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DA42 > WIZZ PASS tech test > Flashcards

WIZZ PASS tech test Flashcards

1
Q

how many destinations does Wizz air fly to

A

-970+ operated routes
- 200 airports served
- 50 countries

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2
Q

call sign Wizz Air Hungary

A

Wizz air

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3
Q

call sign Wizz Air Uk

A

Wizz go

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4
Q

callsign Wizz Air Abu Dhabi

A

Wizz Sky

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5
Q

callsign Wizz Air Malta

A

Wizz Air Malta

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6
Q

what is Wizz Airs most northern destination

A

Tromso, Norway (TOS)

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7
Q

who is the CEO of Wizz Air

A

Jozsef Varadi

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8
Q

what is the Wizz Air ICAO and IATA code

A

icao- WZZ
IATA- W6

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9
Q

when did the first flight take place and what was the destination

A

-19th May 2004
- Katowice Poland to London Luton

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10
Q

which subsidiaries does wizz air have/from which airlines is the Wizz Air Holding composed?

A
  • Wizz Air Hungary (W6/WZZ-2003) {HA}
  • Wizz Air Uk (W9/WUK-2017) {G}
  • Wizz Air Abu Dhabi (W5/WAZ-2020) {A6}
  • Wizz Air Malta (W4/WMT- 2022) {9H)
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11
Q

how many aircraft do Wizz have on order

A

placed total order 425 aircraft
- 13 A320 neo
- 297 A321NEO
-47 A321 XLR (from 2024)

*aiming for 500 aircraft on fleet within 2030

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12
Q

wizz most eastern destination

A

-Almaty Kazakhstan

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13
Q

how many bases do wizz have in Romania

A

-6: Bucharest, Cluj Napoca, Craiova, lasi, Sibiu and Timisoara

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14
Q

what engines are installed on wizz Aircraft

A
  • Pratt & Whitney GTF
  • International Aero v2500
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15
Q

When was Wizz Air listed on th London Stock Exchange

A

2015

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16
Q

how many pax did wizz transport in the last year

A

over 60 million passengers (2023)

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17
Q

what is the most southern destination of Wizz

A

Male, maldives

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18
Q

what is the most western destination of Wizz

A

Reykjavik, Iceland

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19
Q

how many bases does Wizz Air have

A
  • 34
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20
Q

when was wizz air founded

A

september 2003

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21
Q

wizz air fleet info (in service, average fleet age)

A

aircraft in service: 183
average fleet age: 4.6 years

  • A320-200 (IAEV2500): 40 in service (gradual phase out)
  • A320 neo (PW1100 GTF series): 6 in service all operated by Wizz air malta (13 in order)
  • A321-200 (IAEV2500): 41 in service
  • A321NEO (PW1100 GTF): 95 in service, 292 on order; deliveries planned until 2029
    -A321XLR: 47 in order; deliberies 2024-2028
  • A320-200F: part of Wizz Air cargo fleet, 1 in service for govt of hungary
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22
Q

where are the Wizz Air Operational and Financial headquarters

A

operational: Budapest
Financial; Geneva

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23
Q

how many bases do Wizz Air have in Poland

A

5
- Katowice
- Krakow
-Warsaw
- Gdansk
- Wroclaw

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24
Q

what are ribs for in Wings

A
  • give a wing its cambered shape
    -transmit loads from the skin and stringers to the spars
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25
Q

how many seats are there on and A321CEO

A

230 seats

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26
Q

how many seats are there on the A320

A

-180 or 189 seats depending on model

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27
Q

what can increase optimum altitude

A
  • reducing aircraft weight
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28
Q

what is a conditional ATC clearance

A
  • used to expedite flow of traffic at a busy runway or time management tool on a busy frequency

consists of:
- identification, condition, clearance and reiteration of condition

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29
Q

which index color of the Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) contains info about ATS facilities

A
  • yellow
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30
Q

what is produced by the coalescence process in the mid latitudes

A
  • only drizzle or very light rain
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31
Q

definition of ASDA

A

ASDA=TORA + Stopway

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32
Q

in case of SSR transponder failure occuring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall

A
  • inform competent ATC unit immediately
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33
Q

purpose of baffle check valves

A
  • let fuel to flow to the low inboard sections but stop it flowing outboard
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34
Q

what are the different AIC colours

A

WHITE- admin matters
YELLOW- operational matters including ATS facilities and requirements
PINK- safety related topics
MAUVE- uk airspace restrictions
GREEN- Maps and Charts

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35
Q

what is the meaning of CEO and NEO on airbus

A

CEO: Current Engine Operation
NEO: New Engine Operation

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36
Q

What does the registration mark consist of and by who is it assigned

A
  • letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers
  • assigned by the state of registry
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37
Q

best visual landmarks for a VFR flight

A
  • large water reservoir
  • excessively high mast
  • high tension power line
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38
Q

definition of TODA

A

TODA= TORA + CLEARWAY

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39
Q

transponder code 7600 meaning

A
  • comms failure
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40
Q

purpose of an air traffic control ATC clearance

A
  • authorisation by ATC, for the purpose of collision prevention , for an aircraft to proceed under specified conditions within controlled airspace
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41
Q

what is the effect on the stall speed when weight is increased

A

stall speed increases

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42
Q

what factors affect stalling speed: CoG

A
  • CG: fwd cg INCREASES stalling speed because of extra lift the wings must produce
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43
Q

what factors affect stalling speed: mass

A
  • AC MASS: greater mass requires greater lifting force. STALL SPEED INCREASES
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44
Q

what factors affect stalling speed: wing loading

A
  • WING LOADING: increases the adverse pressure gradient, triggering seperation. STALL SPEED INCREASES
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45
Q

what factors affect stall speed: thrust

A
  • At high pitch angles thrust contributes to lift. STALL SPEED REDUCES
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46
Q

What factors affect stall speed: propeller slipstream

A
  • adds to upper surface flow velocity. REDUCING STALL SPEED
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47
Q

What factors affect stall speed: wing contamination

A
  • contamination disrupts and slows the boundary layer. STALLING SPEED INCREASES
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48
Q

What factors affect stall speed: Sweep angle

A

airflow is not perpendicular to the wing; STALLING SPEED INCREASES

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49
Q

An aeronautical station wishing to put out a general call to all aircraft in its area should address the call including which content

A

“ALL STATIONS”

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50
Q

a change in direction of a radio wave due to a change in its speed is called

A

refraction

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51
Q

purpose of hydraulic thermal relief valves

A
  • relieve excess pressure caused by temperature rises
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52
Q

at night an ac observes luminous signal requesting help. to indicate that he has received the ground signals, the pilot must do what

A
  • switch landing light on and off twice
  • if not so equipped, nav lights twice
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53
Q

why are high latitude flights in polar regions subject to specific problems with the use of a gyro magnetic compass

A
  • region surrounding north magnetic pole, accurate values of magnetic variation impossible to quantify
  • in high latitudes adjacent to this area, the value of magnetic variation changes so rapidly
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54
Q

what is the correction factor for landing on a wet runway

A
  • x1.15
  • LDA shall be atleast 115% of the required
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55
Q

Straight flight, as speed increased, whilst trimming to keep stickforce 0, in which direction (downwards or upwards) are the elevator and trim tab deflected

A
  • trim tab further upwards
  • elevator deflected further downwards
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56
Q

how can the whiteout effect be defined

A
  • weather condition that can cause disorientation and low visibility in snow, overcast cloud and fog
  • defined: condition of diffuse light when no shadows are cast, due to a continuous white cloud layer appearing to merge with the white snow surface; no visible horizon; no surface irregularities
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57
Q

minimum time separation for departing LIGHT or MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft (departing same position)

A

2 minutes

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58
Q

what is the minimum time seperation for a departing LIGHT or Medium aircraft when taking off behind a heavy aircraft using
- an intermediate part of the same runway
-intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m (2500ft)

A

3 mins

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59
Q

what is the main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of warm front

A

-saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating

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60
Q

PIC is informed that extra cargo is being loaded FWD of CG. what would the trim adjustment be, FWD or AFT?

