperreflexia plantar responses
196
What are the investigations for MND?
mainly clinical EMG (shows fibrillation potentials due to degeneration of muscle with LMN dysfunction)
197
What is the management for MND?
No cure Riluzole (antiglutaminergic) - slows progression of disease and can extend survival by a few months in ALS Non-invasive ventilation (breathing support at night) Supportive - physiotherapy, breathing support if necessary
198
What are some potential complications of MND? x3
respiratory failure, aspiration pneumonia, swallowing failure
199
What is Guillain-barre syndrome?
acute paralytic polyneuropathy affecting the peripheral nervous system
200
What is the cause of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
campylobacter jejuni + viruses; CMV, EBV, HSV
201
What are the risk factors for Guillain-Barre Syndrome? x6
undercooked poultry (risk of C. jejuni) influenza, CMV , EBV, Zika, Hep A,B,C,E surgery trauma hodgkin's lymphoma mycoplasma pneumonia
202
What is the pathophysiology of G-B syndrome?
molecular mimicry - organisms produce antigens very similar to those on schwann cells results in antibody production against schwann cell --> demyelination + acute polyneuropathy
203
What are the key presentations of G-B syndrome? x5
Ascending symmetrical muscle weakness (+paralysis) Loss of deep tendon reflexes Loss of sensation in the peripheries or neuropathic pain Autonomic involvement in around 50% Respiratory failure in 35% → must always monitor GB patients breathing
204
What are the Brighton criteria for GBS diagnosis? x7
Bilateral and flaccid limb weakness Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes in weak limbs Monophasic course and time between onset-nadir 12-28 days CSF cell count <50/ul CSF protein concentration > normal NCS findings consistent with one of the subtypes of GBS Absence of alternative diagnosis for weakness The criteria are marked from 1-4 levels of diagnostic certainty
205
What are the investigations for G-B syndrome?
Diagnosis is made using the Brighton criteria supported by investigations: - nerve conduction studies (showing reduced signal through the nerves) - lumbar puncture at L3/4 --> raised protein + normal WCC (=inflammation but no infection)
206
What is the management for G-B syndrome?
IV Ig for 5 days (1st line) Plasmapheresis Supportive care Venous thromboembolism prophylaxis Severe case + resp failure --> need intubation, ventilation and ITU admission
207
What is Wernicke's encephalopathy?
neurological emergency resulting from thiamine deficiency with varied neurocognitive manifestations typically involving mental status changes and gait and oculomotor dysfunction
208
What are the risk factors for Wernicke's encephalopathy? x5
alcohol dependence AIDS cancer and treatment with chemotherapeutic agents malnutrition Hx of GI surgery
209
What is the pathophysiology of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Acute or subacute thiamine deficiency in a susceptible person. Thiamine deficiency leads to decreased activity of thiamine-dependent enzymes which triggers a sequence of metabolic events resulting in energy compromise and ultimately neuronal death. The areas commonly affected include the medial dorsal thalamic nucleus, mammillary bodies, the periaqueductal grey matter, and the floor of the fourth ventricle.
210
What are the presentations of Wernicke's encephalopathy? x6
Ataxia Confusion Mental slowing, impaired concentration, and apathy Classic triad: ophthalmoplegia, mental status changes, gait dysfunction (present in only 10% patients)
211
What are the investigations for Wernicke's encephalopathy?
FBC (macrocytic anaemia), LFTS (deranged) Clinically diagnosed
212
What is the management for Wernicke's encephalopathy?
high dose parenteral thiamine for 5 days acutely + magnesium sulphate + multivitamins oral thiamine prophylactically
213
What is Korsakoff syndrome?
when Wernicke's left too long without treatment --> severe thiamine deficiency
214
What is Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
describes the spectrum of disease resulting from thiamine deficiency
215
What is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
most common and rapidly progressive type of muscular dystrophy (progressive generalised muscle disease) caused by the absence of dystrophin on the X-chromosome
216
What is the cause of DMD?
X-linked recessive mutated dystrophin gene
217
What is the pathophysiology of DMD?
Dystrophin is a cytoskeletal protein providing structural stability to the dystroglycan complex in cell membranes, most significantly in skeletal muscle. The absence of dystrophin results in ongoing cell membrane depolarisation due to calcium entering the cell which causes ongoing degeneration and regeneration of muscle fibres. Degeneration is faster than regeneration, and muscle fibres undergo necrosis. Muscle proteins are replaced by adipose and connective tissue, causing progressive muscle weakening.
218
What are the key presentations of DMD? x7
Imbalance of lower limb strength Lower extremity musculotendinous contractures Delayed motor milestones Calf hypertrophy Ambulation difficulty and falls Diminished muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes Normal sensation
219
What is Gower's sign for DMD?
Specific technique to stand up from a lying position where the person uses their hands and arms to 'walk' up their own body from a squatting position due to lack of thigh and hip muscle strength.
220
What are the investigations for DMD? x5
serum creatine kinase genetic testing clinical presentation electromyogram muscle biopsy
221
What are the differential diagnoses for DMD? x4
Becker muscular dystrophy Limb-gordle muscular dystrophies Emery-dreifuss muscular dystrophies Polymyositis
222
What is the management for DMD?
No curative treatment Oral steroids to slow muscle weakness progression Creatine supplements occupational therapy, physio, medical appliances surgical and medical management of complications (e.g. spinal scoliosis, heart failure)
223
What is the life expectancy of DMD patients?
25-35 yrs
224
What is Brown-Sequard syndrome?
rare neurological condition characterised by a lesion in the spinal cord which results in weakness or paralysis on one side of the body and a loss of sensation on the opposite side
225
What are the causes/risk factors for Brown-Sequard syndrome? x5
traumatic injury to spine or neck other spinal disorders (cervical spondylosis, arachnoid cyst, epidural haematoma) bacterial/viral infection (meningitis, myelitis, herpes, tuberculosis) radiation exposure MS
226
What is the pathophysiology of B-S syndrome?
caused by lateral hemi-section of the spinal cord severing the pyramidal tract (already crossed in the medulla), the uncrossed dorsal columns and the crossed spinothalamic tract
227
What is the classic presentation of B-S syndrome?
