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DA42 > DA42 > Flashcards

DA42 Flashcards

1
Q

DA42 NG dimensions (span, length)

A
  • span:13.42m
  • lenght:8.56
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2
Q

DA42 mass (empty, MTOW, MAX RAMP, MZFW, MLW)

A

BEM: 1450 kg
MTOW: 1900KG
MAX RAMP: +8KG
MZFW: 1765kg
MLW: 1805KG

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3
Q

max baggage load ( nose, standard compartment)

A

nose: 30kg
standard compartment: 45kg

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4
Q

typical fuel weight (JETA1, DIESEL kh/ltr)

A

JET A1= 0.8kg/ltr
diesel= 0.84kg/ltr

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5
Q

VNO (max structural cruising speed)

A

151kts

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6
Q

VNE (never exceed speed in smooth air)

A

188kts

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7
Q

V0 (operating maneuvering speed)

(dont make abrupt or full control surface movement above this speed)
1700kg, 1800kg, >1800kg

A

V0- 1700 kg- 112kts
V0- 1800 kg- 119kts
V0- >1800 kg- 122kts

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8
Q

VYSE (blue line speed)

A

85kts

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9
Q

VS0 (stall speed in landing config)

A

62kts

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10
Q

VS1 ( 1g Stall speed)

A

69kts

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11
Q

VMCA FLAPS UP (minimum control speed airborne)

A

76kts

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12
Q

VMCA FLAPS APP ( minimum control speed airborne)

A

73kts

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13
Q

VFE (APP) (max flaps extended speed)

A

133kts

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14
Q

VFE (LDG) (max flaps extended speed)

A

113kts

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15
Q

Vloe extension (max landing gear operating speed)

A

188kts

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16
Q

Vlor retraction (max landing gear operating speed)

A

152 kts

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17
Q

Vle (max landing gear extended speed)

A

188kts

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18
Q

Vref FLAPS UP (approach speed)

A

86kts

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19
Q

Vref FLAPS APP (approach speed)

A

84kts

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20
Q

Vref FLAPS LDG (approach speed)

A

84kts

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21
Q

white arc speeds (operating range flaps extended)

A

62-113kts

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22
Q

green arc speeds (normal operating range)

A

69-151kts

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23
Q

yellow arc speeds ( caution range only in smooth air)

A

151-188kts

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24
Q

DA42 Powerplant description

A
  • 2 E4B austro-engines
  • inline 4 cylinder, liquid cooled, 4 stroke diesel engines
  • common rail, direction injection
  • reduction gear
  • dual digital engine control
  • turbo charger
  • torsion vibration damper isolates engine from prop
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25
Q

DA42 RPM limitations ( max takeoff, max continuous, max overspeed)

A

max takeoff- 2300 rpm, 5mins, 100%
max continuous- 2100 rpm, 92%
max overspeed- 2500 rpm, max 20 secs

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26
Q

DA42 oil pressure, quantity, consumption, temperature)

A

oil pressure: 2.5-6 bar
quantity: 5-7 Litres
consumption: 0.1 ltrs/hr
temperature: -30 to +140

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27
Q

DA42 coolant temp (min at startup, min full load, max)

A

min startup: -30
min full load: + 60
max: 105

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28
Q

DA42 fuel temp and pressure

A

Temp min: -30
Temp max: +60

pressure min: 4 bar
pressure max: 7 bar

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29
Q

DA42 fuel quantity (total + usable in main tanks, aux tanks)

A

total main: 2 x 26 USGAL
usable main: 2 x 25 USGAL

total aux: 2 x 13.7 USGAL
useable aux: 2 x 13.2 USGAL

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30
Q

max permissible unbalance between LH and RH tank

A

5 USGAL

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31
Q

describe the fuel system

A
  • 4 fuel tanks; 76USGAL usable Jet A
  • 2 main tanks; 25 USG usable each
  • 2 aux tanks: 13USG usable each
  • main tanks made of aluminium and composed of 3 chambers joined by rubber hoses
  • aux tanks made of aluminium with baffles on the inside to prevent rapid fuel movement
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32
Q

how much does jet fuel weigh at standard temperature?

