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DA42 > TUI Prep > Flashcards

TUI Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Which 737 model is the biggest

A

Both 737-max and 737-800= 189 seating config

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2
Q

What’s the largest aircraft in the fleet

A

787-900 dreamliner

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3
Q

What are the TUI brands

A

-Hotels and Resorts
- cruises
- TUI Musement: a leading tours and activities business
- tour operators
- Airlines

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4
Q

TUI signature hotels breakdown

A
  • TUI BLUE: for holiday makers combining relaxation with local culture and authentic experiences
    -Robinson: the quality and market leader in the premium segment for club holidays
  • RIU: 3 PRODUCT LINES: RIU club hotels, RIU plaza (city hotels) and RIU palace (premium segment) appeal to different target groups
  • TUI MAGIC LIFE: the all inclusive club brand boasting the broadest all inclusive offering on the german market
  • TUI suneo: focus on world dining and fresh, comfortable rooms in convenient locations close to the beach and resorts centre
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5
Q

TUI cruises breakdown

A
  • provided by 17 liners

TUI CRUISES
- 50:50 joint venture based in Hamburg between TUI AG and Royal Carribean Cruises

Hapag-Lloyd Cruises
- leading provider of luxury and expedition cruises in the german speaking markets

Marella Cruises
- several formats in the UK; from family holidays via city breaks to luxury cruising

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6
Q

what is TUI Musement

A

-global tours and activities business
- combining a highly curated product portfolio, scalable digital platforms and in-destination service by local teams
-to source, develop, distribute and deliver products in
3 categories; EXPERIENCES (excursions, activities and attraction tickets), TRANSFERS (between airports, hotels and ports) and TOURS (multiday itineraries encompassing flights, hotels, experiences and transfers)

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7
Q

how many and what customer groups does TUI musement serve

A
  • TUI CUSTOMERS: provides services in the destination via reps, as well as through the TUI Digital Assistant (TDA) app and TUI Experience Centre (TXC)
  • B2B strategic clients: bringing value to partners from different areas of the travel industry through both digital and and physical service delivery; including airlines, cruise lines, ground transportation, OTA’s, tour operators and other leading businesses
  • B2C Open Market Customers: providing all travellers around the world with the opportunity to book thousands of tours and activities in over 100 countries
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8
Q

How many and what regions are TUIs Tour Operator business operations grouped into

A

-3
- NORTHERN REGION: UK and Ireland, Nordics (Sweden, Norway, Finland, Denmark) and Canada
- CENTRAL REGION: Germany, Austria, Switzerland and Poland
- WESTERN REGION: Belgium, Netherlands, France

operators: TUI Deutchland, Airtours, Wolters Reisen, First Choice

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9
Q

how many airlines are in the TUI group (how many aircraft, destinations)

A

5 airlines:
- TUI Airways
- TUI Fly
- TUI fly belgium
- TUI fly Netherlands
- TUI fly Nordic

  • operating around 150 medium and long haul aircraft
    *serving more than 180 destinations around the world
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10
Q

Who is the TUI CEO

A
  • Sebastian Ebel
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11
Q

Who is the TUI Managing Director

A
  • Neil Swanson
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12
Q

What do you know about TUI (brief overview: stats, history, goal)

A

OVERVIEW: World leading tourism group

STATS
broad portfolio consisting of:
- 1200 travel agencies
- 5 airlines
- 150 aircraft with over 67 operating from 16 bases across UK and Ireland
- over 400 hotels
- 17 cruise liners- integrated business model (biggest earner)
*IT COVERS THE WHOLE TOURISM CHAIN UNDER 1 NAME

HISTORY
- TUI AG and TUI travel have market leading tourism, hotel and cruise brands with over 40 years in the industry
- 2007: TUI AG and First Choice merged
- TUI Group is the natural progression where two TUIs become one

GOAL
- business vision: “EXCELLENCE IN LEISURE EXPERIENCES”
- brand purpose: “TUI CREATES THE MOMENTS THAT MAKES LIFE RICHER”
- values: TRUSTED, UNIQUE, INSPIRING
- behaviours: “WE MAKE IT HAPPEN, WE MAKE IT PERSONAL, WE MAKE IT MEANINGFUL”
- customer promise: “LIVE HAPPY”