A
  • AFT: Lowering the leading edge of the stabiliser
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61
Q

How is TAT calculated

A

TAT = SAT + RAMRISE

*SAT- ambient temp outside of aircraft; measured in freeflow
*TAT= SAT with ramrise taken into account
* ramrise = compression effects and frictional effects

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62
Q

can the aircraft operators CG limitations be less or more restrictive than the manufacturers CG limitations

A
  • more restrictive
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63
Q

for propellers that rotate clockwise, which engine will be considered the critical engine

A
  • left engine
  • clockwise rotating; left engine will be critical engine because RIGHT ENGINE WILL CAUSE GREATER YAWING MOMENT
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64
Q

ac due to depart from a high airport in the tropics at 1400. airport has exceptionally long runway. what would be the most limiting factor in determining take off mass

A
  • temperature and altitude of the departure airfield
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65
Q

mountain effect, occurring for instance with NDBs , is caused by what physical phenomenon

A
  • reflection
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66
Q

what is induced drag

A
  • byproduct of lift
  • produced by the passage of a wing through air
  • greatest when max lift is being developed usually at low speeds or high angles of attack ( during takeoff or landing)
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67
Q

What is the difference between DOM and ZFM

A
  • DOM is total mass of aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding usable fuel and traffic load
  • ZFM is DOM+TRAFFIC LOAD but excluding fuel
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68
Q

what processes take place in the carburettor

A
  • the engine component where fuel and air mixing is taking place
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69
Q

what is EGT

A
  • Exhaust Gas Temperature
  • measured on the turbine stage of the engine
    -exceeding this temperature is increasing the risk of turbine blade creep
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70
Q

what is a microburst and what is windshear

A

MICROBURST- strong downdraught from the base of a CB usually 4km in diameter

WINDSHEAR- vertical or horizontal change in wind direction or windspeed over a short distance

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71
Q

when is a jet engine most effective

A
  • high altitude and high RPM speed
  • due to low density, minimum cruise airframe drag
  • best engine specific fuel consumption
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72
Q

what do you call the change of ice directly to water vapor

A

sublimation

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73
Q

what is a rhumb line and what is a great circle

A
  • RHUMB LINE: line between 2 point on the earths surface cutting all meridians at the same angle
  • GREAT CIRCLE: shortest line between two points on the surface of the earth
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74
Q

where does the weight act when and aircraft is parked on the ground

A
  • through the CofG
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75
Q

10 minutes on a meridian is equal to

A
  • 10 nm
  • 1minute= 1nm
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76
Q

what do you call the change of water vapour directly to ice

A

resublimation/deposition

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77
Q

what is the required (minimum acceptable) RFFS category for airbus A320, A321, A330

A

A320= CAT 6
A321= CAT 7
A330= CAT 8

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78
Q

What kind of weather can you expect in low pressure area and high pressure area

A
  • LOW PRESSURE: low cloud base, precipitation, mild temperature, good visibility outside precipitation
  • HIGH PRESSURE AREA: Clear skies, hazy weather, poor visibility, inversions
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79
Q

what are the phases of a reciprocating engine

A
  • induction, compression, combustion, exhaust
  • process is intermittent and takes place at constant volume
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80
Q

how does thrust reverse work on a jet engine

A
  • change of direction of the bypass flow
  • it works on the redirection of the airmass produced by the fan
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81
Q

ac experiences HDW of 40 kts making its way towards the centre of a microburst, when crossing the microburst, how many knots od windshear can be expected

A
  • 80 kts
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82
Q

in which stage of CB clouds can you expect an anvil

A

mature stage

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83
Q

in an upper weather chart, the wind is in relation to true or magnetic north?

A

wind is in relation to true north

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84
Q

what are the phases of a jet engine

A
  • same as piston engine; Induction, Compression, Combustion, Exhaust
  • but this process is continuous and takes place at constant pressure
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85
Q

who is the Master Minimum Equipment list established by and who is it accepted by

A
  • established by: manufacturer
  • accepted by: authority
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86
Q

what is net performance and gross performance

A

GROSS: average performance that a fleet of aeroplanes should achieve if satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in manual

NET PERFORMANCE: gross performance diminished to allow for contingencies ( weather, maintenance, flying techniques)

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87
Q

you have landed on a runway in bad weather conditions, alternating red and white centreline lights are visible. how much runway will you have left

A

-300M

  • WHITE- threshold to 900m of rwy end
    RED AND WHITE- 900m to 300m
    Red- last 300m of the runway
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88
Q

if you have net performance, you are clear of an obstacle by how many feet

A

35ft

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89
Q

an airmass is considered unstable when?

A
  • an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height
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90
Q

regarding the FMS, the cost index is determined by dividing which values

A

operating cost/fuel cost

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91
Q

you see yellow lights near the centreline. what does this indicate?

A
  • rapid exit taxiway
  • you see the sequence of 3 then 2 then 1, spaced 100m apart
  • if you see only one it means 100m is left to the taxiway
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92
Q

what is MSA? what is MEA? MOCA?

A
  • MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDE: when 1000ft obstacle clearance within 25nm radius of a radio facility or reference point
  • MINIMUM ENROUTE ALTITUDE: lowest published altitude between radio fixes that provides obstacle clearance within 5nm eitherway of the airway centreline

-MINIMUM OBSTACLE CLEARANCE ALTITUDE:
lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements

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93
Q

what is the screen height and the takeoff part of the flight

A
  • distance from Brake Release Point (BRP) to screen height
  • imaginary curtain 35ft high (50ft for class B) which must be cleared by the lowest part of the aircraft (landing gear or tail)
  • wet runway screen height reduced to 15ft
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94
Q

landing on a RWY in bad weather conditions, alternating red and white centreline lights are visible. how much runway will you have left

A
  • not more than 900m
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95
Q

if a pitot source is blocked in an ASI and the drain hole is blocked, but the static source is open, what will happen?

A
  • in descent while pitot blocked; pressure in capsule no longer changes static pressure in case increases, compressing the capsule; ASI UNDEREAD/ SHOWING DECREASING AIRSPEED
  • CLIMB= static pressure reduces= ASI SHOWING INCREASE IN SPEED
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96
Q

what is a sharklet

A
  • blended wing tip design
  • reduces induced drag by not letting air from the underside of wing to flow in the wing root direction thus creating wing tip vortices
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97
Q

what are the ICAO CAT I II III minimums, qualifications

A

CAT I: 200 ft system minima, DH not less than 200 ft, RVR not less than 550m

CATII: 100 ft system minima, DH less than 200ft greater than 100ft, RVR not less than 350m

CATIIIA: DH less than 100ft or no DH, RVR not less than 200m

CATIIIB: DH less than 50ft or no DH, RVR less than 50m

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98
Q

what kind of line does taxiway markings have

A
  • continued yellow
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99
Q

what lights can be seen on a taxiway

A
  • centre lights : GREEN
  • edge lights: BLUE
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100
Q

a runway is 2000m long, you can only see amber edge lights. How much runway will you have left

A
  • atleast 600m
  • runway edge lights must be installed for
  • any runway used at night
  • all precision approach runways
  • daytime use with RVR below 800m
  • row of fixed, variable intensity white lights is set on each edge for the length of runway except that:
  • a section of 600m or one third of runway length whichever is less, may show yellow edge lights at the upwind end of the runway
  • for displaced thresholds, the lights between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold are red
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101
Q

what is vx and vy

A

VX: best angle of climb (highest altitude in shortest distance)
Vy: best rate of climb (highest altitude in a given time)

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102
Q

when is fog reported and what are the different types of fog

A
  • when visibility is below 1000m

RADIATION FOG: winter clear sky,calm wind, land cooling of air close to the surface at night by thermal radiation

EVAPORATION FOG: cold air over warm moist surface

ADVECTION FOG: mild moist airstream over snow covered ground; windspeed <10kts

FRONTAL FOG: area ahead of warm front is subject to prolonged continuous rain and the same air mass is pushed ahead of the front. reduction in visibility is caused by the very high humidity

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103
Q

What is BCMG on a TAF

A
  • used when a gradual change in conditions expected over a longer time period- USUALLY 2 HOURS
  • change will occur at an unspecified time within this period
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104
Q

what is a TAF and METAR

A

TAF: Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
-forecast; predicted weather at an aerodrome; 9 hour or 24hr period
- standard 9hr TAF updated and reissued every 3 hours

METAR: Aerodrome Actual Met Report
- report giving actual weather conditions at aerodrome at the time of the report
- issued every 30mins during the opening hours of the aerodrome

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105
Q

what is veering

A
  • clockwise change of wind direction
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106
Q

what is geostrophic wind and why is it more difficult to achieve geostrophic balance in equatorial latitiudes

A
  • steady wind blowing parallel to straight isobars
  • more difficult to obtain geostrophic balance in equatorial latitudes as coriolis force is weak
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107
Q

what are the different types of cloud coverage

A

FEW 1-2 OKTAS
SCT 3-4 OKTAS
BKN 5-7 OKTAS
OVC 8 OKTAS

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108
Q

What is MOCA

A

Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude
- lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements

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109
Q

where can you expect the strongest CAT in a jet stream

A
  • side of the jet adjacent to the cold air and just below the jets core
  • its to the left when looking downstream of a jet
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110
Q

what is backing

A

anticlockwise change in wind direction

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111
Q

what is a jet stream? how do they form? minimum windspeed to be classified as a jet stream?