A

7.01 lbs @15 degrees

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33
Q

what temperature does JET A freeze

A

-40

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34
Q

describe the main fuel tanks and their components

A
  • main tanks aluminium,: 3 chambers joined by rubber hoses
  • fuel quantity probes in inner and outer chambers
  • outer chamber: fuel filler, PRV, check valve (tank vent), fuel level shutoff switch (stops aux transfer pump when tank full)
  • inner chamber: fuel temp sensor, low level fuel sensor, fuel supply and return connections
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35
Q

how do the low level fuel sensors work

A
  • float based; float drops with decreasing fuel
  • at 3 to 4 USG float operates a microswitch activating the low fuel indication on the cockpit
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36
Q

why should the engines not be shutoff by moving fuel selectors to off

A

causes damage to high pressure fuel pump

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37
Q

with fuel selector in the on position, what is the flow of fuel

A
  • low pressure engine driven pump draws fuel from main tank , through fuel filter and then to the high pressure pump which feeds the common rail injection system
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38
Q

with the fuel selector in the Xfeed position, what is the flow of fuel

A
  • moving fuel selector to xfeed disables flow to and from associated tank
    -engine pump takes fuel from opposite tank
  • returned fuel is supplied back to the tank from which it was taken
  • fuel will flow through the cooler from which it was taken
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39
Q

if the RH engine has failed, how do you get fuel from the right tank

A
  • set left fuel selector to Xfeed
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40
Q

why is a fuel cooler necessary on this aircraft

A
  • fuel is compressed to a high pressure thus heated
  • excess fuel not used in the common rail injection system needs to be cooled to prevent it turning into vapor, causing vapor lock
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41
Q

how do you use fuel from the AUX tanks

A
  • turn on AUX transfer pumps; transfers fuel to the main tanks via the main fuel return line after the fuel cooler
  • fuel passes through the fuel filter, then aux fuel pump then pressure check valve
  • pump shuts off when fuel level too low or main tank full
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42
Q

how fast do the AUX fuel transfer pumps transfer fuel

A

1GAL per minute

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43
Q

how do you know when AUX tanks have finished transferring

A
  • caution on PFD: “L/R AUX FUEL E”
  • transfer pump must be turned off now
    -will take about 13 minutes
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44
Q

how much fuel is supplied to the engine and how much is actually burned

A
  • 20 USGAL/hr fed to high pressure pump
  • approx 7USGAL/hr actually consumed
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45
Q

what happens to excess fuel not consumed

A
  • approx 13 gallons per hour routed through fuel cooler back to main tank inboard section
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46
Q

how many fuel pumps are there

A
  • 6
  • 1 LP engine driven pump per side: supplies fuel to engine
    -1 High pressure pump per side: provides pressure to common rail
  • 1 aux pump per side: transfers fuel from aux fuel tank to main
47
Q

describe fuel flow when the right fuel selector is set to ON

A
  • right engines low pressure engine driven pump draws fuel from the right tank through a fuel filter then feeds fuel to a high pressure pump
  • high pressure fuel is then delivered to a fuel injector located in each cylinder
  • excess fuel from the common rail is routed through the fuel cooler and then back into the right main tank
48
Q

describe the fuel flow when the right selector is set to X-feed

A
  • right engines low pressure pump draws fuel from the left main tank through the left tanks fuel filter then feeds the fuel through the high pressure pump
  • excess fuel from common rail is routed through the left ide cooler then back into the left main tank
49
Q

how can aux fuel be consumed and when is aux pump switched off automatically?

A
  • aux fuel can only be transferred to the main tank on the same side using the aux transfer pump
  • initiated in 2 steps: 1st half when main tank 17 USG or less
    2nd half when main tank 17 USG or less

aux pump switched off automatically when:
- main tank full
- aux tank empty

50
Q

what happens if aux transfer pumps are turned on but the main tanks are already full

A
  • a shutoff sensor on the outboard segment of the main tank deactivates the aux transfer pump until there is sufficient room in the main tank for transfer to occur
51
Q

is fuel in the aux tank heated

A
  • no; fuel is returned only to the main tanks not the aux tanks
52
Q

what kind of fuel can you use in the aux tanks

A

JET A only

53
Q

are there fuel gauges in the aux tanks

A

no

54
Q

can you use JET A with the additive PRIST

A

yes

55
Q

describe the electrical system of a DA42

A
  • 28 V DC system
  • powered by two 28 V 70 amp engine driven alternators mounted on left side of each engine
  • main battery: 24 V 13.6 Ah battery. battery relay is controlled with electric master switch on instrument panel
  • non rechargeable battery: provides emergency power to STBY AI and panel floodlight (1.5hr)
  • each alternator has alternator control unit which monitors and controls its output
  • under normal conditions, alternator voltage is shown on the voltmeter
  • ECU backup battery: two 12V backup batteries provide 30 mins of engine operation in case of complete electrical failure
56
Q

what is the HOT BAT BUS used for

A

pilot map / reading light

57
Q

what does the LH main bus supply

A
  • PFD, ADC, AHRS, COM1, GPS/NAV1, transponder, engine instruments, pitot heating, oxygen system, gear control, gear warning, map light, flood light, taxi light, anticol lights
58
Q