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13
Q

What is the TUI baggage allowance

A
  • checked in: 15kg on package holidays
  • certain types come with bigger allowance of 20kg
  • hand luggage: 1 piece per person, upto 10kg). max dimensions 55x40x20cm
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14
Q

What are the different TUI holiday types

A
  • Beach holidays: all inclusive, family, adult only
  • TUI tours
  • City breaks
  • Multi Destination
  • Lakes and mountains
    -Crystal Ski
  • Villas collection
  • Weddings by TUI
  • Lapland
  • Accessible Holidays
  • Green and Fair Holidays
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15
Q

What makes TUI unique

A
  • covers the entire tourism value chain under one roof
  • enabling TUI to provide their 24 million customers with an umatched holiday experience in 180 regions
  • key feature of the corporate culture is out global responsibility for economic, environmental and social responsibility
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16
Q

TUI Group overview

A
  • global group headquarter: hamburg Germany
  • Cruise ships: 17
  • hotels: more than 400
  • aircraft: approx 150
  • travel agencies: more than 1200
  • TUI care foundation: postive effects of tourism in 25 countries
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17
Q

TUI airways UK overview

A
  • worlds largest charter airline
  • Luton; founded in 1962
  • operate from 16 bases across UK and ireland
  • flying to more than 70 destinations worldwide from canary island to caribbean
  • TUI UK has a fleet of 67 aircraft, made up of four different models of aircraft
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18
Q

TUI airways fleet breakdown (aircraft, engine, config)

A

-67 aircraft

32 x 737-800: CFM56-7 engine; 189 pax seats; max range 5460km and top speed Mach0.79

21 x 737 MAX-8: CFM International LEAP-1B; 189 PAX seats

8 x 787-800: General Electric GEnx-1B; 41 premium economy 241 economy

6 x 787-900: General Electric GEnx-1B engine; 63 premium economy, 282 economy

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19
Q

TUIs business vision

A
  • Excellence in leisure experiences

(north star that guides the business)

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20
Q

TUIs brand purpose

A
  • TUI creates the moments that make life richer

(the role we play in the lives of customers, colleagues and the world)

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21
Q

TUI values

A
  • Trusted, Unique and Inspiring

( what we believe in and the culture we establish)

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22
Q

TUI behaviours

A
  • we make it happen
  • we make it personal
  • we make it meaningful

(the constant principles that make us different)

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23
Q

TUI customer promise

A
  • Live Happy

(outward articulation of being a TUI customer)

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24
Q

TUI sustainability agenda

A
  • by 2030, emissions from TUI airlines to be reduced by 24%
  • including achieving net zero emissions across operations by 2050 at latest
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25
Q

what is the TUI Care foundation

A
  • initiated and supported by TUI
  • ensures tourism makes a difference in the lives of young people, care for the environment and help local communities thrive around the globe
  • currently 25 projects in 20 countries
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26
Q

what are the TUI CARE foundation long term programs

A

YOUTH AND EDUCATION:
- TUI Academy program provides education and practical training for vulnerable young people and opens up new career opportunities in tourism

NATURAL ENVIRONMENT:
- Nature programs safeguard the beauty of holiday destinations by using resources more efficiently, protecting the marine environment and promoting animal welfare

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT:
- supports innovative tourism and entrepreneurs with a clear social and environmental mission
- aims to protect a destinations cultural and gastronomic heritage, strengthen local added employment and drive the sustainable development of the local tourism sector

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27
Q

how many Pilot bases do TUI Airways UK have and where

A
  • 16
    -Aberdeen, Belfast, Birmingham (seasonal), Bournemouth, Bristol, Cardiff, Dublin, East Midlands, Exeter, Glasgow, Gatwick, Luton, Stansted, Manchester, Newcastle, Norwich
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28
Q

TUI company people (pilot manager, flight crew training manager, pilot management project pilot, Fleet Manager)

A

Kathryn Cleaver- Pilot Manager

Stuart Byers- Flight Crew Training Manager and 737 captain

Rachel Barrett- Pilot Management Project Pilot and 787 FO

Lewis Blessed- Fleet Manager and 767 captain

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29
Q

TUI Timeline

A

1962: TUI Airways founded as Euravia

1964: name changed to Britannia Airways

1968: several German Tour operators joined forces to form The Touristik Union International

2002: Rebranded as TUI AG

2005: Britannia Airways rebranded to Thomson Fly. Thomson travel group bought by TUI AG.