Ipsilateral loss of all sensory modalities at level of lesion Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion Ipsilateral loss of position sense and vibration below the lesion Contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation below the lesion Ipsilateral motor loss below the level of the lesion
228
What are the investigations for B-S syndrome?
MRI (GS) Myelogram + CT, blood tests, lumbar puncture
229
What are the differential diagnoses for B-S syndrome? x4
MND Progressive spinal muscular atrophy Primary lateral sclerosis Stroke
230
What is the management for B-S syndrome?
Most individuals with this syndrome will recover majority of function No specific treatment, will usually focus on underlying cause Occupational therapy, physiotherapy, medical appliances High dose steroids (methylprednisolone) Surgery Analgesia
231
What are the complications of B-S syndrome? x7
low bp spinal shock depression abdominal enlargement lung/UT infections PE paralysis
232
What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome?
inherited disease affecting the peripheral motor and sensory neurones - also known as hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy - there are various types with different genetic mutations and pathophysiology
233
What is the mutation which causes CMT syndrome?
autodominant mutation on chromosome 17;PUP 22 gene
234
What are the risk factors for CMT syndrome?
A- alcohol B- B12 deficiency C- cancer and CKD D- diabetes + drugs E - every vasculitis
235
What are the key presentations of CMT syndrome? x8
Foot drop (common peroneal palsy) Stork legs (very thin calves) Hammer toes (curled up toes) Pes cavus → high arched feet ↓Deep tendon reflexes Awkward or unusually high gait Frequent tripping or falling Decreased sensation or a loss of feeling in legs and feet
236
What are the investigations for CMT syndrome?
Clinical evaluation EEGs, motor conduction velocities, DNA bloods
237
What is the management for CMT syndrome?
No cure Supportive treatment e.g. analgesia for neuropathic pain Orthotics Physiotherapy Surgical treatment (for severe joint deformities)
238
What are the types of peripheral neuropathy? x4
motor neuropathy sensory neuropathy autonomic nerve neuropathy combination neuropathies
239
What are the causes of peripheral neuropathy? x4
demyelination (Guillain-Barre, B-12 deficiency) T2DM surgery pathology e.g. infection, endocrine, RA
240
What are the mechanisms of peripheral neuropathy? x5
demyelination axonal damage nerve compression vasanervosum infarction wallerian degeneration - nerve cut and distally die
241
What are the key presentations of peripheral neuropathy? x10
Muscle weakness Cramps Muscle twitching Loss of muscle and bone Changes in skin, hair or nails Numbness Loss of sensation or feeling in body parts Loss of balance or other functions as a side effect of the loss of feeling in the legs, arms or other body parts Emotional/sleep disturbances Loss of bladder control
242
What are the investigations for peripheral neuropathy?
bloods, spinal fluid tests, muscle strength tests, vibration detection tests GS: CT/MRI electromyography and nerve conduction studies nerve and skin biopsy
243
What is the management for peripheral neuropathies?
treat underlying condition (e.g. diabetes) analgesia
244
What is mononeuritis multiplex?
describes a clinical presentation of progressive motor and sensory deficits in the distribution of specific peripheral nerves
245
What are the causes of mononeuritis multiplex? x8 (acronym)
Wegeners AIDS/amyloidosis RA DMT2 Sarcoidosis Polyarteritis nodosa Leprosy Carcinomas
246
What are the symptoms of mononeuritis multiplex? x6
numbness tingling abnormal sensation burning pain paralysis lack of controlled movement of a body part
247
What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
symptoms caused by pressure on median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel
248
What are the risk factors for carpal tunnel syndrome? x9
Female Hypothyroidism Acromegaly Pregnancy RA Obesity Diabetes Perimenopause Repetitive strain
249
What is the pathophysiology of carpal tunnel syndrome?
Compression is the result of either swelling of the tunnel contents (e.g. tendon sheath inflammation due to repetitive strain) or narrowing of the tunnel The median nerve provides sensation to the palm and motor function to the thenar muscle responsible for thumb movements.
250
What are the key presentations of carpal tunnel syndrome? x5
gradual onset - weakness of grip + aching hand/forearm (worse at night and relieved by hanging hand over side of bed, wake + shake) - paraesthesia of hand - burning sensation - wasting of thenar eminence
251
What is the phalen test for CTS?
flex fist at wrist for 1 minute --> positive = paraesthesia + pain
252
What is the tinel test for CTS?
tapping wrist causes tingling
253
What is the gold standard test for CTS?
EMG (electromyography)
254
What is the management for CTS
Wrist splint at night + steroid injection (acutely very painful) Last resort = surgical decompression
255
What nerve palsy causes wrist drop?
nerve (roots C5-T1) Radial nerve mostly innervates extensor arm muscle so lesion causes weakness of extensor muscle --> wrist drop
256
What are the functions of the cerebellum? x5(+)
accuracy and coordination motor control and learning helps with timing and sensory acquisition helps prediction of the sensory consequences of action eye movements, speech, limb movements, fine motor skills, gait, posture, balance, cognition
257
What is ataxia?
'lack of order' describes heterogenous group of disorders affecting balance, coordination and speech
258
What are the types of ataxia?
inherited: autosomal dominant (SCA6, EA2) and recessive (Friedrich's ataxia, SPG7) acquired: toxic/metabolic (alcohol, vitamin defs, drugs), immune mediated (paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration, gluten related), infective (post-infectious), degenerative (multi-system atrophy cerebellar variant), structural (trauma, neoplastic)
259
What is Friedrich's ataxia?