A
  • strong, narrow band of fast moving air just beneath the tropopause. characterised by strong vertical and horizontal windshear generating CAT
  • at boundaries between warm and cold air, temperature difference is large enough to generate very high velocity winds (jet streams) in the warmer air just below the tropopause
  • windspeed must be greater than 60kts
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112
Q

what is Gradient wind

A
  • wind that blows around curved isobars ( wind around pressure systems)
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113
Q

in reference to what is the cloud height defined in a METAR/TAF

A
  • cloud height is defined above ground level (AGL)
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114
Q

what is MORA? and GRID MORA

A

MORA: MINIMUM OFF ROUTE ALITITUDE
- provides the reference point clearance within 10nm of the route centreline and end fixes
- 2000ft terrain clearance in mountainous areas
-1000ft in non mountainous regions

GRID MORA
- provides reference point clearance within a section outlined by lines of latitude and longitude
- 1000ft where reference is 5000ft or lower
- 2000ft where reference is more than 5000ft

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115
Q

what is a trend and NOSIG

A
  • the forecast for the next two hours at the time of observation
  • NOSIG= no significant change in the next 2 hours
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116
Q

you are standing with your back to the wind on the northern hemisphere, where is the centre of high pressure

A

-right

  • in northern hemisphere , standing with bavk to the wind, low pressure will be on your left
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117
Q

what is meant by the term fading

A
  • interference of the ground and sky waves
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118
Q

what does TEMPO mean

A
  • Temporary change to the forecast lasting not more than 1 hour or half of the indicated time period
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119
Q

is the wind direction in a METAR/TAF in reference to true north or magnetic north

A
  • wind direction in a METAR/TAF is in reference to degrees TRUE NORTH
  • what you read = TRUE
    *what you hear= MAG
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120
Q

When is the drag minimum

A
  • when the parasite drag and induced drag are equal
  • VMD
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121
Q

what is a balanced field

A
  • when TODR = ASDR
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122
Q

What is the optimum altitude

A
  • altitude at which an airplane is most efficient
  • lowest fuel consumption; where given thrust setting corresponds to max range speed
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123
Q

what is induced drag

A
  • by product of lift
  • high pressure from below the wing tries to flow towards low pressure at top of the wing over the wing tip in the wing root direction; creating wing tip vortices
  • as speed increases wing tip vortices decrease
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124
Q

what should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the northern hemisphere

A
  • compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occuring
  • UNOS
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125
Q

what is LDA

A
  • starts 50 ft above the threshold and reaches to the end of the runway
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126
Q

what is parasite drag

A
  • drag resulting from interference of the airplane body with the airflow
  • dependent on body shape, skin friction and basically resistance in its motion through the air
  • as the speed increases, parasite drag increases
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127
Q

what is happening to the optimum altitude during a flight

A
  • as the mass of the aircraft reduces due to fuel burn, the optimum altitude increases
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128
Q

which front moves faster, a cold front or a warm front

A
  • cold front moves faster than warm fronts
  • cold air is denser thus more molecules of material in cold air than in warm air
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129
Q

what is the standard holding pattern

A
  • right hand
  • outbound time below FL140: 1MIN
  • outbound time above FL140: 1.5 MINS
  • speed for max range
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130
Q

what is the tropopause

A
  • boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere
  • temperature stops falling with increase in altitude
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131
Q

name the different winds in europe

A
  • BORA
    -SCIROCCO
  • MISTRAL
  • FOHN
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132
Q

what are warm front characteristics

A
  • prior to passage of warm front: cirroform or stratiform clouds and fog along frontal boundary
  • summer months: Cumulonimbus clouds (thunderstorms)
  • light to moderate precipitation; rain, sleet, snow or drizzle
  • poor viz
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133
Q

what are cold front characteristics

A
  • unstable atmosphere, cumuliform clouds, showers of rain
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134
Q

what is TODA

A

TODA = TORA + CLEARWAY

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135
Q

When is the drag maximum

A
  • at Vmo/Mmo
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136
Q

forces on an airplane during steady level flight

A

T=D
L=W

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137
Q

what is TORA

A

length of the runway suitable for use for the takeoff portion of the departure

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138
Q

what is the wind direction around a low pressure area in the southern hemisphere

A
  • clockwise and towards the centre closer to the surface
  • northern hemisphere
  • high pressure: clockwise
  • low pressure: anticlockwise

southern hemisphere
- high pressure: anticlockwise
- low pressure: clockwise

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139
Q

what is traffic load

A

mass of
- passengers
- baggage
- cargo
including any non revenue loads

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140
Q

what is the Allowed Takeoff Mass (ATOM)

A

lowest of
MZFM + T/O FUEL
RTOM
RLM + TRIP

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141
Q

what is ASDA

A
  • Accelerate Stop Distance Available
    ASDA= TORA + STOPWAY
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142
Q

What is MLM

A
  • max permissable total mass of the aircraft on landing in normal circumstances
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143
Q

NTOFP

A

1) 35 ft to gear retraction
2) gear retraction to acceleration altitude (min 400 ft max 1000ft), speed v2
3) starts at accel alt, min 400ft, finishes when flaps retracted
4) starts when flaps retracted, MCT is set and finishes 1500ft

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144
Q

what is VR

A
  • rotate speed; speed at which pilot is putting initial input to rotate the aircraft for the intention of takeoff
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145
Q

what is ZFM

A
  • mass of the aircraft ready for operation with the traffic load but without usable fuel
    ZFM= DOM + TL
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146
Q

what is DOM

A

mass of the aircraft ready for the specific type of operation excluding useable fuel and traffic load

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147
Q

Vr for transport category aircraft must be atleast

A
  • 1.05 VMCA
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148
Q

what is a clearway

A
  • area provided beyond the TORA which is free from obstacles that could cause a hazard to aeroplanes in flight
  • rectangular area extending beyond the runway that is designed to assist the aircraft at the initial climb after takeoff
  • extends atleast 75m either side of extended runway centreline
  • lengthwise it extends to the first non frangible object
  • max of 50% of TORA
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149
Q

what is the angle of climb

A
  • path the aircraft is flying to a specific height over a given distance
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150
Q

what is v2

A

Take Off Safety Speed
- at which the aircraft is controllable and maintain a climb in case of engine failure at takeoff

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151
Q

how much windspeed can we take into calculation

A

50% of the HDW
150% of the TW

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152
Q

what is the climb gradient and how can you calculate it

A

climb gradient- the rate expressed as a percentage of the change in height over distance in a given time

T-D/W X100

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153
Q

What is the BEM

A
  • mass of the empty airplane including unusable fuel and unusable fluids (lubrication, hydraulic), safety equipment
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154
Q

what is the planning LDA for a CAT A jet aircraft

A

60%

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155
Q

what is V1

A

takeoff decision speed at which point pilot decides either to continue or abort takeoff
- speed after which the pilot is comitted for takeoff in case of engine failure

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156
Q

what is the Rate of Climb and how can you calculate it

A
  • the rate of change of height in a given time
  • ground speed divided by 60 multiplied by the climb gradient in feet per nautical mile = required ROC in ft/min
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157
Q

after one engine failure, what airspeed will you have to maintain

A

VYSE- best rate of climb for single engine

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158
Q

what is MTOW

A
  • max permissible mass of AC at the start of the takeoff run
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159
Q

what is a stopway

A
  • area on the extension of the TORA designed to assist the aircraft to stop in case of a rejected takeoff
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160
Q

in which direction is the airflow on the upper side of the wing on a straight wing

A
  • in the root direction
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161
Q

what is TAS

A
  • EAS corrected for density error
  • or IAS corrected for Instrument, pressure, compressibility and density errors
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162
Q

what is the mach number depending on

A

temperature

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163
Q

what is a hung start

A
  • fuel ignites but engine fails to accelerate to self sustaining speed
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164
Q

you are taking off on he A320 in dubai, suddenly the AC has a reduced ROC. possible weather related reason

A
  • strong inversion layer
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165
Q

what is EAS

A

CAS corrected for compressibility

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166
Q

you have completed the autoland. during the approach one part of the system failed. was the initial automatic landing system fail operational or fail passive

A

fail operational
- must have atleast 2 AP engaged for approach. failure of one still allows autoland to be carried out

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167
Q

what is a wet start

A
  • fuel is already in the combustion chamber
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168
Q

what is the critical engine

A
  • the engine that in case of failure will give the larger yawing moment produced by the live engine
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169
Q

what is a dihedral

A
  • the up inclination of the wings
  • the angle between the horizontal plane and leading edge
  • increases lateral stability
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170
Q

when does the stall speed increase

A

when
- weight increases
- in a turn
- increase in load factor
- when pulled out of a spiral dive