2007: TUI merges its tour operator business with British First choice to form TUI travel plc.

2008: Thomsons Airways brand launched for the combined Thomson fly and first choice airways

2013: 1st uk airline to take delivery of 787. First flight was LGW to MAH. parent group also order 70 MAXs for group airlines

2014: TUI group listed on London Stock Exchange. Reunification with subsidiary TUI travel plc to become globally integrated tourism group

2015: announced new name- TUI

2016: rebrand began- launch of TUI care Foundation

2017: New callsign- TOMJET. TUI Airways officially changed its legal name from Thomson Airways to TUI Airways

2022: Sustainability Agenda Founded

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30
Q

how do you calculate ISA Temperature Deviation

A

lapse rate: 2 degrees per 1000ft

Dev= 15+(altitude x -2) = ISA TEMP

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31
Q

what is a Rate 1 turn, bank angle required for rate 1 turn, radius of turn

A

rate 1 turn= 3degrees/sec or 180/min

Bank angle required for rate 1 = (TAS/10) +7

Radius of Turn= Approx 1% of GS e.g. 250kts=2.5nm

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32
Q

what is the stopway

A
  • length of an unprepared surface in the direction of takeoff capable of supporting an AC if the AC has to be stopped during its takeoff run
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33
Q

what is a clearway

A
  • obstacle free area at the end of a runway, in the direction of takeoff
  • 75m either side of the centreline
  • could be water; the aircraft just needs to make a proportion of its climb to a screen height
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34
Q

What is the TORA

A
  • distance between the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which an aircraft can commence its take off run to the nearest point, in the direction of takeoff, at which the surface of the aerodrome is incapable of bearing the weight of the aeroplane
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35
Q

what is the TODA

A

TODA is lesser of
- TORA + CLEARWAY
-1.5 X TORA

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36
Q

what is the ASDA

A
  • TORA + STOPWAY
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37
Q

What is a balanced field

A
  • when TODA=ASDA
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38
Q

what is the LDA

A

length of the runway threshold to threshold

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39
Q

what is screen height

A
  • imaginary screen that has to be cleared by the lowest part of the aircraft when taking off or landing
    -minimum height achieved over the runway before the end of the clearway
  • marks the end of the takeoff distance
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40
Q

what is the screen height for a propeller aircraft (RWY condition: dry only)

A

50ft

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41
Q

what is the screen height for a jet aircraft (RWY condition: Dry and Wet)

A
  • Dry: 35ft
  • Wet: 15ft
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42
Q

what is a circling approach and what are the minima

A
  • visual phase of an instrument approach to position and airplane for landing on a runway that is not suitable for a straight in approach
  • MDH 600FT/ VIZ 4000m
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43
Q

what is point of equal time and how do you calculate it

A
  • the enroute track position where it takes the same amount of time to fly onwards to the destination as it does to turn around and return to the departure airfield

distance to PET = (D x H )/ (O + H)

Time to PET= (distance to PET) / (speed to PET)

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44
Q

What is Point of No Return and how do you calculate it

A
  • latest point on a route where its possible to return to the departure aerodrome with a sensible final reserve fuel
  • required for aircraft in which a diversion airfield is not readily available

all engine PNR

Time to PNR= (safe endurance x Ground Speed Out) / ( Ground Speed Out x Ground Speed Home)

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45
Q

what is RVSM

A
  • reduces vertical separation of AC from 2000ft to 1000ft between FL290-FL410
  • RVSM: 1000ft separation FL290-FL410
    -NON RVSM: 2000ft separation
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46
Q

‘what equipment is required to operate in RVSM airspace

A
  • 2 primary altimeter systems
  • 1 automatic altitude control system
  • 1 altitude alerting system
  • a transponder that can be connected to the altitude measurement system in use for maintaining altitude
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47
Q

what is Precision RNAV approach

A
  • offers to use RNAV functionality in all phases of flight except final approach and missed approach
  • enabling shorter, more direct routes with simple connections to the enroute structure
  • AC within 1nm of its intended position 95% of the time