Genetic, progressive, neurodegenerative movement disorder which typically presents at age 10-15 years old
260
What are the symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction? x7
dizzy - unsteady/wobbly/clumsy falls, stumbles difficulty focusing/double vision/ 'oscillopsia' (blurred, jumpy vision) slurred speech problems with swallowing tremor problems with dexterity /fine motor skills
261
What are the clinical signs of ataxia? x6
- nystagmus/jerky (saccadic) pursuit/hypo or hypermetropic saccades/optic atrophy/ptosis dysarthria - intention tremor/myoclonus - dysmetria/past pointing/dysdiadochokinaesia (difficulty performing quick/alternating movements) - heel - shin ataxia - gait/limb/truncal ataxia - decreased tone/reflexes
262
What are the levels of clinical severity of ataxia? x3
mild - mobilising independently or with one walking aid moderate - mobilising with 2 walking aids or walking frame severe - predominantly wheelchair dependent
263
Which blood tests are used in ataxia diagnosis? x4
* FBC, U&E, extended LFT’s * HbA1c, B12, folate, TSH * ESR, CRP * gluten related serology* (can only be requested in sheffield)
264
What is MRI used for in ataxia? x2
to demonstrate cerebellar atrophy and/or dysfunction to exclude cerebrovascular damage, primary tumours, hydrocephalus, demyelinating disorders, white matter disease, cerebellar dysgenesis/malformations
265
What is the bamford classification?
Criteria which differentiate the types of ischaemic stroke according to the circulation affected
266
What are the 4 types of stroke according to the Bamford classification?
TACS, PACS, POCS, Lacunar stroke
267
What are the 3 features are needed for TACS diagnosis?
- Unilateral weakness and/or sensory deficit of the face, arm and leg - Homonymous hemianopia - Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)
268
What is a TACS?
total anterior circulation stroke, which affects the areas of the cortex supplied by both the middle and anterior cerebral arteries
269
What is a PACS?
posterior anterior circulation stroke = less severe form of TACS where only part of the anterior circulation has been compromised
270
What criteria need to be present for a diagnosis of PACS?
Two of the following: Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of the face, arm and leg Homonymous hemianopia Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)
271
What is a POCS?
posterior circulation stroke = damage to the area of the brain supplied by the posterior circulation (e.g. cerebellum and brainstem)
272
What criteria need to be present for a diagnosis of POCS?
One of the following: - cranial nerve palsy and a contralateral motor/sensory deficit - bilateral motor/sensory deficit - conjugate eye movement disorder cerebellar dysfunction (e.g. vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia) - isolated homonymous hemianopia
273
What is a lacunar stroke?
subcortical stroke which occurs secondary to small vessel disease no loss of higher cerebral functions
274
What features need to be present for a lacunar stroke diagnosis? x4
pure sensory stroke pure motor stroke sensori-motor ataxic hemiparesis
275
What is the presentation of polyneuropathy?
glove and stocking loss of sensation
276
What are the causes of neuropathy? x9
30% unknown endocrine- DM, hypothyroidism inflammatory - Guillain-Barre, CIDP, SLE infective - lyme disease, HIV nutritional - Vitamin B12 def, B6 toxicity metabolic - porphyria, copper def genetic - CMT disease, Friedrich's ataxia neoplastic and paraneoplastic - MGUS, SSCA drugs - vincristine, phenytoin, amiodarone
277
What nerve palsy causes claw hand? What is the treatment?
ulnar nerve treatment = splint , simple analgesia
278
What nerve palsy causes foot drop? + what is the treatment?
peroneal nerve palsy treatment = physiotherapy, splint/brace + analgesia
279
What is Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic syndrome?
progressive muscle weakness which is a result of autoimmune attack directed against the voltage-gated calcium channels on the presynaptic membrane
280
What is the pathophysiology of LEMS?
typically occurs in patients with SCLC and is a result of antibodies produced by the immune system against voltage-gated calcium channels in SCLC cells these antibodies also target and damage voltage-gated calcium channels on the presynaptic motor nerve terminal resulting in a loss of functional voltage gated calcium channels at the motor nerve terminals
281
What are the key presentations of LEMS? x5
- proximal leg muscle weakness - affects intraocular muscle causing diplopia, levator muscles causing ptosis, oropharyngeal muscle causing - slurred speech and dysphagia - dry mouth, blurred vision, impotence, dizziness due to autonomic dysfunction - reduced DTRs
282
What is post-tetanic potentiation?
when reflexes can become temporarily normal following period of strong muscle contraction
283
What are the investigations for LEMS?
FBC, serology, CT or MRI Repetitive nerve stimulation studies Electromyography
284
What are the differential diagnoses for LEMS? x3
Acute/chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy Dermatomyositis Multiple sclerosis
285
What is the management for LEMS? x4
Amifampridine (blocks voltage gated K+ channels in the presynaptic cells) Immunosuppressants (prednisolone/azathioprine) IV immunoglobulins Plasmapheresis
286
What is myasthenia gravis?
an autoimmune condition that causes muscle weakness which progressively worsens with exercise and improves on rest
287
What is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?
In around 85% of patients with MG, acetylcholine receptor antibodies are produced by the immune system which bind to postsynaptic neuromuscular junction receptors and prevents acetylcholine from stimulating the receptor and triggering muscle contraction. As the receptors are used more during muscle activity, more of them become blocked up and so muscle weakness increases with use. The antibodies also activate the complement system leading to damage to cells at the postsynaptic membrane which worsens symptoms.
288
What are the key presentations of myasthenia gravis? x7
Extraocular muscle weakness causing double vision (diplopia) Eyelid weakness causing drooping of the eyelids (ptosis) Weakness in facial movements Difficulty with swallowing Fatigue in the jaw when chewing Slurred speech Progressive weakness with repetitive movements
289
What are the investigations for myasthenia gravis?
FVC, muscle fatigability testing (repeated blinking → ptosis, prolonged upward gazing → diplopia) Serology (ACH-R, MuSK, LRP4 antibodies) CT/MRI, edrophonium test (blocks enzymes and stops breakdown of ACh → temporarily increased ACh and relieved muscle weakness)
290
What is the management for myasthenia gravis? x4
Reversible ACh inhibitors (pyridostigmine or neostigmine) Immunosuppression (prednisolone or azathioprine) Thymectomy Monoclonal antibodies (rituximab, ecluzimab)
291
What is a myasthenic crisis?
acute worsening of symptoms which can lead to resp failure
292
What is the treatment for a myasthenic crisis?