What does the RH main bus supply

A
  • avionics bus, mfd, horizon, starter control, flap system, avionic/CDU cooling fan, stall warning, autopilot warning, landing light, nav lights, instrument lights
59
Q

what does the avionics bus supply

A
  • com2, gps/nav2, audio panel, autopilot, data link, wx500, ADF, DME, weather radar
60
Q

purpose of the electrical master

A
  • connects BAT BUS to BAT (BAT BUS powers L/R MAIN BUS)
  • enables alternator switches
61
Q

purpose of L/R alternator switch

A
  • connects L/R alternator to L/R main bus
    (in normal ops, alternator switches are always on)
62
Q

purpose of L/R engine master

A
  • enables starter activation
  • connects L/R ECU (A+B) to L/R ECU BUS
  • provides power for “GLOW” and unfeathering accumulator
  • connects L/R alternator field to the ECU backup battery
63
Q

capacity of the ice protection system (max, usable and minimum for dispatched)

A
  • max: 31.5 litres (8.3 USG)
  • usable: 30 litres (7.9 USG)
  • minimum for dispatch: 22 litres
64
Q

what are the two means of FPD (freezing point depressant)

A
  • spray nozzles ( windshield, propeller)
    propeller: -feeding into a “slinger ring”
    -feeder tube to leading edge
  • porous skin panels
65
Q

what are the anti-icing fluids used

A

Glycol Based Fluid
-AL5 and Aeroshell compound 7

66
Q

what system powers the anti-icing system

A
  • electrically powered from the LH MAIN BUS
67
Q

what provides engine and airframe anti-ice protection

A
  • provided by 2 electric pumps that feed fluid through filters to proportion units located in each engine nacelle and tail of the aircraft
68
Q

what do proportion units do

A
  • regulate flow of fluid to porous panels attached to leading edge of wings, horizontal stabiliser, fin and slinger rings at each propeller
69
Q

what do porous panels do

A

weep fluid over the airframe leading edge surfaces

70
Q

what force spreads anticing fluid on the prop

A

centrifugal forces

71
Q

do the airframe, prop and windshield utilise the same deicing system

A
  • no airframe and propeller are grouped together
  • windshield deicing is a seperate system and operates independently
  • all systems draw fluid from a common tank
72
Q

how long does airframe anticing last with NORM, HIGH and MAX and what pumps operate

A
  • NORM: 2hr 30min (both pumps simultaneously cycled on/off by 30sec ON, 90 OFF)
  • HIGH: 1 hr ( only the selected main pump runs continuously)
  • MAX: 30 min (both pumps simultaneously for 2 minutes)
73
Q

NORM, HIGH, MAX colours and fluid cycling duration

A

NORM: lower white light only (cycled 30secs ON, 90 secs OFF)
HIGH: centre amber light only (continuous fluid flow)
MAX: BOTH (top&centre) amber lights

74
Q

how many fluid filters are installed in the nose compartment and what is their purpose

A
  • 2; prevent proportioning units from fouling
75
Q

how many low and high pressure sensors are there in the airframe ice protection system and whats their purpose

A
  • 3 Low pressure sensors: detect system malfunctions
  • 1 High pressure sensor: activates indication when cartridges need replacing
76
Q

summary of how the airframe/prop ice protection works

A
  • active main pump feeds deicing fluid through filters to the proportioning units in each engine nacelle and horizontal and vertical tail
  • proportioning units regulate flow to porous panels and propeller slinger rings via capillaries
    -nozzles and slinger rings on propeller: nozzle sprays fluid onto the slinger ring mounted on the spinner backplate which is then distributed to the prop blades via centrifugal force
77
Q

what does the windshield ice protetction system consist of and how does it operate

A
  • 2 windshield deicing pumps installed in the nose compartment
  • 1 deicing fluid spraybar for the canopy
  • active windshield deicing pump suppies fluid to the spraybar
    -1 deicing pump is operative at a time; switch in the cockpit selects the active pump (1 or 2); second installed for redundancy
78
Q

does the windshield deicing system spray fluid continuously

A
  • no; activated for 5 seconds by operating a push button
79
Q

when is deicing fluid considered to be low

A

below 10 litres

80
Q

what is the minimum operating temperature for the ice protection system

A

minus 30 degrees

81
Q

what defines icing conditions

A
  • visually detect ice
  • visible moisture and OAT is +3 degrees or below
82
Q

can you use autopilot during icing conditions

A
  • Yes but disconnect every 10-15 mins to detect out of trim conditions
83
Q

can you operate FLAPS LDG in icing conditions

A
  • no: flaps ldg prohibited in icing conditions or with residual ice
  • intentional 1 eng operation under known or forecast icing conditions is prohibited
84
Q

what performance class is the DA42

A
  • propeller driven, mopsc max 9, weight <5700kg
  • PERFORMANCE CLASS B
85
Q

max demonstrated x wind component DA42 (UP, APP, icing conditions)