B-RNAV: AC within 5nm of intended position 95% of the time
- in europe B-RNAV capability is mandatory in all upper airspace

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48
Q

RNP level, typical application and primary route width (nm)- centreline to boundary

A

0.1-1 RNP AR APP SEGMENTS
0.3-1 RNP APP SEGMENTS
1- TERMINAL AND ENR
2- ENR
4- PROJECTED FOR OCEANIC/REMOTE AREAS WHERE 30NM HORIZONTAL SEPARATION IS APPLIED
10- OCEANIC/REMOTE AREAS WHERE 50NM LATERAL SEPARATION IS APPLIED

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49
Q

aircraft system minima for approach categories (CATI,II,IIIA,IIIB,IIIC)

A

CAT I DA 200FT RVR 550m
CATII DA 100-200FT RVR 300m
CATIIIA DA 50-100FT RVR 200m
CATIIIB DA <50FT RVR 75M
CATIIIC DA nil RVR nil

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50
Q

V1

A
  • Takeoff Decision Speed
  • the speed at which the decision to continue the takeoff or abort must be made
  • the max speed during takeoff at which a pilot can safely stop the aircraft without leaving the runway
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51
Q

V2

A
  • Takeoff Safety Speed
  • the minimum speed at which the aircraft can maintain a specified rate of climb with one engine inoperative
  • achieved by the screen height 35ft and maintained to 400ft AGL in the event of an engine failure
  • V2 > OR equal to 1.2 x Vs
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52
Q

VS

A
  • stall speed
  • minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable
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53
Q

purpose of wing fences and what is span wise flow

A

Spanwise flow
- pressure above the wing is lower than atmospheric and higher than atmospheric below
- most intense areas of low pressure are found near the wing root creating a horizontal pressure gradient which drives spanwise flow
- above the wing, spanwise pressure differential causes a spanwise flow inwards towards the wing root
- beneath the wing the spanwise pressure differential causes a spanwise flow outwards towards the tip

  • at the trailing edge the two airflows meet at an angle to cause trailing edge vortices

wing fence- provides a physical barrier reducing spanwise flow towards the tips, a contributory factor to the tip stall

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54
Q

which is more desirable, stall at the wing root or wing tip and why

A
  • stall at the root due to a greater local effective angle of attack is more favourable
  • root is directly in front of the tail section; turbulent air hits the tailplane creating natural buffeting
  • the reduced downwash and downforce on the tailplane increases pitch down moment at the stall
  • ailerons remain for some time in unstalled flow providing some degree of lateral control in the very early stages of the stall
  • wing drop is less pronounced
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55
Q

what is cloud base and cloud ceiling

A

Cloud ceiling: lowest layer of cloud of more than 4 oktas

cloud base: height of the underside of the lowest layer of cloud
* TAFS and METARS: cloud base given as height above aerodrome level
* area forecast: cloud base altitude above mean sea level

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56
Q

Vref

A
  • calculated reference speed for final approach
  • final approach speed
  • usually 1.3VSO or higher
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57
Q

VMCG

A
  • minimum control speed
  • to maintain directional control after an engine failure during the takeoff roll while still on the ground
  • determined using aerodynamic controls
58
Q

VMCA

A
  • minimum control speed to maintain directional control and straight flight
  • using no more than 5 degrees of bank
  • when the critical engine becomes inoperative
  • with remaining engine at takeoff thrust
59
Q

VMO/MMO

A
  • max operating limit speed for turbo props or jets
  • VMO is mainly a structural limitation that is the effective speed limit at lower altitudes
  • MMO is a percentage of mach limited by the change to the aircraft handling characteristics as localized airflow approaches the speed of sound, creating shock waves that can alter controllability
60
Q

what is MCRIT (critical mach number)