IV immunoglobulins and plasmapheresis
293
What is huntington's disease?
autosomal dominant genetic condition that causes a progressive deterioration in the nervous system
294
What is the aetiology of huntington's disease?
trinucleotide repeat disorder involving the HTT on chromosome 4 <35 repeats --> normal 35-55 --> huntington's 60+ --> severe huntington's
295
What is a key feature of the Huntington's disease affecting genetic inheritance?
genetic anticipation which is where successive generations have more repeats resulting in earlier age of onset and increased severity of disease
296
What are the key presentations of Huntington's? x7
Typically begins with cognitive, psychiatric or mood problems (e.g. depression) Chorea (excessive limb jerking) Eye movement disorders Dysarthria Dysphagia Dementia Motor impersistence (can sustain movement)
297
What is the management for HD?
no treatment options to slow or stop the progression of the disease aim of management is to support and maintain quality of life and relieve symptoms medical: antipsychotics (olanzapine), benzodiazepines (diazepam), dopamine-depleting agents (tetrabenazine), antidepressants speech and language therapy genetic couselling palliative care
298
What is the prognosis of Huntington's?
15-20 years after symptom onset
299
What is Alzheimer's?
the most common form of dementia which progressively destroys memory and cognitive ability
300
What is vascular dementia?
dementia resulting from cerebrovascular damage and stroke
301
What are the types of vascular dementia? x3
Multi-infarct dementia → series of small strokes which together cause symptoms Subcortical dementia → small penetrating arteries affected (small vessel damage) Stroke-related dementia → 3-% of ischaemic strokes lead to this
302
What are the risk factors for dementia? x7
Vascular: smoking, diabetes, AF< dyslipidemia, hypertension, age Age Genetics FHx (10-30% increased risk with affected 1st degree relative) Trisomy 21 (early onset dementia) Gender - more common in women Cognitive reserve (social isolation, left education early
303
What is the pathophysiology of alzheimer's?
increased quantities of B-amyloid mostly in hippocampus, parietal and temporal lobes causes damage to brain tissue
304
What is the pathophysiology of vascular dementia
reduced blood flow to neurons leading to ischemia and cell death
305
What is the pathophysiology of lewy body dementia?
spherical intracellular deposits formed from a-synuclein + ubiquitin
306
What is the pathophysiology of frontotemporal dementia?
caused by mutations in TDP43 (DNA binding protein) or TAU protein (microtubule protein)
307
What are the key presentations of alzheimer's? x4
short term memory loss, difficulty finding words, poor insight, disorientation
308
What are the key presentations of vascular dementia? x2
stepwise deterioration, impaired planning, organising, and judgements which present early
309
What are the key presentations of lewy body dementia? x3
fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonian features (e.g. bradykinesia, cogwheel rigidity, falls risk, autonomic dysregulation)
310
What are the key presentations of frontal temporal dementia? x3 main variants
Behavioural variant (most common) - personality/behaviour changes early on, disinhibition/social withdrawal, pick bodies in cytoplasm Semantic variant - language difficulties - finding words, comprehension, fluent aphasia Non-fluent variant - progressive non-fluent speech
311
What are the investigations for dementia?
clinical history + physical exam, MMSE brain biopsy (GS) bloods, CT head, genetic testing
312
What is the management for dementia?
Conservative, risk reduction, slow progression ; social stimulation, exercise No cure For Alzheimer’s = Acetylcholinesterase-inhibitors (Donepezil/Rivastigmine) Vascular = hypertensives e.g. ramipril
313
What are cluster headaches?
unilateral periorbital pain with autonomic features (15-180 mins duration)
314
What are the risk factors for cluster headaches? x3
Male Smoking Genetics
315
What are the key presentations of cluster headaches? x6
Crescendo unilateral periorbital excruciating pain, may affect temples too Autonomic features of face flushing Conjunctival infection + lacrimation Ptosis Miosis Rhinorrhoea (running nose)
316
What confirms diagnosis of cluster headache?
5 ≤ similar attack
317
What is the management for cluster headaches?
Acute = triptans (sumatriptan) Prophylaxis = verapamil (CCB)
318
What are tension headaches?
bilateral generalised headaches which radiate to neck
319
What are the risk factors for tension headaches? x8
Stress Sleep deprivation Bad posture eyestrain Depression Alcohol Skipping meals dehydration
320
What are the key presentations for tension headaches?.
Rubber band, tight around head, bilateral pain, also feel it in trapezius mild -moderate severity No motion sickness, photophobia, aura
321
What is the treatment for tension headaches?
simple analgesia
322
What is trigeminal neuralgia?
Unilateral pain in 1≤ trigeminal branches (90%) 10% are bilateral
323
What are the triggers of trigeminal neuralgia? x8
eating, shaving, talking, brushing teeth, cold weather, spicy food, caffeine and citrus fruits
324
What are the risk factors for trigeminal neuralgia? x3
MS (20x more likely) Increased age Female
325
What does trigeminal neuralgia feel like?
electric shock pain lasting up to 2 mins
326
What is the management for trigeminal neuralgia?
Treatment = carbamazepine (anti-convulsant) Consider surgery if no other treatment effective (decompression or intentional damage to trigeminal nerve e.g. stereotactic radiotherapy)
327
What is cauda equina syndrome?
surgical emergency caused by compression of the nerve roots of the cauda equina
328
What are the causes of cauda equina syndrome? x5
Compression can be caused by: Herniated disc Tumours Spondylolisthesis Abscess Trauma
329
What are the risk factors for cauda equina syndrome? x8
Lumbar disc herniation Spinal trauma Spinal surgery spinal epidural abscess Anticoagulation therapy Spinal stenosis Spinal tumour Under 50yrs old
330
What are the key presentations of cauda equina syndrome? x7
Bladder dysfunction Lower limb weakness Saddle paraesthesia/anaesthesia Bowel dysfunction Lower back pain Sciatica Sexual dysfunction
331
What is the gold standard investigation for cauda equina syndrome?
Spinal MRI + testing nerve roots/reflexes
332
What is the management for cauda equina syndrome?