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171
Q

what speed will you maintain if there is an engine failure just after takeoff and you want to maintain positive control with full control deflection

A
  • VMCA
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172
Q

twin propeller aircraft with props rotating clockwise as seen from behind, which engine is critical

A

-left

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173
Q

what is an anhedral

A
  • downward inclination of the wings
  • the angle between the horizontal plane and leading edge
  • decreases lateral stability
174
Q

how are the flight controls of an airbus actuated

A

hydraulically

175
Q

how can you calculate the LSS

A

39 x square root of temperature in Kelvin

176
Q

what is the Mach Number

A

ratio of True Airspeed (TAS) to the local speed of sound

177
Q

what is CAS

A

IAS corrected for instrument error and position error

178
Q

what is the lift equation

A

1/2rhoV^2SCl

179
Q

what is the coefficient of lift and what is it dependent on

A
  • the lifiting ability of a wing
  • dependent on Wing shape and Angle of attack
180
Q

what is the amount of gases in the atmosphere on FL410

A
  • same as on the surface but with a lower partial pressure
  • 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% argon and the rest is a mix of other gases
181
Q

what is the CG

A
  • the point on the aircraft where all of the mass is considered to act
  • the point about which the aircraft is rotating in the 3 dimensions
182
Q

what is the wake turbulence seperation when a medium aircraft is departing a heavy?

A
  • 2 min when departing from the same point
  • 3 min when departing from an intermediate point of the runway
183
Q

what is the mean chord line

A

wing area divided by wingspan

184
Q

you move the Centre of Pressure in front of the CG. what will be the tendency

A
  • nose up
185
Q

what is the angle of attack

A
  • angle between the chordline and relative airflow
186
Q

effects of excessive aircraft weight

A
  • reduced performance
  • increased stalling speed
    -reduced maneouvrability
  • reduced range
  • structural safety
  • wear on tires and brakes
187
Q

what is the time of useful consciousness at FL 400

A

FL180 20-30min
FL220 10min
FL250 3-5min
FL300 1-2 min
FL350 30-60sec
FL400 15-30sec
FL430 10sec

188
Q

what are the implications of a blocked static port (altimeter, VSI, ASI)

A
  • altimeter shows altitude at which blockage occured
  • VSI reads 0
    -ASI reducing in climb, increasing in descent
189
Q

what pressure do we get from pitot tube

A

total pressure

190
Q

what is the centre of pressure

A
  • point on the aerofoil where the total of all aerodynamic forces is considered to act
191
Q

effect of slats

A
  • create a slot that reenergises the boundary layer
  • increase critical angle of attack
  • reduces the stall speed with relatively low increase in drag
192
Q

what is the critical angle of attack

A
  • CLMAX
  • the max AoA at which air flows smoothly over the top surface of the wing
  • the highest alpha at which the aerofoil does not stall
  • exceeding crit AOA wil make wing go into stalling conditions
193
Q

what is the angle of incidence

A

angle between the wing chord and longitudinal axis

194
Q

adv and disadv of a swept wing

A

adv
- increases Mcrit
- increase in mach number during cruise
- greater stability in turbulence

disadv
- poor lift qualities
- Higher stall speed
- speed instability at lower airspeeds
-wing tip stall tendency which causes nose up pitch tendency

195
Q

implications of blocked pitot tube

A
  • ASI increases in climb decreases in descent
196
Q

what is washout of the wing

A
  • decrease in angle of incidence from root to tip
197
Q

flying is not recommended after deep diving for how many hours

A
  • 24hrs diving upto 10m
  • 48hrs diving more than 10
198
Q

flying immediately after scuba diving involves the risk of getting

A
  • decompression sickness
199
Q

what is the maneouvring area

A
  • all airside surfaces of the airfield used for take off, landing, taxi excluding the apron
200
Q

what is a fail passive control system

A

in the case of failure of one autopilot, when both engaged, has no out of trim condition but landing is not completed automatically

201
Q

what is an enroute alternate

A
  • alternate where the aircraft can proceed during the enroute part
  • must be reachable during any point of the enroute flight with 1hr of single engine cruising speed
202
Q

what is a takeoff alternate

A
  • the airfield where the aircraft is supposed to go in case of diversion or emergency where its not advisable to come back to the departure airfield
  • must be within 1 hour with 1 engine inoperative cruise speed
203
Q

what is the absolute ceiling

A

altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0ft/min

204
Q

if the cost index is 50kg/m what does this mean

A

1 min of flight costs the same as 50kg of fuel

205
Q

different fuel planning/phases for a flight

A

Taxi
Trip- dept to destination
Contingency: 5% trip or 5 mins at holding speed at 1500ft overhead destination in standard conditons
Alternate
Final Reserve- 30 mins at holding speed at 1500ft (when no alternate is selected, final reserve needs to be 45mins)
Extra fuel- if required by the commander

206
Q

what is a destination alternate and when do you select one or two destination alternates

A
  • airfield you should proceed to if not possible or inadvisable to continue to destination
  • located within 1hr still air flight with 1 eng inop and weather must be above planning minima ETA 1hr before till 1 hr after

atleast 1 unless:
- aerodrome is isolated and none exist
- flight <6hrs and 2 seperate runways available AND
- appropriate weather reports indicate sufficient weather from 1 hr before till 1hr after ETA

2 when:
- no appropriate weather reports indicating weather will be equal or above planning minima for 1 hr before till 1 hr after
- no met info available

207
Q

values of ISA

A
  • 1013MB
  • 15 degrees
    -1.225kg/mcubed
  • temp decreases 2 degrees per 1000ft
  • pressure reduces with 27ft per hpa
  • tropopause at 36,000ft where temp is -56.5
  • LSS 661 KTS
208
Q

when flying to an IFR point where can you find the lowest altitude you can fly

A

GRID MORA

209
Q

what is the movement area

A

all airside surfaces used for takeoff, taxi and landing including the apron

210
Q

you fly at night and see green light at 45 degrees to your left, its position doesnt change. is there a collision risk

A

yes
- collision; green over red, red over green
-safe:red over red

211
Q

what is a contaminated runway

A
  • when 25% or more of the runway is covered with water of more than 3mm deep, compacted snow that cant be compressed anymore, ice including wet ice
212
Q

how many degrees is 273 kelvin

A

0 degrees celsius

213
Q

whats a fail operational control system

A
  • system with 2 APs engaged, when one fails, allows autoland to be completed automatically
214
Q

what is the isolated aerodrome fuel procedure

A
  • normal fuel quantities
    -additional fuel to fly for 2 hours at normal cruise consumption after arriving ovh the destination airfield, including final reserve
215
Q

density varies in which way in relation to pressure and temperature

A

-density proportional to temperature
- density inversley proportional to temperature

216
Q

during a climb after takeoff, if TAT probe of ASI blocked, what will the reading of indicated airspeed be?

A
  • reading increases steadily
217
Q

how can you calculate the traffic load

A

TRAFFIC LOAD=TOM-FUEL-DOM

218
Q

For a turbojet AC, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of

A

0.6

219
Q

what part of the runway can be used for landing

A

Landing Distance Available (LDA)

220
Q

how often does the CofG calculation have to be done

A
  • before every flight
221
Q

1hpa =

A

27ft

222
Q

when is the lift of a wing the highest

A
  • just before a stall
  • CLMAX
223
Q

when an aircraft is deicied prior to departure, if the temperature is 0 degrees in precipitation, which type of fluid and application method will provide longest holdover time

A

type 2 fluid at 100% cold spray

224
Q

what is necessary when refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft

A
  • communications being maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel onboard
225
Q

the precession of gyroscope varies in which way

A
  • the precession of gyroscope varies
  • directly with applied force
  • indirectly with the inertia of the rotor
226
Q

during the takeoff run, the effect of increasing airspeed is to cause the EPR indication to

A

-decrease
- during take off run engine inlet pressure increases due to ram effect whereas engine exhaust pressure does not benefit from ram effect thus decrease in ratio

227
Q

whats the difference between a jet engine and a turbo prop

A
  • turboprop engine is a type of turbine engine which drives an aircraft propeller using a reduction gear
228
Q

what system is used to avoid dutch toll

A
  • yaw damper
229
Q

when can independent parallel approaches be conducted to parallel runways

A
  • provided that a non transgression zone NTZ of 610m is established between extended runway centrelines
230
Q

regarding a direct reading magnetic compass (drmc), the biggest errors will occur when turning through

A

N/S at high latitudes

231
Q

what is QFF

A

mean sea level pressure of a reporting station corrected for elevation

232
Q

if we are in an airport where the elevation is 200m, the QNH is 1020 and we dont know what the temperature is. what can we say about QFF?