A
  • lowest mach number at which airflow over some point of the aircraft reaches the Local Speed of Sound (LSS); sonic
  • local airflow in some areas near the airframe reaches the speed of sound even though the aircraft itself has an airspeed lower than Mach 1.0
  • creating a weak shockwave
61
Q

what is Dutch Roll

A
  • combination of rolling and yawing oscillations associated with swept wing aircraft
62
Q

what is Mach tuck

A
  • nose down pitching moment
  • as an aircraft exceeds Mcrit/ airflow around the wing reaches supersonic speeds
  • causing the Centre Of Pressure to move rearwards behind the Cnetre of Gravity
63
Q

what is Coffin Corner

A
  • the altitude at or near which an aircrafts stall speed is equal to the critical mach number
  • any reduction in speed will cause stall and loss in altitude
  • any increase in speed leads to flow separation and shockwaves
64
Q

what is total drag made of and what is each component

A
  • total drag= profile drag and induced

PROFILE DRAG: form drag, skin friction and interference drag
- proportional to speed; the faster an aircraft moves through the air the more air molecules its surface encounter

INDUCED DRAG:
- caused by creating lift with a high angle of attack that exposes more of the aircrafts surface to the Relative AirFlow
- associated with wing tip vortices
- greatest at low speeds and hgih angles of attack

65
Q

what is a cold front and whats the weather associated with it

A
  • cold air mass pushes under warm air mass
  • tends to be clear weather afterwards
  • forces warm air upwards creating CBs , heavy rain with fast gusty winds
66
Q

what is an occluded front

A
  • cold front overtakes warm front
  • normally brings strong winds and heavy precipitation
  • normally form around mature low pressure areas
67
Q

what are the conditions associated with a warm front

A
  • slow
  • prolonged steady rain
  • normally drizzle
  • stratiform clouds
68
Q

what is a stationary front

A
  • no apparent movement
    -balanced air masses
  • mix of cold and warm
69
Q

what is a trough

A
  • extended region of low pressure
  • normally clouds and showers
70
Q

what is a ridge

A
  • extended region of high pressure
  • normally brings fair weather
71
Q

What is a TAF

A
  • Terminal Area Forecast
  • 9 hour TAF: issued and updated every 3 hours
  • 12-24 hour TAF: issued and updated every 6 hours
  • they cover a 24hr or 30hr period
72
Q

Decode: TEMPO

A
  • weather condition will last less than 1 hour
  • has a greater than 50% probability of occurrence
  • will cover less than half the period of the TAF
73
Q

decode: VC (FG)

A

-VC before identified weather, the weather could be valid upto 10 nm from the airport
- in the vicinity of the airport

74
Q

Decode: BCMG

A
  • used when weather will change gradually over 2 hours or more
75
Q

decode: FM (FROM)

A
  • when the weather will change rapidly from the prevailing conditions in less than 1 hour
  • common with frontal passes
  • the original forecast will become void and the FM forecast will now be used
76
Q

decode: BCFG, BR, FG, BC, FU, FZ, GR, GS, MI, PO , PL, SS, WS

A

BCFG: FOG PATCHES
BR: MIST
FG: FOG
BC: PATCHES
FU: SMOKE
FZ; FREEZING
GR: HAIL
GS: SMALL HAIL OR SNOW PELLETS
MI: SHALLOW
PO: DUST DEVILS
PL: ICE PELLETS
SS: SANDSTORM
WS: WINDSHEAR

77
Q

What is a METAR

A
  • Meteorological Aerodrome Report
  • issued every 30 mins
78
Q

Decode: CAVOK

A
  • cloud and viz ok
  • vis > 10k
  • no clouds below 5000ft or below highest MSA
  • no CBs, no precipitation, thunderstorms, shallow fog or low drifting snow
79
Q

decode: SKC

A
  • if any of the CAVOK conditions are not met but there is no cloud to report
80
Q

decode: TREND

A
  • when significant changes are forecasted in the next two hours
  • BCMG and TEMPO used
  • FM: from, TL: until, AT:at
81
Q

Decode: NO SIG

A
  • when no significant changes expected, the trend is replaced by this
82
Q

equation of Lift

A

L= 1/2 rho v squared s Cl

83
Q

how do you calculate the Local Speed of Sound (LSS)

A

LSS= 38.94 X square root of temperature in kelvin

84
Q

equation of mach

A

Mach= TAS/LSS

85
Q

When is the Window of Circadian Low (WOCL)

A

02:00-05:59
- the period between 02:00 and 05:59 in the time zone to which the crew member is acclimatised

86
Q

Total Duty Periods assigned to an individual operational crew member shall not exceed (7 consecutive days, 14 consecutive days, 28 consecutive days)