Emergency decompression surgery to prevent permanent neurological dysfunction
333
What are the red flags for cauda equina syndrome? x7
saddle anaesthesia, loss of sensation in bladder or rectum, urinary retention or incontinence, faecal incontinence, bilateral sciatica, bilateral or severe motor weakness in the legs , reduced anal tone on PR examination
334
What is spinal cord compression?
compression of C1-L1/2
335
What are the risk factors for spinal cord compression? x5
Cancer + metastases ≥40 years old Immune system disorders Radiation Genotype features
336
What are the key presentations of spinal cord compression? x4
progressive leg weakness with limbs signs (e.g. contralateral hyperreflexia, Babinski +ve, spasticity) back pain sensory loss below lesion sphincter involvement uncommon (late = v bad sign)
337
What is the gold standard investigation for spinal cord compression?
MRI, CXR if malignancy suspected
338
What is the management for spinal cord compression?
neurosurgery - laminectomy, microdisectomy
339
What is sciatica?
L5/S1 lesion due to spinal; IV disc herniation/prolapse non-spinal; piriformis syndrome, tumours, pregnancy
340
What is distinctive about the pain in sciatica?
the pain radiates through the buttock and back of one leg it is often described as a shooting pain, although some patients report numbness or tingling/burning sensation along the nerve path in the leg
341
What are the causes of sciatica? x3
herniated disc, sponylolisthesis, spinal stenosis
342
What are the risk factors for sciatica? x5
Age Obesity Occupation Prolonged sitting Diabetes
343
What are the investigations for sciatica?
Sciatic stretch test - can’t perform straight leg raise test without pain Spinal MRI (GS)
344
What is the management for sciatica?
Analgesia + physiotherapy Neuropathic med if symptoms persisting/worsening - amitriptyline, duloxetine Neurosurgery
345
What is raised ICP?
Increased intracranial pressure which occurs when a brain injury or other problem causes the brain to press on the skull
346
What are some potential causes of raised ICP? x8
- hydrocephalus - traumatic haematomas - tumours (glioma, meningioma) - abscess - focal oedema secondary to trauma, infarction, tumour - obstruction to major venous sinuses - diffuse brain oedema or swelling e.g. encephalitis, meningitis, SAH, near drowning - idiopathic intracranial hypertension
347
What are the symptoms of raised ICP? x9
Headache Blurred vision, pupillary changes Vomiting Confusion Hypertension Shallow breathing Changes in behaviour - slow decision making, abnormal social behaviour Weakness or mobility problems (hemiparesis) Fatigue, drowsiness
348
What is a sign of sustained high ICP?
papilledema
349
What is a late sign of raised ICP and what is the causative pathology?
fixed dilated pupil result of unopposed pressure on parasympathetic fibres on the outside of the oculomotor nerve (CNIII) leading to there being only sympathetic innervation of the iris --> pupil is constantly dilated
350
What are the investigations for raised ICP? x5
Nervous system examination GCS assessment Spinal tap (measure the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid) CT scan MRI
351
What is the treatment for raised ICP? x6
Anticonvulsants to manage seizures CSF drainage using an intraventricular catheter Head of bed elevation Analgesia and sedation (usually with propofol, etomidate or midazolam and morphine or alfentanil) Neuromuscular blockade Treat underlying cause
352
What is a serious potential complication of raised ICP?
brain herniation - when the ICP is so great that is forces brain tissue through one of the rigid intracranial barriers (tentorial notch, falx cerebri, foramen magnum)
353
What is Cushing's reflex?
Systolic hypertension with a triad of increased pulse pressure, irregular respirations and bradycardia as a result of raised ICP
354
What is a coma?
a state of profound unconsciousness caused by disease, injury or poison
355
What are the signs of coma? x6
unresponsive and unrousable closed eyes depressed brainstem reflexes (e.g. unresponsive pupils) no limb response except reflex movements no response to painful stimuli except for reflexes irregular breathing
356
How is coma assessed?
Using the Glasgow coma scale: 3 - indicates deep coma or death <8 - severe reduction in consciousness and patient unlikely to be able to maintain their airway spontaneously - require intubation and ventilation Using the AVCPU scale - unresponsive
357
What is the management for coma? x5
resuscitation with intubation and ventilation + rehydration (if needed) intravenous thiamine and glucose (for patients without clear diagnosis) trial naloxone or flumazenil treat underlying cause raised ICP may require mannitol infusion
358
What is a persistent vegetative state?
where patients have lost cognition and external awareness, but retain non-cognitive brain function and normal or near-normal sleep-wake cycle
359
What is spinal stenosis?
narrowing of the spinal canal or neural foramina producing root ischaemia and neurogenic claudication (muscle pain due to lack of oxygen which is triggered by activity and relieved by rest)
360
What are the risk factors for spinal stenosis?
Congenital narrowing of the spinal cord Hyperparathyroidism Paget's disease of bone Ankylosing spondylitis Cushing's syndrome Acromegaly
361
What is the most common cause of spinal stenosis?
degenerative arthritis of the spine
362
What are the key presentations of spinal stenosis? x5
neck pain with restricted ROM of the neck (cervical spine stenosis) gait instability loss of fine motor control of the upper limbs weakness and sensory disturbance in the upper and lower limbs urinary urge incontinence
363
What are the investigations for spinal stenosis?
lumbar spine XR lumbar spine MRI CT myelography if MRI unavailable
364
What are the differentials for spinal stenosis? x6
Cauda equina syndrome Peripheral arterial disease Spinal tumours Large central disc herniation Spondylolisthesis Lumbar spine trauma
365
What is the management for spinal stenosis?
NSAIDs, physiotherapy and epidural steroid injections Surgery - occasionally indicated for patients not responding to conservative measures however there is currently little evidence on the efficacy of surgery in treating lumbar spinal stenosis
366
What is narcolepsy?
a chronic neurological disorder in which the brain loses its normal ability to regulate the sleep-wake cycle
367
What are the 2 types of narcolepsy?