A

flaps UP: 25kts
flaps APP: 20 kts
icing: 20kts

86
Q

describe the landing gear of the DA2 and how hydraulic power is provided

A
  • hydraulically operated fully retractable tricycle landing gear
  • hydraulic pressure provided by an electrically powered hydraulic pump, activated by a pressure switch when required pressure is too low
  • electrically actuated hydraulic valves, which are operated with the gear selector switch provide the required hydraulic pressure for the movement of landing gear
87
Q

describe the movement of the landing gear when retracted

A

-main wheels retract inboard into the centre wing
- nose wheel retracts fwd into the nose section

88
Q

what is the purpose of the squat switch on the landing gear

A
  • prevents retraction on the ground
89
Q

how long does gear extension take

A

6-10 seconds

90
Q

what is the LH squat switch responsible for

A
  • on ground landing gear protection
91
Q

what is the RH squat switch responsible for

A
  • stall warning heating
  • engine preglow
  • ECU test
  • TAS voice warning
92
Q

what keeps the landing gear in a retracted position

A
  • hydraulic pressure on the actuators
  • one actuator is fitted to each landing gear assembly
  • a pressurized gas container acts as an accumulator which keeps system pressure constant and prevents continual starting and stopping of hydraulic pump
93
Q

what assists the hydraulic system in gear extension

A
  • springs assist in gear extension and locking the gear in down position
  • after gear is down and downlock hooks engage, springs maintain force on each hook to keep it locked until its release by hydraulic pressure
94
Q

what do green and red lights signify on landing gear

A
  • green: gear down and locked
  • red: gear neither down or up
95
Q

when would you get the landing gear aural warning

A
  • GEAR UP and
  • one power lever below 20% or flaps LDG
96
Q

how would you emergency operate the landing gear

A
  • gear held hydraulically thus emergency operation by
    -FREEFALL BY RELEASING HYDRAULIC PRESSURE
97
Q

Nosewheel steering: rudder pedal turning allowance and differential braking allowance

A
  • rudder pedal; 30 degrees either side of centre
  • differential braking: 52 degrees
  • on retraction the nose wheel is automatically centred and the steering linkage disengaged to reduce rudder pedal loads
98
Q

describe how the hydraulic brakes operate

A
  • main wheels fitted with hydraulic disc brakes operated by toe pedals fitted to the rudder pedals
  • hydraulic fluid for brake operation is independent to the hydraulic retraction system
  • stored in 2 resevoirs fitted to the co pilots brake pedal actuators
99
Q

describe the oxygen system

A
  • continuous flow system
  • operation upto 18,000ft
  • oxygen cylinder pressure: max 1800 PSI at 21 degrees
  • 4 cannulas plus 1 mask
100
Q

how are the ailerons and elevators actuated

A

push rods

101
Q

how are the flaps acuated

A

electrically by push rods

102
Q

how are the rudder actuated

A

cables

103
Q

how are both the rudder and elevator trim acuated

A

via bowden cables

104
Q

describe the variable elevator stop

A
  • normal elevator up deflection; 15.5 degrees
  • limited to 13 degrees up when both power levers above 20% (approach power setting)
  • reason: with full elevator deflection in case of stalling the handling qualities and stall characteristics are degraded
  • preflight check of this device mandatory!
  • “STICK LIMIT” caution when variable stop not in proper postion
105
Q

ECU basics

A
  • ECU voter switches
  • 3 position switches
  • normally in auto
  • working ECU automatically selected according to operating hours in case of malfunction
106
Q

describe the propeller of the DA42 ( prop type, how is prop pitch set, how governor is operated etc)

A
  • 3 blade wooden propeller
  • constant speed, feathering
  • prop pitch set by ECU via an electro mechanical actuator on the governor
  • governor operated by gearbox oil: oil pressure up=pitch down= rpm up
    oil pressure down= pitch up= rpm down
107
Q

when does the prop feather

A
  • feathering by “Engine Master OFF” if rpm above 1300
  • feathers when gear oil pressure is lost
  • if rpm below 1300 rpm: prop pitch remains above high pitch lock
108
Q

how does unfeathering with an unfeathering accumulator occur

A
  • by oil pressure from accumulator when engine master is on
109
Q

how does unfeathering without an unfeathering accumulator occur

A
  • by building up system oil pressure when cranking the starter
110
Q

what are the max engine restart altitudes and when shouldnt you attempt a restart

A
  • 18,000 for immediate restart
    -10,000 for restart within 2 minutes
  • no restart attempt if shutdown more than 2 mins
111
Q

starter limitation: normal operation on ground (time and cool down time)

A
  • max 10 seconds
  • 60 seconds cool down time
112
Q

starter limitation: restarting in the air (time, cool down time and max attempts)

A
  • max 5 seconds
  • 30 secs cool down time
  • max 3 attempts
113
Q
A

DA42 (4 decks)

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