A
  • we need OAT to calculate QFF thus cannot know QFF
233
Q

an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non precision approach procedure which is based upon the use of vOR is not lower than?

A
  • 300ft
  • ILS with/w.o DME - 250ft
    VOR/DME- 250ft
    VOR- 300ft
    NDB- 300ft
    NDB/DME- 300ft
    VDF- 350ft
234
Q

with respect to modern jetliners pressurisation system, the normal max negative differential pressure is?

A
  • the pressure at which the duct relief valve is set
235
Q

how will the recovery from a stall be effected when the CoG moves aft?

A
  • more difficult to recover from a stall with CoG moving aft
236
Q

a flight crew license holder has completed a two day stay at a hospital. what must he/she do before flying as a crew member

A
  • seek advice from the authority or Aeromedical Examiner (AME)
237
Q

when selecting an alternate aerodrome, the runway of the facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50ft above the threshold within …… % of LDA available

A

60% of the LDA

238
Q

calculate approx rate of descent given ILS GP angle = 3.5 degrees GS=150kts

A

GP= ROD/GS X 60
ROD= GP X GS/60
ROD= 3.5 X 150/60 = 8.75NM/HR
8.75/60= 0.145NM/MIN
0.145NM/MIN X 6080= 886FT/MIN

239
Q

What must emergency exits like those found on the A320 be outlined by

A
  • outlined externally by a two inch band of contrasting colour
240
Q

variable inlet guide vanes are fitted to gas turbine engines to

A
  • prevent compressor stall at low engine speed
241
Q

characteristic weather associated with polar maritime airmass moving over north west europe in winter would include

A
  • widespread CU and CB activity over land
242
Q

aeroplanes certified to JAR-25 mustnt operate across areas where S&R would be especially difficult without survival equipment if it flies to a distance corresponding to greater than

A
  • 90 mins at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing
243
Q

with a gas turbine engine, the engine anti-ice system should be selected ON when

A
  • whenever IOAT is +10 degrees
  • air contains visible moisture
244
Q

an electrical resonant circuit is constructed from

A
  • A capacitor and inductor which may be in parallel or series
245
Q

what happens to the speed range between high speed and low speed buffet during a descent

A
  • increases at constant IAS
246
Q

vr for transport category aircraft must be atleast

A

1.05 VMCA

247
Q

what is a SPECI

A
  • a selected special aerodrome weather report
  • issued when significant change of weather conditions observed
248
Q

what are the errors of the machmeter

A
  • instrument and pressure error
249
Q

which front most frequently gives freezing rain over central and eastern europe

A

warm front

250
Q

if a fuel sample appear cloud or hazy, the most probable cause is

A
  • water contamination
251
Q

the Decision Point Procedure is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight by

A
  • reducing contingency fuel to only that required from the DP to the destination (5%)

RCF1: 5% of trip fuel from DP to DEST 1
RCF2: 5% of trip from DEPT to DEST 2

252
Q

Which moments interact in a dutch roll

A
  • rolling and yaw
253
Q

the modern antiskid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is based on

A
  • idle wheel speed
  • braked wheel speed
  • Desired idle wheel train slipping rate
254
Q

an aircraft is flying at a constant indicated altitude, over a warm airmass, the altimeter reading will be

A
  • less than the real altitude

*high to low: LOOK OUT BELOW
warm to cold: DONT BE BOLD

255
Q

what can you tell about fail-safe designed structural parts

A
  • mounting principle is parallel mounting
  • redundancy of the components
  • failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between other system components
256
Q

what will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing

A
  • altimeter will first increase then decrease
257
Q

accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in which speed

A

stalling speed

258
Q

an aircraft is descending at constant RAS. what will happen to MN and TAS

A

MN and TAS decrease

259
Q

under icing conditions, if you exceed the hold over time, the correct procedure is to

A
  • deice the airplane again and then apply anticing fluid
260
Q

linear acceleration causing somatogravic illusion, can give a false impression of

A
  • a climb
261
Q

in contrast to brief showers, prolonged precipitation preceding a front is most likely to relate to which clouds

A
  • shallow stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
262
Q

going from the equator to the north pole , the altitude and temp of the tropopause will

A

altitude- decrease
temperature- increase

263
Q

map scale on a lambert conformal chart is

A
  • constant along a parallel of latitude
264
Q

for flight crew members, quickly fitted oxygen masks are compulsory onboard any pressurised aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than?

A

25000ft

265
Q

a flight carried out below optimum altitude would result in

A

less time, more fuel

266
Q

which of the following is a prohibited combination in aircraft registration letters

A

TTT (= safety, a third level of emergency communication alert now only used in maritime ops)

267
Q

upto what altitude will generally healthy people be able to stay without showing any signs of suffering from hypoxia

A

10-12,000ft

268
Q

GPWS mode 5 provides both visual and audible warnings to the pilot, if the aircraft is under which conditions

A
  • aircraft below 1000ft RA and more than 1.3 dots below ILS glideslope
269
Q

what type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height

A
  • fail operational or fail active
270
Q

compressibility error is caused by a false…….. of …….. pressure, requirimg a ………. cprrection to the CAS to obtain EAS

A
  • false INCREASE of DYNAMIC PRESSURE
  • requiring a NEGATIVR correction to the CAS to obtain EAS
271
Q

what is the M.E.L. and who is it drawn up by?

A
  • M.E.L.- list of aircraft equipment that can be inoperable prior to dispatch
    t- drawn up by the operator
272
Q

the M.M.E.L is drawn up by who

A
  • the manufacturer
273
Q

what are CDLs

A
  • Configuration Deviation Lists
  • used to identify external components of the aircraft type which may be missing for dispatch
  • will provide any associated info on performance corrections for such cases
274
Q

on a pressurised aircraft supplemental oxygen is used to?

A
  • provide people onboard with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation
275
Q

a public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL390. the total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be atleast the same amount as the total number of

A
  • seats+10%
276
Q

station numbers (stn) and water lines (WL) are

A
  • means of locating airframe structure and components
277
Q

which conditions will most likely cause the greatest increase in takeoff distance

A
  • Tailwind
  • upslope
  • high temperature
278
Q

what is the aerodrome QNH

A
  • atmospheric pressure at the aerodrome level
279
Q

an aircraft having undergone an anticing procedure must be anticing fluid free at the latest when?

A
  • rotating, so before takeoff
280
Q

the red LED indicators light on an emergency torch is flashing at 4 second intervals. what does this indicate

A
  • its below the acceptable reserve of charge
  • normally flashes every 5-10 seconds
281
Q

what do vortex generators do

A

transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer

282
Q

the bourdon tube is used to measure

A

pressure

283
Q

seasons are due to the

A

inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane

284
Q

will a jet powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude, have a larger or reduced range

A
  • reduced
285
Q

from which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurised aircraft

A
  • FL250
286
Q

Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of

A
  • water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
287
Q

the airplane outside air temperature probe measures the

A
  • Total Air Temperature minus kinetic heating effect in order to obtain the SAT
  • TAT= SAT + RAMRISE
288
Q

what is a shuttle valve

A
  • allows one service to be operated by two independent supplies thus guaranteeing an adequate supply if either system fails
  • a type of valve that allows fluid to flow through it from one of two sources
289
Q

describe the third segment of the NTOFP

A

first part: distance covered before flap retraction, accelerating to flap retraction speed

second: distance covered after flap retraction, accelerating to final t/o climb speed

290
Q

effect of flap extension on vx and vy

A
  • VX and VY decrease
291
Q

a trough of low pressure is generally associated with

A
  • convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
292
Q

describe the 4th segment NTOFP

A
  • Climb from 400ft to 1500ft
  • operating with MCT
  • green dot speed (final t/o climb speed)
  • 1.2% climb gradient
293
Q

how many % to be considered a contaminated runway

A

25%

294
Q

effect of aft CofG on the range

A

aft CofG increases the range

295
Q

definition of QFE and QNH

A
  • QFE: barometric pressure at an aerodrome reference point
  • when airborne- height above aerodrome elevation

QNH: barometric pressure measured at a reporting station adjusted down to Mean sea level
- altitude above mean sea level

296
Q

an aircraft climbs at a constant TAS through an inversion, will the RAS and Mach number increase, decrease or stay the same

A
  • mach number and RAS decrease
297
Q

effect of fwd and aft C.G. on performance, stability and fuel

A

FWD CG = HIGH AOA= increased induced drag= decreased performance and range. increased longitudinal stability because AC nose heavy

AFT CG= LOW AOA= reduced induced drag= increased range and fuel efficiency. aircraft longitudinally unstable

FWD
- stalling speed increased
- longitudinal stability increased
- higher stick force required
- range and endurance decrease due to drag caused by elevators to trim the ac