Type 1 narcolepsy involves cataplexy and patients have low levels of orexin in their CSF Type 2 does not involve cataplexy (more common, 80%)
368
What is cataplexy?
a sudden loss of voluntary muscle tone with preserved consciousness, triggered by emotion
369
What are the features of a cataplexy attack? x5
- severity can vary e.g. from barely susceptible slackening of the facial muscles, dropping of the jaw or the entire head, to weakness at the knees or collapse onto the floor - slurred speech and visual symptoms - intact hearing, awareness and consciousness - variable frequency - usually bilateral weakness
370
What are the risk factors for narcolepsy?
aged 10-30 family history traumatic brain injury certain HLA subtypes
371
What are the key presentations of narcolepsy? x5
excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS) disrupted nighttime sleep and/or vivid dreams cataplexy caused by muscle atonia hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations sleep paralysis
372
What are the investigations for narcolepsy?
polysomnography multiple sleep latency testing CSF orexin levels
373
What are the differentials in narcolepsy diagnosis?
obstructive sleep apnoea sleep deprivation automatism sleep paralysis
374
w
- good sleep hygiene - scheduled naps - central nervous system stimulants (1st line: modafinil) - antidepressants (for cataplexy) e.g. clomipramine, SSRIs, venlafaxine - sodium oxybate (potent sedative which improves nocturnal sleep quality) - support and modifications (with school/work)
375
What is shingles?
also known as herpes zoster virus, shingles is a disease which triggers a painful skin rash in a dermatomal distribution
376
What causes shingles?
human herpesvirus-3 primary infection usually occurs in childhood, producing chickenpox (varicella) after this the virus lies dormant in the sensory nervous system but is susceptible to reactivation in patients over 50 years old and is associate with immunosuppressive illness, or psychological/physical trauma
377
What are the risk factors for shingles? x3
increased age (50+) immunocompromise HIV, Hodgkin's lymphoma and bone marrow transplants
378
What are the 3 phases of shingles infection?
Pre-eruptive phase - itching, burning and paresthesia of single dermatome with flu-like symptoms but no visible rash Eruptive phase - appearance of skin lesions which form crusts over 7-10 days, accompanied by acute neuritic pain Chronic phase - postherpetic neuralgia - persistent or recurring pain lasting 30+ days after acute infection
379
What are the investigations for shingles?
usually clinical diagnosis based on typical lesions in a single dermatome PCR test, Tzanck smear
380
What are the differentials for shingles? x5
atopic eczema, eczema herpeticum, contact dermatitis, herpes simplex or impetigo
381
What is the management for shingles? x3
rash care oral acyclovir analgesia
382
What is cerebral palsy?
An umbrella term which encompasses a group of permanent movement and posture disorders which limit activity
383
What are the 4 types of cerebral palsy?
Spastic type - intermittently increased tone and pathological reflexes Athetoid - characterised by increased activity (hyperkinesia) Ataxic type - loss of orderly muscular coordination so that movements are performed with abnormal force, rhythm or accuracy Mixed - there may be a combination of several forms
384
What causes cerebral palsy?
- acquired pathology within the developing brain during the prenatal or early infant period - the impaired movement associated with CP results from centrally-mediated abnormal muscle tone which leads (most commonly) to spasticity - the main causes are prematurity, multiple gestation, and maternal infection
385
What are the antenatal risk factors for cerebral palsy? x6
preterm birth congenital malformations multiple births intrauterine infections chorioamnionitis toxic or teratogenic agents
386
What are the perinatal risk factors for cerebral palsy? x4
low birth weight neonatal encephalopathy neonatal sepsis intraventricular haemorrhage
387
388
What are the postnatal risk factors for cerebral palsy? x7
meningitis intracranial haemorrhage trauma infection hyperbilirubinaemia hypoxia seizures
389
What are the key presentations of cerebral palsy? x7
- low Apgar score 5 mins post birth - delayed developmental milestones - abnormalities of posture and movement are common throughout the different types of cerebral palsy - unusual fidgety movements or other abnormalities of movement, including asymmetry or paucity of movement - abnormalities of tone, including hypotonia, spasticity or dystonia abnormal motor development, including late head control, rolling and crawling - feeding difficulties - non motor problems such as learning disabilities, difficulties with communication, emotion and behaviour, visual impairment, pain
390
What are the investigations for cerebral palsy?
diagnosis is based on clinical examination and parental observations also: - thyroid studies - chromosomal analysis - MRI/CT
391
What are the differentials for cerebral palsy? x6
Acute poliomyelitis Becker's muscular dystrophy Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease Kugelberg-Welander spinal muscular atrophy Neonatal brachial plexus palsies Stroke motor impairment
392
What is the management for cerebral palsy?
Different for every individual Significant involvement of physios, OTs, speech therapists and recreational therapists Mobility aids, splinting Oral diazepam or baclofen in children and young people if spasticity is contributing to discomfort or pain, muscle spasms or functional disability
393
What is type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF1)?
also known as von Recklinghausen's disease genetic disorder causing lesions in the skin, nervous system and skeleton
394
What is the cause of NF1?
a defect in the gene NF1 - neurofibromin, the gene product, is a ubiquitous nervous system protein and is believed to act as a tumour suppressor - loss of neurofibromin leads to an increased risk of developing benign and malignant tumours but the effects of a mutation are very variable and can appear at any age due to a variety of mutations, differing penetration and mosaicism
395
What are the symptoms of/criteria for NF1 diagnosis?
- Cafe au lait spots - Neurofibromas - Freckling - Optic glioma - ≥2 Lisch nodules - Bone lesions - [1st degree relative with NF1] not a symptoms but a diagnostic criterion
396
What are the investigations for NF1?