A
  • any 7 consecutive days: 60 duty hours
  • any 14 consecutive days: 110 duty hours
  • any 28 consecutive days: 190 duty hours
87
Q

total flight time of the sectors on which an individual crew member is assigned as an operating crew member shall not exceed (28 consecutive days, any calendar year, 12 consecutive calendar months)

A

28 consecutive days: 100 hours
calendar year: 900 hours
12 consecutive months: 1000 hours

88
Q

where are Flight Time Limitations and Regulations found

A
  • Basic Regulation 216/2008 Annex III Part-ORO.FTL.
89
Q

what is the definition of acclimatized

A
  • crew members circadian biological clock synchronised to the current time zone the crew member is
  • crew member is considered to be acclimatized to a 2hr wide time zone surrounding the local time at the point of departure
90
Q

what is duty

A
  • any task that a crew member performs for the operator including flight duty , administrative work , giving or receiving training , positioning and some elements of standby
91
Q

what is a duty period

A

period which starts when a crew member is required by the operator to report for, or begin a duty
- it ends when the person is free of all duties, including post flight duty

92
Q

what is flight duty period

A
  • a period that begins when a crew member is required to report for duty, which includes a sector or a series of sectors
  • and ends when the AC finally comes to a rest and the engines are shut down, at the end of the last sector on which the crew member acts as an operating crew member
93
Q

definition of flight time

A

the time between an aeroplane first moving from its parking place for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest at its parking position and all engines or propellers are shut down

94
Q

what is underload and how do you calculate it

A
  • max amount of extra traffic load that you can accept without exceeding any mass limitations
  • UNDERLOAD = ALLOWED TRAFFIC LOAD - TOTAL TRAFFIC LOAD
95
Q

What is ATOM

A

lowest of
- MLM + TRIP
- MZFM + TAKEOFF
- RTOM

96
Q

How do you calculate max traffic load and traffic load

A

max: ATOM-DOM- TOF
TL: ATOM-OM

97
Q

how do you calculate max fuel

A

ATOM-DOM- TL

98
Q

how do you calculate Block Fuel

A

RAMP MASS-ZFM

99
Q

for aircraft with MOPSC >30 what is the all adult figure

A
  • all adult figure= 84kg (includes all adult males and females)
100
Q

what engines does the 737 MAX have

A

CFM international LEAP 1-B

101
Q

VSI mode of operation

A
  • compares the ambient static pressure fed directly into a pressure capsule with a delayed value fed inside the instruments case via a metering unit which partially restricts the flow of air in and out of the case
  • capsule connected directly to static port

VSI IN DESCENT:
- ambient static pressure increases; immediately sensed in capsule
- metering unit ensures increase is not immediately sensed in the instrument case
- static pressure in case is less than static pressure in capsule therefore capsule expands

CLIMB
- ambient static pressure decreases.
- static pressure inside capsule is slightly lower than inside the case
- capsule contracts

102
Q

ASI mode of operation

A
  • pitot pressure fed directly into pressure capsule
  • as pitot pressure increases, the capsule expands; movement of capsule magnified and transmitted by linkage
  • static pressure is fed directly into the sealed instument case
103
Q

Altimeter Mode of Operation

A
  • senses static pressure at its location and compares it to reference pressure
  • partially evacuated aneroid capsules mounted in a tightly sealed case fed with static pressure from static ports
  • as altitude increases, static pressure decreases = capsule expands
  • movement of capsule magnified by a system of gears and levers to a pointer
  • during descent, static pressure in case increases= capsule compresses

*altimeter errors = I M P S

104
Q

what happens to the ASI/VSI/altimeter in a climb or descent with a blocked static port

A

STATIC BLOCKED
- altimeter shows altitude at which blockage occurred
- VSI reads 0
-ASI reducing in climb, increasing in descent

PITOT BLOCKED
-pressure in capsule no longer changes static pressure in case increases, compressing the capsule; ASI UNDEREAD/ SHOWING DECREASING AIRSPEED
- CLIMB= static pressure reduces= ASI SHOWING INCREASE IN SPEED

105
Q

if you are on 1013 and the pressure is 1003 would you be under or over the glideslope

A

below the glideslope by 300ft

106
Q

Altimeter set to 1010, QNH is 1013- are you under or over the glideslope

A

above the glideslope by 90ft

107
Q

550 kts going 1950nm, how long will it take you

A

3hr 32mins

108
Q

if your 170 kts, what does your ROD need to be on a 3 degree glideslope?