AFT
- stalling speed decreased
- longitudinal stability decreased
- lower stick force required
- range and endurance increase

298
Q

definition of QNH

A
  • barometric pressure measured at a reporting station adjusted down to mean sea level using ISA values
  • altimeter with QNH set should read station elevation on the ground
299
Q

in the southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate an apparent turn to the

A
  • NORTH
  • SA ND
    apparent turn to the SOUTH when you ACCELERATE and to the NORTH when you DECELERATE
300
Q

what happens when CofG is moved from FWD to AFT

A

airplane will be tail heavy
- horizontal tailplane will have a short moment arm resulting in the AC being longitudinally unstable because its too tail heavy for the horizontal tailplane
- light stick forces for pitch are required
- wing angle of attack decreases = lower induced drag= increased ac range

301
Q

definition of a wet runway

A
  • sufficient moisture on the surface to appear reflective but without significant areas of standing water
302
Q

define airmanship

A
  • consistent use of good judgement and well developed skills to accomplish flight objectives
303
Q

regarding the ASI, when the pitot probe becomes blocked, what will happen to the ASI reading at constant altitude, during descent and during climb

A
  • constant altitude; IAS will tend to reduce eventually reading 0
    -in descent; underead
  • in climb; overead
304
Q

describe how an ASI works

A
  • pitot pressure fed directly into pressure capsule
  • as pitot pressure increases, the capsule expands; movement of capsule magnified and transmitted by linkage
  • static pressure is fed directly into the sealed instument case
305
Q

describe the principle of operation of an altimeter

A
  • senses static pressure at its location and compares it to reference pressure
  • partially evacuated aneroid capsules mounted in a tightly sealed case fed with static pressure from static ports
  • as altitude increases, static pressure decreases = capsule expands
  • movement of capsule magnified by a system of gears and levers to a pointer
  • during descent, static pressure in case increases= capsule compresses

*altimeter errors = I M P S

306
Q

regarding the altimeter, when the static ports become blocked, what will happen to the reading

A
  • the indication will be stuck from the moment the static ports become blocked as pressure in the case will cease to change
307
Q

regarding turn and slip indicator how would you define turn, slip and skid

A
  • turn is the movement about the aircrafts yaw axis resulting in a change of direction
  • slip: lateral force into the turn
  • skid: lateral force out of the turn
308
Q

oxygen requirements for flight crew

A

flight deck for duration and cabin pressure altitude:
- entire flight when cabin press alt >13000ft
- entire flight time when cabin press alt exceeds 10000ft but not 13000 after first 30MINS
- but in no case LESS THAN 2HRS for ac certified to fly at altitudes more than 25000ft

309
Q

oxygen requirements for all required cabin crew for duration and cabin press alt

A
  • entire flight time >13000ft but not less than 30mins
  • entire flight time greater than 10,000ft but not 13000ft after the first 30mins at these altitudes
310
Q

supply for 100% of pax for duration and cabin pressure altitude

A
  • entire flight time when cabin press alt exceeds 15000ft BUT NO LESS THAN 10 MINS
311
Q

supply for 30% of pax for duration and cabin press alt

A
  • entire flight time when cabin press alt exceeds 14000 but not 15000
312
Q

supply for 10% of pax for duration and cabin press alt

A
  • entire flight time when cabin press alt exceeds 10,000 ft but doesnt exceed 14000ft after first 30 mins at these altitudes
313
Q

what are the different weight values for aircraft that are used in seperation

A

SUPER- Airbus A380
HEAVY- MTOM>136,000KG
MEDIUM - 7000<MTOM<136000
LIGHT- <7000KG

314
Q

describe the principle of operation of the VSI

A
  • compares the ambient static pressure fed directly into a pressure capsule with a delayed value fed inside the instruments case via a metering unit which partially restricts the flow of air in and out of the case
  • capsule connected directly to static port

VSI IN DESCENT:
- ambient static pressure increases; immediately sensed in capsule
- metering unit ensures increase is not immediately sensed in the instrument case
- static pressure in case is less than static pressure in capsule therefore capsule expands

CLIMB
- ambient static pressure decreases.
- static pressure inside capsule is slightly lower than inside the case
- capsule contracts

315
Q

regarding the vsi, when the static pot becomes blocked what will happen to the reading

A
  • indication will slowly move back to 0 and not change
316
Q

regarding ASI, when static port becomes blocked, what will happen to the ASI reading at constant altitude, during descent and during climb

A
  • descent: OVEREAD
  • climb: UNDEREAD
  • constant altitude: read correctly
317
Q

what is an MEL

A
  • lists all equipment, systems and installations that must be serviceable before a particular flight is undertaken
  • items that may be unserviceable are indicated, together with any additional limtations
318
Q

which firefighting category needs to be applicable to an airport for the airbus A320

A
  • CAT 6
319
Q

ASI errors

A
  • instrument
    -Maneuver
  • pressure
  • density
    -compressibility
320
Q

frequency ranges for NAV, COM, ILS,VOR

A

108 -111.975 Mhz ILS
108 - 117.975 Mhz NAV/VOR
118 - 136 Mhz COMM

*VDF 118-137MHZ
* NDB 190-1750 KHZ
*DME 960-1215 MHZ

321
Q

what is a CDL

A
  • configuration deviation list
  • established by organisation responsible for type design
  • identifies any EXTERNAL PARTS of an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight
  • also contains, any info on associated operating limitations and performance calculations
  • found in the AFM

*The CDL should not be confused with the MEL (MEL). While the MEL describes the limitations of aircraft operation in case of a system being inoperative/having malfunctioned (e.g. transponder failure), the CDL deals with situations where external parts of an aircraft are missing/fallen off

322
Q

describe Runway End Identification Lights (REIL)

A

unidirectional flashing green lights installed at the runway threshold; one on each side

323
Q

describe runway edge lights

A
  • white elevated lights that run the length of the runway
  • on precision instrument approaches: edge lighting becomes yellow in last 2000 ft (610m) of the runway or last third, whichever less
324
Q

describe taxiway lighting

A
  • bordered by blue lights
  • green centre lights
325
Q

Describe Runway Centreline Lighting System (RCLS)

A
  • 50 ft intervals along the runway centreline
  • white except the last 900m
  • alternate white and red- for next 600m
  • red- last 300m
326
Q

Describe Touchdown Zone Lights (TDZL)

A
  • row of white light bars ( 3 in each row) at 30 or 60m intervals on either side of the centreline for 900m
327
Q

Describe Taxiway centreline leadoff lights

A

-alternate green and yellow light from the runway centreline to the postition of the first centreline light beyond the hold short markings

328
Q

definition of light, moderate and severe turbulence

A

light
- slight erratic changes in attitude and/or altitude
- in flight services not suspended but slight strain against shoulders
- unsecured items slightly displaced

moderate
- similar to light but of greater intensity- variations of speed as well as attitude and or altitude but ac remains in control at all times
- unsecured objects dislodged and definite strain against seatbelts

severe
- large, abrupt changes in attitude and altitude with large variations in airspeed
- brief periods where effective control impossible
- forced violently against seatbelts
- loose objects may move around the cabin and damage aircraft structures

329
Q

What do Low Visibility Operations include?

A
  • manal take-off (RVR below 400m)
  • Autocoupled approach to below DH, manual flare, landing and rollout
  • autocoupled approach followed by autoflare, autolanding and manual rollout
  • autocoupled approach followed by autoflare, autolanding and auto rollout when RVR below 400m
330
Q

what is an LVO approach

A
  • any approach below CAT I minima
331
Q

what lights do you have to see to establish visual contact in LVO

A

CAT II- combo of 3 lights with lateral element
CAT IIIA- combo of 3 lights
CATIIIB DH- any single light
CATIIIb NO DH- no requirement

332
Q

what is the minimum visibility for takeoff when LVO not in force

A

400m

333
Q

Regarding the seperation of AC on landing, what is the minimum distance following an A380, HEAVY and MEDIUM aircraft

A

A380- 7nm
Heavy- 5 nm
Medium- 3nm

334
Q

what is the definition of RNP-5

A
  • required navigational performance accuracy that shall be within 5 nm of the desired flight path atleast 95 % of the time
335
Q

in an airplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from

A
  • a Transformer Rectifier Unit
336
Q

The intertial Strapdown unit of an IRS is programmed with coordinates during alignment in order to

A
  • establish the trihedron with reference to earth
337
Q

GPWS mode 2 operates between ….ft and ….ft AGL

A

-50 and 2450ft AGL

338
Q

where is EGT measured

A
  • HP turbine outlet
339
Q

whats the definition of Holdover Time (HOT) and when does the Holdover Time start