Usually clinically diagnosed MRI CT/XR
397
What is the management for NF1?
no curative treatment symptomatic neurofibromas are often removed, or in some cases treated neurologically many patients have hundreds of cutaneous lesions so it is not possible or practical to removed them all genetic counselling should be given to all patients
398
What is type 2 Neurofibromatosis?
a much rarer, central form of neurofibromatosis with CNS tumours rather than skin lesions
399
What is schwannomatosis?
a recently recognised form of neurofibromatosis, characterised by multiple non-cutaneous schwannomas
400
What is Horner's syndrome?
a rare condition which results from disruption to the sympathetic nerves supplying the eye
401
What is the characteristic triad seen in Horner's syndrome?
partial ptosis (upper eyelid drooping) miosis (pupillary constriction) hemifacial anhidrosis
402
What are the central lesion causes of Horner's syndrome? (4S's)
Stroke Multiple Sclerosis Swelling Syringomyelia (cyst in the spinal cord)
403
What are the preganglionic lesion causes of Horner's syndrome? (4T's)
Tumour (Pancoast tumour) Trauma Thyroidectomy Top rib
404
What are the postganglionic lesion causes of Horner's syndrome?
Carotid aneurysm Carotid artery dissection Cavernous sinus thrombosis Cluster headache
405
What are the investigations for Horner's syndrome?
guided by suspected cause CXR CT/MRI CT angiography/carotid USS Pharmacological testing
406
What is the management for Horner's syndrome?
Horner's syndrome is a physical sign so management involves diagnosis of the underlying condition and treatment specific to diagnosis
407
What is Bell's palsy?
a condition causing sudden weakness in the muscle on one side of the face
408
What are some of the viruses which have been linked to Bell's palsy? x9
herpes simplex herpes zoster EBV cytomegalovirus infections adenoviruses rubella mumps influenza B coxsackievirus
409
What are the risk factors for Bell's palsy?
20-50 yr olds pregnancy diabetes mellitus hypertension obesity
410
What is the pathophysiology of Bell's palsy?
the nerve that controls facial muscles passes through a narrow corridor of bone on its way to the face in Bell's palsy that nerve becomes inflamed and swollen - usually related to a viral infection
411
What are the key presentations of Bell's palsy?
rapid onset unilateral facial nerve weakness generalised weakness of affected side severe cases may also present with notable loss of taste sensation (classically anterior 2/3 of tongue), intolerance of high-pitched noises, mild dysarthria lower motor neuron signs (forehead affected, unlike in UMN lesions where there is forehead sparing)
412
What are the investigations for Bell's palsy ?
usually clinically diagnosed, based on the clinical signs House-Brackmann scale is occasionally used to describe the degree of paralysis (scale 1-6, 1 is normal, 6 is total paralysis)
413
What are the differentials for Bell's palsy?
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome Guillain-barre syndrome Lyme disease
414
What is the management for Bell's palsy?
steroids - prednisolone antivirals - acyclovir eye-care - reduced eye closing can lead to dry eye and corneal damage
415
What is Bulbar palsy?
a condition caused by lesions in the motor nuclei of the medulla, so called bulbar palsy because this region of the brain is sometimes called the 'bulb' of the brainstem
416
What are the causes of Bulbar palsy? x7
MND Guillain-Barre Syndrome Polio Syringobulbia Brainstem tumours Myasthenia gravis Myotonic dystrophy
417
What are the key presentations of bulbar palsy? x8
Tremulous lips Weak and wasted tongue which fasciculates in the mouth (‘bag of worms’) Drooling Absent palatal movements Dysphonia Articulation - difficulty pronouncing r; unable to pronounce consonants as dysarthria progresses If the pathology progresses then speech becomes slurred and eventually becomes indistinct There may also be neurological deficits in the limbs - e.g. flaccid tone, weakness with fasciculations
418
What are the investigations for bulbar palsy? x5
electromagnetic articulography (EMA) electropalatography (EPG) pressure sensing EPG routine bloods, brain/brainstem imaging, electromyography
419
What is the management for Bulbar palsy?
treatment is directed to underlying cause postural changes can help with drooling of saliva and may prevent aspiration supportive measures support from SALT and dieticians
420
What is radiculopathy?
a clinical condition involving one or more nerves resulting in impaired function (neuropathy)
421
What are the causes of radiculopathies? x6
degenerative disc disease osteoarthritis facet joint degeneration/hypertrophy ligamentous hypertrophy certain injuries e.g. car accident trauma less common causes include injury by tumours and diabetes
422
What are the risk factors for radiculopathy? x3
female caucasian smoking
423
What are the key presentations of radiculopathy? x3
depends on nerves affected most common symptoms; - pain - numbness - tingling
424
What is the management for radiculopathy? x5
ice or heat adjusting posture or physiotherapy OTC NSAIDs corticosteroids surgery
425
What is meniere's disease?
a disorder of the inner ear caused by a change in the fluid volume in the labyrinth
426
What are the causes of meniere's disease?
exact cause in unknown but thought to be a multifactorial and linked to: - Allergy - Autoimmunity - Genetic susceptibility - Metabolic disturbances involving the balance of sodium and potassium in the fluid of the inner ear - Vascular factors - Viral infection, otosyphilis, Cogan’s syndrome (non-syphilitic interstitial keratitis and bilateral audiovestibular deficits
427
What are the 3 core symptoms of Meniere's disease?
- vertigo - tinnitus - fluctuating hearing loss with a sensation of aural pressure
428
What is the pattern of symptoms in Meniere's disease? x4
- acute attacks typically last mins-hrs - acute episodes may occur in clusters of around 6-11 per year - remission of symptoms may last several months - most patients develop unilateral symptoms initially with bilateral symptoms sometimes developing later
429
What are some investigations for Meniere's disease? x4
bloods audiometry visual nystagmography MRI
430
What are some differentials for Meniere's disease? x6
Acoustic neuroma Otitis media Earwax Ototoxic drugs Intracranial pathology e.g. tumours, migraine Systemic illness e.g. anaemia, hypothyroidism
431
What are the aims of therapy in Meniere's disease? x4
alleviate acute attacks, reduce severity and frequency of attacks, improve hearing reduce the impact of tinnitus
432
What is are the medical managements for Meniere's disease? x4
motion sickness medications (meclizine, diazepam) antinausea medications (promethazine) diuretics (furosemide, chlorthalidone) middle ear injections (gentamicin)
433
What procedures can be used treat Menieres disease?
endolymphatic sac procedure (help with decompression) vestibular nerve section (helps to correct vertigo and maintain hearing) labyrinthectomy (removal of labyrinth)
434
What lifestyle changes/therapy input are indicated in Meniere's disease?
hearing aids vestibular rehab therapy low sodium diet avoid caffeine, alcohol
435
What is giant cell arteritis?
also known as temporal arteritis A type of systemic vasculitis affecting the medium and large arteries, there is a strong link with polymyalgia rheumatica
436
What are the key presentations of GCA?