A

GS X 5 = 3 degree ROD
170 x5= 850 fpm

109
Q

if your 7nm out, how high would you be on a 3 degree glideslope

A
110
Q

An e-cigarette has a lithium battery, can it be taken on board? Look it up from the info
on the back page - there are caveats to the rule - entering the table in the right place
and then follow through properly

A
111
Q

whats the RNP capability of the 737

A

RNP 0.1

112
Q

how do you calculate the radius of a turn

A
  • 1% of Groundspeed
113
Q

what are the colour of the runway centre lights at the end of the runway and what are the distances

A

WHITE- threshold to 900m of rwy end
RED AND WHITE- 900m to 300m
Red- last 300m of the runway

114
Q

what is the Pressure altitude in mb at 6000ft

A
115
Q

in a metar what does VCFU mean

A
  • smoke in the vicinity of the airfield
  • upto 10nm of the airport
116
Q

VMCG is equal to/less than or greater than V1/V2/VR

A
  • V1 must be faster than VMCG
  • Takeoff V speeds: VMCG </= Vef < V1 </= Vr < Vlof < V2 < Vfto

VR no less than
- 1.05 VMCA
- V1

V2 no less than
- 1.1 VMCA
- 1.13 VSR

117
Q

When paralleling batteries in a circuit do you get more AMPS or more Voltage or both

A
  • paralleling: you add the amp hour rating, voltage remains the same
118
Q

what is the correct call after departure

A
  • callsign, SID, Passing Level, Climbing Level
119
Q

what is the turning radius of a CAT D aircraft

A
  • 1% of airspeed
120
Q

whats the distance between the threshold to the end of the stopway defined as

A
  • Accelerate Stop Distance Available
121
Q

VAT 95- what is the 1.3 stall speed

A

95

122
Q

what is a contaminated runway

A

when 25% or more of the runway is covered with water of more than 3mm deep, compacted snow that cant be compressed anymore, ice including wet ice

123
Q

what is the temp at 36000ft if at the surface its 7 degrees

A
124
Q

what is the purpose of Slats

A
  • create a slot that reenergises the boundary layer
  • increase critical angle of attack
  • reduces the stall speed with relatively low increase in drag
125
Q

where does RVSM start and end

A

FL290-FL410

126
Q

marshallers hand signal for fire?

A

Move right-hand wand in a “fanning” motion
from shoulder to knee, while at the same time
pointing with the left-hand wand to area of fire.
(Might also be a rapid figure-of-eight motion at
waist level with either arm, pointing at the
source of fire with the other arm).

127
Q

climbing and descending at constant mach number

A
  • climb at constant mach: CAS and TAS reduce
  • descent at constant mach number: CAS rapidly increases, TAS also increases
  • C T M
128
Q

effect of altitude change in an isothermal layer: CAS MACH TAS

A
  • a climb or descent at constant Mach results in constant TAS
129
Q

effect of altitude change in an inversion layer

A
  • air temp inceases with altitude thus LSS will increase with altitude
  • C M T
130
Q

what happens if the air temperature changes when flying at the same level

A
  • TAS increases when flying into warmer air and reduces when flying into colder air
  • TEMP UP TAS UP, TEMP DOWN TAS DOWN
  • at constant mach, CAS REMAINS THE SAME
131
Q