A
  • estimated time deicing/anticing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of ice on critical surfaces of an aircraft
  • HOT starts at the beginning of the anticing operation
  • if 2 step, hot begins at the start of the final (anti-icing) step
340
Q

When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause through an inversion what will happen to the CAS and TAS

A
  • The CAS will decrease
  • TAS will increase

*inversion: C M T
isothermal: TAS and MACH do the same thing

341
Q

difference between LNAV and VNAV

A
  • LNAV: horizontal plane in which an RNAV system may be used
  • VNAV: vertical plane in which an RNAV system may be used
341
Q
A
342
Q

How did the IVSI reduce timelag error

A
  • using dashpots
343
Q

which equipment shall be serviceable before entering RVSM airspace

A
  • 2 primary altimeter systems
  • 1 automatic altitude control system
  • 1 altitude alerting system
  • a transponder that can be connected to the altitude measurement system in use for maintaining altitude
344
Q

period of validity for a JAR CPL

A
  • 5 years
345
Q

definition of clear ice

A
  • relatively slow freezing of large SCWD from freezing fog, drizzle or rain
  • it is a crystal clear and solid layer of ice on top of the aeroplane critical surfaces which can almost not be detected visually
346
Q

defintion of blade ice

A
  • form at temperatures close to or below 0 degrees
  • on the backside of fan blades when the engine rotates overnight, in a humid atmosphere
347
Q

Definition of rime ice

A

-rough deposit of ice
- instantaneous freezing of small SCWD
- creating a mixture of tiny ice particles and trapped air resulting in a whitish colour

348
Q

definition of frost

A
  • forms on aircraft surfaces in clear air
  • parked in sub zero temperatures
349
Q

what are considered critical surfaces regarding deicing

A
  • leading edges and upper surfaces of wings
  • vertical and horizontal stabilisers
  • all control surfaces
  • slats
  • flaps
350
Q

what is two step de/anticing

A
  • procedure is 2 distinct steps
  • first step: deicing
  • second step: anticing as a seperate overspray of anticing fluid application

*onestep deicing- carried out with heated anticing fluid; used to deice the plane and remains on the ac surface to provide anticing capability

351
Q

definition of CAVOK and what does the abbreviation SKC mean

A

CAVOK (Cloud and Visibility Ok)
- viz is 10km or more
- no CB OR TCU and no cloud below 5000ft or MSA (whichever greater)

SKC= Sky clear

352
Q

difference between fog and mist

A

mist= viz greater than 1km
fog= visibility less than 1km

353
Q

what is one step deicing

A
  • uses hot anticing fluid
  • removes ice from surface and provides a very limited duration of anti ice protection
354
Q

which two systems can ensure navigation position integrity

A
  • Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)
  • Autonomous Integrity Monitored Extrapolation (AIME)
355
Q

During the take off run, what will the air driven artificial horizon indicate

A
  • a nose up attitude due to the action of the pendulous vanes
356
Q

for flights on which route or area are the following RNP values applicable (RNP0.3, RNP 1, RNP 5, RNP10)

A

RNP 0.3- RNAV approaches based on RNP
RNP1- flights following a SID OR STAR
RNP5- in the terminal area within radio navaid coverage
RNP10- oceanic or remote areas

357
Q

definition of VEF (Engine Failure Speed)

A
  • the CAS at which the critical engine is assumed to fail
358
Q

how many seats on airbus A320, A321 and A321 NEO

A

A320- 180
A321- 230
A321 NEO- 239

359
Q

what engines are fitted to the Airbus A321 NEO

A
  • Pratt and Whitney GTF PW1100G
360
Q

what are the approach categories of aircrafts based on

A
  • speed of 1.3 x stall speed in landing config at max gross landing weight
    A <91kts
    B 91-120
    C 121-140
    D 141-165
    E 165KTS+
361
Q

regarding Low Fuel State Emergency, when must a flight crew report a PAN PAN and when must the crew report a MAYDAY

A
  • PAN PAN: becomes apparent aircraft MAY land with less than final reserve

MAYDAY: becomes apparent that the aircraft WILL land with less than Final reserve

362
Q

concerning the three hold entries, the entry has to be flown on heading or track?

A
  • heading
363
Q

explain the IFR and RVSM flight levels

A

IFR flight levels

EVEN flight levels: 180-359 degrees
ODD flight levels: 350-179 degrees

RVSM flight levels

-Non RVSM airspace: vertical seperation is only 1000ft up to FL290 and 2000ft above FL290

  • RVSM airspace: only 1000ft for all levels
364
Q

why are flight level intervals increased to 2000ft in non RVSM airspace

A
  • because of altimeter errors ( lower air density)
  • reduced vertical RVSM to 1000ft seperation above FL290 is granted to aircraft with advanced and more accurate altimeters; usually crowded routes
365
Q

what engines are fitted to A320 and A321

A

A320- International Aero Engines v2500
A321- International Aero Engines v2500

366
Q

what does the Variable Load (VL) include

A
  • crew and their baggage
  • catering and other removable pax service equipment
  • food and beverages
  • potable water
  • lavatory chemicals
367
Q

who is the COO of Wizz Air

A

Heiko Holm

368
Q

What is ETOPs and what are the various ETOPS categories

A
  • extended twin operations
  • an operator is granted permission to operate a twin engine ac on a flight in which the aircraft is more than 60 mins away from a suitable alternative aerodrome in the event that the aircraft suffers an engine failure enroute
  • normal ETOPs categories between 60 and 180 mins
  • A320 distance with one engine inoperative = 350nm
369
Q

whats true of the dewpoint of an airmass

A
  • it can only be equal to or lower than the temperature of the airmass
370
Q

an aircraft manoeuvring in an airports circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. this signifies that the aircraft must

A
  • not land because the airport is not available for landing
371
Q

defiition of VMCA and VMCG

A
  • VMCA= minimum speed whilst in air that directional control can be maintained with one engine inoperative at T/O power and max 5 degrees of bank

VMCG- min speed whilst on the ground, that directional control can be maintained, using only aerodynamic controls, one engine inop and T/O power applied on the other engine

372
Q

what is present when isobars stand close together on a surface chart

A
  • strong winds present
373
Q

crew composition of A320 and A321

A

A320- 2 flight crew 4 cabin
A321- 2 flight crew 5 cabin

374
Q

during an ILS approach to autoland, at 1500ft, the localiser is controlling the roll channel, offline channels are automatically engaged and flare mode is armed. True or False

A

True

375
Q

what is the operating pressure of the a320 hydraulic system

A
  • 3000 psi
376
Q

what is Cos60

A

COS60=0.5
COS90= 1
SIN30= 0.5
SIN90= 1
TAN45=1

377
Q

Which of the following values does a 4F airport have? (aeroplane reference field length, wingspan, outer main gear wheel span)

A
  • aeroplane reference field length: >1800m
  • wingspan <80m
  • outer main gear span of lesser than 16 metres
378
Q

the line voltage of a typical aircraft constant frequency paralleled AC system is how many volts?

A

200 volts
because
line voltage = 1.73 * phase voltage
line voltage = 1.73 * 115 = 200 volts

379
Q

how can you calculate the Rate of Descent for 3 degree glidslope

A
  • groundspeed x 5
  • 1/2 groundspeed + 50
380
Q

what is the FAF

A
  • denotes the start of the final approach segment of either a precision or non precision approach
  • denoted as a locator marker or final approach distance
  • should always be crossed at or above specified height before final descent is initiated
381
Q

what is pressure altitude, density altitude and air pressure

A
  • pressure altitude: altitude with 1013 set
  • density altitude: altitude where the density is the same in standard atmosphere. dependent on temperature, humidity, pressure
  • air pressure: weight of a column of air around the air molecules; acts in all directions and decreases with an increase in altitiude
382
Q

what is FADEC

A
  • Full Authority Digital Engine Control is a system consisting of a digital computer called an ECU that controls all aspects of aircraft engine performance
383
Q

what is an inversion layer

A
  • the layer where temperature is increasing with increase of altitude creating an absolutely stable atmosphere
  • its stopping the vertical movement of air beneath the inversion layer, thus reducing visibility
384
Q

what is the bypass ratio of a turbofan engine

A

ratio between the mass flow rate of air drawn through the fan disk that by passes the engine core to the mass flow rate passing through the engine core

385
Q

what is the SALR, DALR and ELR

A

SALR- 1.8 degrees per 1000ft
DALR- 3 degrees per 1000ft

ELR- 1.98 degrees per 1000ft
defines stability of the surrounding air
- if a parcel of air is forced to rise and its cooling at a lower rate than the ELR, it will continue to rise causing an unstable condition and cumuliform clouds to form