Unilateral headache typically severe and around the temple and forehead Can be associated with: Scalp tenderness Jaw claudication Blurred or double vision Loss of vision if untreated
437
What are some other features associated with GCA? x5
Symptoms of polymyalgia rheumatica Systemic symptoms (e.g. weight loss, fatigue and low-grade fever) Muscle tenderness Carpal tunnel syndrome Peripheral oedema
438
What are the investigations for GCA?
usually clinically diagnosed Inflammatory markers Temporal artery biopsy (showing multinucleated giant cells) Duplex USS (showing the hypoechoic “halo” sign and stenosis of the temporal artery
439
What is the management for GCA?
Steroids are the main treatment and started immediately even before diagnosis is confirmed to reduce the risk of vision loss * 40-60mg prednisolone with no visual symptoms or jaw claudication * 500-1000mg methylprednisolone with visual symptoms/jaw claudication Once diagnosis is confirmed and the condition is controlled, the steroid dose is slowly weaned over 1-2 years Other medications include: - Aspirin - PPI for gastric protection on steroids - Bisphosphonates and calcium and vitamin D for bone protection on steroids
440
What are the potential complications of GCA?
Visual loss Steroid -related complications e.g. cushingoid symptoms Cerebrovascular accident e.g. stroke
441
What is myalgic encephalomyelitis?
also known as chronic fatigue syndrome A complex, chronic medical condition affecting multiple body systems and of unknown cause which has many different presentations
442
What is the aetiology of myalgic encephalomyelitis?
Underlying cause is not well understood Approximately 50-80% of people with ME start suddenly with a flu-like illness Often found after infection suggesting an immunological dysfunction Strong genetic predisposition Life stressors
443
What are the key presentations of myalgic encephalitis? x5
Debilitating fatigue Post-exertional malaise Unrefreshing sleep or sleep disturbance ‘Brain fog’ Significantly reduced ability to engage in occupational, educational, social or personal activities
444
What are some other potential symptoms of myalgic encephalitis?x7
Orthostatic intolerance and autonomic dysfunction (e.g. dizziness, palpitations, fainting…) Temperature hypersensitivity Neuromuscular symptoms Flu-like symptoms Intolerance to alcohol Heightened sensory sensitivities Pain
445
What are some differentials for myalgic encephalitis? x4
Postural tachycardia syndrome Hypothyroidism, diabetes, anaemia Metabolic muscle disorders Psychiatric illness
446
What is the management for myalgic encephalitis?
Lifestyle advice - pace yourself, rest as needed, maintain health diet, work adjustments CBT
447
What is acoustic neuroma?
a rare non-cancerous tumour which grows slowly from overproduction of schwann cells. It presses on the hearing and balance nerves in the inner ear and causes hearing loss and other auditory symptoms
448
What is a febrile seizure?
a seizure accompanied by fever (temperature >38 degrees) without CNS infection, which occurs in infants and children aged 6mo-6yrs
449
What is the difference between simple and complex febrile seizures?
simple = isolated, generalised, tonic-clonic seizures lasting <15 mins and don't recur within 24 hrs of with same febrile illness, complete recovery in 1 hr complex= 1 or more of a partial seizure, duration of 15+ mins, recurrence within 24 hrs or within same febrile illness and in complete recovery within 1 hr
450
What is diabetic neuropathy?
peripheral nerve damage as a result of diabetes mellitus most commonly resulting in pain, burning, tingling or numbness in the toes or feet and extreme sensitivity to light touch
451
What are the 4 main components of diabetic neuropathy treatment?
control of blood sugar levels lifestyle interventions, specifically diet and exercise care for the feet to prevent complications control of pain caused by neuropathy
452
What is anterior cord syndrome?
an incomplete spinal cord injury which is often related to flexion injuries of the cervical region which result in infarction of the anterior 2/3s of the cord and/or its vascular supply from the anterior spinal artery
453
What are the key presentations of anterior cord syndrome?
impairments in the pain and temperature sensations bilaterally while vibratory and proprioceptive sensations are preserved the corticospinal tracts are also likely to have been affected resulting in bilateral spastic paralysis and UMN signs
454
What is syringomyelia?
also called central cord syndrome occurs due to the development of a fluid filled cyst (a syrinx) around the spinal canal
455
What are the key presentations of syringomyelia?
- the pattern of deficit seen in patients with syringomyelia initially seems confusing as it is different from other syndromes - the upper limbs are affected first whilst the lower limbs are spared until much later - as the cervical cord is the most likely location of the lesion, there is classically said to be a "cape-like" loss of pain and temperature sensation
456
What is hydrocephalus?
abnormal build up of CSF within the brain and spinal cord, this is a result of either over-production of CSF or a problem with draining or absorbing CSF
457
Where is CSF created and absorbed?
CSF is created in the four choroid plexuses (one in each ventricle) and by the walls of the ventricles CSF is absorbed in to the venous system b the arachnoid granulations
458
How is hydrocephalus classified?
Non-communicating/obstructive - the flow of CSF is obstructed within the ventricles or between the ventricles and the subarachnoid space Communicating - there is communication between the ventricles and the subarachnoid space and the problem lies outside of the ventricular system (e.g. due to reduced absorption or blockage of the venous drainage system), may also be due to increased CSF production
459
What is normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)?
ventricular dilatation in the absence of raised CSF pressure
460
What is the classic triad of symptoms in NPH?
gait abnormality urinary incontinence dementia
461
What are the investigations for NPH?
neuroimaging large-volume lumbar puncture intraventricular pressure monitoring lumbar infusion test (intrathecal test)
462
What are the treatments for NPH?
Medical = Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide) and repeated lumbar puncture Surgical = ventriculo-peritoneal shunt insertion (1st line), ventriculo-atrial shunt is an alternative
463