when given a climb by ATC and your TCAS says descend, what do you say

A
  • TCAS RA
132
Q

competency: Leadership and Teamwork

A

S: - during a busy holiday period, we experienced a sudden shortage of staff with my restaurant fully booked.
T: My task was to ensure the restaurant could meet our customer expectations without compromising quality or service despite the reduced staff
A: - First I held a meeting with the team so we could discuss the issue and brainstorm the plan moving forward encouraging open dialogue and input from the team
- I analysed the current team structure thinking about individual strengths and reassigned roles to optimise our workflow, maintaining open communication to ensure everyone was comfortable with their new roles. I cross trained some kitchen staff to handle multiple roles, ensuring we could adapt to evolving demands
- To lead by example, I took on additional shifts, both in the kitchen and on the floor helping to fill staffing gaps and showing the team that I was willing to work alongside them during challenging times
- To ensure quality, I simplified the menu focusing on our most popular dishes to streamline kitchen operations
- I also worked closely with the front of house team to manage customer expectations and keep them informed about any delays
- to keep team spirits high I emphasized the importance of teamwork and recognised individual contribution. I made sure to thank staff at the end of each shift and celebrated small victories
- I also implemented an anonymous feedback system for staff so they felt comfortable voicing their concerns
R: - We navigated the holiday period successfully
- teamwork and flexibility led to positive customer feedback and an increase in repeat business
- the experience also fostered a stronger sense of camaraderie among staff

133
Q

competency: problem solving

A

S: during COVID 19 pandemic, government restrictions forced us to halt dine in services and the fear of spreading the virus made customers hesitant to interact
T: adapt our business model to comply with safety guidelines, maintain customer and staff welfare whilst continue generating revenue
A: - Brainstormed with the team to understand their health concerns and workplace concerns and how we could continue service to ensure both customer and workforce satisfaction
- I implemented staggered collection times with customers receiving specific time slots to pick up their orders reducing risk of contact between customers
- utilised social media platforms to inform customers about the staggered collection times and contactless payment. By posting the pickup schedule online, customers could plan their visits to avoid crowding
- I set up a card machine outside the building to enable customers to pay without entering the building contributing to social distancing
-I adjusted the kitchen layout to ensure social distancing amongst staff, limiting the number of people in the kitchen and spacing out workstations
- I implemented strict safety protocols; frequent sanitization of high touch surfaces, mandatory mask wearing and temperature checks for staff, providing a safer environment for employees and customers
R: I was able to keep the business running whilst ensuring the safety of our customers and staff

134
Q

competency: Decision making

A

S: during my first cross country solo flight, doing a climbing turn at 900ft I heard a loud noise and felt a rush of air in the cockpit, I quickly realised the passenger side door had popped open creating a potential safety hazard
T: my task was to maintain control of the aircraft, reducing the risk of further issues and safely landing the aircraft without disruption
A: - initial action was to stay calm and maintain control of the aircraft. I maintained my heading and lowered the nose initially to counteract the rapid reduction in airspeed ensuring stable control whilst ensuring I stayed in the airfields vicinity
- I quickly secured loose items to avoid them being sucked out of the open door. This step was crucial to prevent further complications and ensure safety
- inadvertently utilised a quick TDODAR to assess the severity and immediately contacted the tower to let them know I had decided to return to the airfield ensuring I had a clear path back and any needed assistance upon landing
- Given the additional drag and potential handling challenges I maintained a lower airspeed to reduce stress on the aircraft
- I used a longer final approach to allow for additional time to adjust to the increased drag and focused on avoiding any sudden movements that could destabilise the aircraft
- After safely landing I immediately secured the aircraft and reported the incident to the flight school
R: - landed safely without further complications and damage to the aircraft
- quick response and clear communication with ATC highlighted my ability to remain calm under pressure and make quick informed decisions in a high stress situation

135
Q

competncy: Situational Awareness

A

S: I was hour building in Miami where an engine issue was impacting climb performance and there were buildings immediately ahead that I needed to clear
T: my task was to ensure a safe flight path to avoid any obstacles while dealing with limited climb performance without causing undue stress to the aircraft
A: - I assessed engine power and other flight parameters and recognised a reduced RPM
- I also monitored my airspeed and altitude to ensure I was within safe operating limits
- I identified potential routes that would allow me to avoid the obstruction
- I adjusted my heading to the west to find a path without obstructions therefore reducing the immediate need for climb
- I scanned my environment and utilised foreflight for potential airfields or landing sights that I could use if the engine performance deteriorated any further and highlighted Tamiami airfield
- having utilised a PPP ensuring I had understanding what the plane was doing, were on a path that would avoid buildings and briefed and assigned communications to my co pilot we communicated with the tower and negotiated a return back to the airfield as further engine deterioration would result in ditching near the everglades

136
Q
A
137
Q
A
138
Q
A
139
Q
A
140
Q
A

DA42 (4 decks)

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