386
Q

on an ILS when can you descend on the glide path

A
  • when cleared for the approach
  • and when captured the localiser within +/-5 degrees
387
Q

what is dutch roll and what causes dutch roll

A
  • yaw and roll coupling
  • wings placed well above centre mass, sweepback and dihedral wings increase dutch roll tendencies
388
Q

describe a radio altimeter

A
  • only active at low levels, from 2500ft
  • provide DH info where precision approaches are flown to a DH of less than 200ft
  • continuous wave frequency modulated transmission sent from the aircraft to the ground and the signal is reflected back to the aircraft
  • transmitted frequency sweeps up and down through a range of about 200MHz centred on 4300 Mhz
  • difference between frequency being transmitted and the one returning (beat frequency) is a measurement of height
389
Q

limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator

A
  • VS1 lower limit
  • VNO upper limit
390
Q

requirements for alternates

A

atleast 1 unless
- flight < 6hrs
- 2 seperate runways exist and weather is better than planning minima ETA +/- 1HR
- destination is isolated and no alternates exist

2 destination alternates
- ETA weather below minima ETA +/-1hr
- no met info exists

391
Q

when do you have to file a flight plan

A
  • within controlled airspace
  • Within the UIR ( Upper Information Region)
  • flights crossing a UIR
392
Q

what is a SID and STAR

A

Standard Instrument Departure
- initial routing from particular rwy with specific altitude and airspeed along departure route

Standard Terminal Arrival Route
- details the specific arrival route to the particular approach for the runway of intention

393
Q

different type of air masses

A
  • polar continental
  • polar maritime
  • tropical maritime
  • tropical continental
  • arctic
394
Q

what is wheel shimmy

A
  • unstable oscillation of the nose wheel due to flexibility of the tire sidewalls especially at high speed
  • causes wear in wheel bearing, linkages
  • decreased by using shimmy dampers
395
Q

what is tire creep

A
  • circumferential movement of the tire around the wheel flange due to insufficient pressure
  • detected by misalignment of paint marking on the tire and wheel flange
396
Q

difference between MDA and DA

A
397
Q

what are the planning minima for Type A or Circling and Type B approach

A

Type A or circling
- visibility at or above the specified RVR for landing minima
- ceiling at or above MDH

Type B:
- visibility at or above the specified RVR/vis for landing minima

398
Q

what is an isobar

A
  • line on a meteorological chart joining point of equal pressure
399
Q

dynamic hydroplaning

A

-dynamic: water (deeper than tyre tread) is not displaced from under the tyres fast enough to allow the tyre to make pavement contact.
- if above dynamic hydroplane speed Vp and water exceeds depth of tyre tread; wheel could stop spinning thus loss of braking action

spin down speed (rotating tyre) in kts= 9 x square root of tyre pressure
spin up speed (non rotating tyre) = 7.7 x square root of tyre pressure

400
Q

viscous hydroplaning

A
  • happens at a much lower speed
  • thin film of water on a smooth and dirty surface
  • typically the touchdown zones of the runway where a build up of rubber from landing aircraft occurs
401
Q

steam hydroplaning

A
  • occurs during heavy braking that results in a prolongd wheel skid
  • only a thin film of water on the runway is required
  • tyre skidding generates enough heat to cause the rubber in contact with the runway to revert to its original uncured state
  • reverted rubber acts as a seal between tyre and runway, delaying water exit from tyre
402
Q

actions during engine failure after V1

A
  • continue takeoff
  • no actions below 400ft except gear up and silencing warning
  • identify failure
  • engine failure actions
  • mayday call
  • keep climbing to MSA
  • return to land
403
Q

altitude and pitch to maintain after engine failure

A

-pitch: pitch that allows climb to VYSE
- altitude: climb to MSA or above

404
Q

flying from low to high pressure, what happens to your true altitude

A
  • true altitude increases
405
Q

what is contingency fuel

A
  • extra fuel allowing for deviations from planned fuel consumption, deviation for unexpected weather conditions and deviation from planned routings and flight levels

cont fuel higher of
- 5% trip fuel
- fuel to fly for 5 mins at holding speed at 1500ft above the destination in standard conditions

406
Q

what is the approach ban point

A
  • the point from which an instrument approach shall not be continued below 300m (1000ft) above aerodrome elevation
  • or into the final approach segment unless the RVR is above the aerodrome operating minima
407
Q

engine failure procedure for DA42

A
  • 1/2 attitude
  • full rudder to counteract yaw
  • identify failed engine (dead leg dead engine)
  • live engine full power
  • dead engine idle
  • dead eng master off
  • maintain blue line speed
  • maintain heading and balance
  • MAYDAY call and return for landing
408
Q

describe the stages of thunderstorm

A

initial (building stage)
- deep layer of instability and plenty of moisture
- mainly updraughts (15-30 mins)

Mature
- updraughts and down draughts, characterised by anvil top, showers of rain and hail

dissipating stage
- mainly downdraughts

409
Q

what is the drift down procedure

A
  • the altitude to which, following an engine failure, above the OEI absolute ceiling, an aeroplane will descend to and maintain while using max available power/thrust on the operating engine and maintaining the one engine inoperative best rate of climb speed
  • maximum thrust/ minimum rate descent
  • necessitated by engine failure in the later stages of climb or during cruise when aircraft cant maintain its current altitude and terrain clearance
410
Q

types of jet Fuel

A
  • Jet A: freezinf point -40
    -JET A1: freezing point -47
  • JET B: freezing point -60
411
Q

where do you find the strongest CAT associated with a jetstream

A
  • strongest on the cold side of the jet next to and just underneath the jet axis
412
Q

difference between MEA and MORA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitiude
- lowest published altitude between radio fixes that provides obstacle clearance for the whole airway route or sector where navigational signal coverage exists

MORA
- lowest published altitude within 10nm of the airway and 10nm radius from the reference point and clears all obstacles by 1000ft and mountainous terrain by 2000ft

413
Q

what is fly by wire and main advantage

A
  • movement of the flight controls are converted to electronic signals that are sent to actuators controlling the control surfaces
  • main adv: reduced weight due to smaller amount of hydraulic lines and actuators, lower maintenance costs and greater flying precision
414
Q

what do you do in case of comms failure

A
  • squawk 7600
  • continue on last clearance for 7 mins then continue on filed flight plan
  • aim to reach the FAF as close as possible to the time on the filed flight plan
415
Q

which equipment prevents mach tuck

A

mach trim

416
Q

you are flying from high pressure to low pressure in the northern hemisphere, what is your drift

A
  • northern hemisphere, back to wind, the area of low pressure will be on your left
  • thus right drift expected. wind blows from left to right
417
Q

what is EPR

A

ratio of exhaust pressure to compressor inlet pressure

418
Q

what is katabatic wind

A

cold wind that flows down the mountain towards the valley at night

419
Q

QDM, QDR, QTE, QUJ, QNE and QFU

A

QDM- MAG bearing TO
QDR- MAG bearing FROM
QTE- TRUE bearing FROM
QUJ- TRUE bearing To

QNE- height shown on the touchdown place with 1013 set
QFU- mag direction of runway in use

420
Q

Bonding is used to protect the aircraft against fire by?

A

setting all components to the same electrical potential

421
Q

what is final reserve fuel

A

minimum fuel required to fly for 30 mins at 1500ft above the alternate aerodrome or, if an alternate is not required, at the destination aerodrome at holding speed

422
Q

what are icing conditions and its effect

A
  • atmospheric conditions that may cause ice to form on aircraft or engines
  • exist when TEMP BELOW 10 DEGREES and visible moisture, standing water, ice or snow present

effects
- increase weight
- increase stalling speed
- reduce lift qualities
- cause handling difficulties
-reduce engine power output
- can block pitot probes and static probes

423
Q

what is anabatic wind

A

wind that blows up the hill during the day

424
Q

what is mach tuck

A
  • nose down pitching tendency of the aircraft caused by the rear movement of the centre of pressure during transonic speed
425
Q

effect of flaps

A
  • reduce stall speed
  • increase wing surface area/camber
  • increased drag
  • increased lift
  • increased CLmax
  • decreased climb rate
  • reduced takeoff run
426
Q

effect of swept wings

A
  • higher mcrit
  • higher cruise speed
  • more stable on turbulence
  • poor lift qualities
  • tendency to wingtip stall first
427
Q

hoar frost forms directly on the aircraft surface as a result of

A

sublimation
- water vapour turning directly into ice on the aircraft surface

428
Q

what is hypoxia

A
  • lack of oxygen; not sufficient for the body to function properly
429
Q

different aircraft categories, speeds and on which speed these categories are based on

A

A <91kts
B 91-120kts
C 121-140kts
D 141-165kts
E 165-210

based on Vat: 1.3 x stall speed in landing configuration at max certified landing mass

DA42 (4 decks)

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