Wilderness First Response

Question 1

What is the primary role of a Wilderness First Responder (WFR)?

Answer 1

To provide emergency medical care in remote settings.

Question 2

True or False: A Wilderness First Responder is trained to perform advanced medical procedures.

Answer 2

False.

Question 3

What does the acronym WFR stand for?

Answer 3

Wilderness First Responder.

Question 4

Fill in the blank: A WFR is trained to assess _____ in a wilderness setting.

Answer 4

medical emergencies.

Question 5

What is the first step in the WFR patient assessment process?

Answer 5

Scene safety.

Question 6

True or False: WFRs can only operate in groups.

Answer 6

False.

Question 7

What should you do if a mountain biker is unconscious?

Answer 7

Check for responsiveness and call for help.

Question 8

What is the most common injury in mountain biking?

Answer 8

Fractures.

Question 9

Multiple choice: What is the best way to manage a bleeding wound?

Answer 9

Apply direct pressure.

Question 10

What is the recommended position for a patient who is in shock?

Answer 10

Lay them flat and elevate their legs.

Question 11

True or False: Mountain biking injuries require immediate evacuation regardless of severity.

Answer 11

False.

Question 12

What is the primary concern when treating a head injury?

Answer 12

Monitoring for signs of concussion or increased intracranial pressure.

Question 13

Fill in the blank: A WFR should always have a _____ kit while biking.

Answer 13

first aid.

Question 14

What is a common sign of a fracture?

Answer 14

Swelling and deformity.

Question 15

Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a sign of hypothermia?

Answer 15

Increased heart rate.

Question 16

What is the priority of care for a patient with a suspected spinal injury?

Answer 16

Stabilization of the spine.

Question 17

True or False: You should remove a helmet from an injured mountain biker immediately.

Answer 17

False.

Question 18

What does the acronym SAMPLE stand for in patient history taking?

Answer 18

Signs, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake, Events leading up to injury.

Question 19

What is the recommended treatment for heat exhaustion?

Answer 19

Move the person to a cooler place and provide fluids.

Question 20

Fill in the blank: Always perform a _____ check before assisting an injured person.

Answer 20

scene safety.

Question 21

What is the first aid response for a sprained ankle?

Answer 21

Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation (RICE).

Question 22

True or False: A WFR can administer medications.

Answer 22

True, within their training limits.

Question 23

What is the best way to prevent mountain biking injuries?

Answer 23

Wearing proper gear and following safety guidelines.

Question 24

Multiple choice: Which of the following is a symptom of a concussion?

Answer 24

Confusion.

Question 25

What is the purpose of a triage system?

Answer 25

To prioritize patients based on the severity of their condition.

Question 26

Fill in the blank: In a wilderness setting, _____ is crucial for effective communication.

Answer 26

signaling.

Question 27

What should you do if you suspect a spinal injury?

Answer 27

Keep the person still and avoid movement.

Question 28

True or False: Mountain biking injuries are always life-threatening.

Answer 28

False.

Question 29

What does the term ‘evacuation’ refer to in wilderness first response?

Answer 29

Transporting an injured person to a location where they can receive advanced medical care.

Question 30

What is a common method for treating a burn?

Answer 30

Cool the burn with running water.

Question 31

Multiple choice: What is the best way to carry a patient in a remote area?

Answer 31

Use a stretcher or improvised carrying device.

Question 32

What should you assess first in a patient with multiple injuries?

Answer 32

Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABC).

Question 33

Fill in the blank: Always have a _____ with you when mountain biking.

Answer 33

buddy.

Question 34

What is the primary goal of wilderness first aid?

Answer 34

To stabilize the patient until professional help arrives.

Question 35

True or False: A WFR can perform CPR.

Answer 35

True.

Question 36

What is the importance of hydration during mountain biking?

Answer 36

To prevent dehydration and heat-related illnesses.

Question 37

What should you do if a patient is bleeding heavily?

Answer 37

Apply direct pressure and elevate the injury if possible.

Question 38

Multiple choice: Which of the following is a sign of dehydration?

Answer 38

Dark urine.

Question 39

What is the best way to treat a dislocated joint?

Answer 39

Immobilize the joint and seek medical help.

Question 40

Fill in the blank: Always assess _____ before providing care.

Answer 40

the environment.

Question 41

What is a critical factor in managing an emergency in the wilderness?

Answer 41

Effective communication.

Question 42

True or False: You should encourage a person with a suspected fracture to move the injured limb.

Answer 42

False.

Question 43

What is the typical duration of a WFR course?

Answer 43

Approximately 70-80 hours.

Question 44

What should be included in a basic first aid kit for mountain biking?

Answer 44

Bandages, antiseptic wipes, and a splint.

Question 45

Multiple choice: What is the most effective way to prevent hypothermia?

Answer 45

Dress in layers.

Question 46

What is the recommended response for a person experiencing an asthma attack?

Answer 46

Help them use their inhaler and find a calm position.

Question 47

Fill in the blank: A WFR must be able to _____ their own limitations.

Answer 47

recognize.

Question 48

What is the purpose of a safety plan in mountain biking?

Answer 48

To outline procedures for emergencies.

Question 49

True or False: You need special certification to be a WFR.

Answer 49

True.

Question 50

What is the first step in treating a snake bite?

Answer 50

Keep the patient calm and immobilize the affected limb.

Question 51

Multiple choice: Which of the following is a common sign of a heart attack?

Answer 51

Chest pain.

Question 52

What should you do if a mountain biker is having a seizure?

Answer 52

Clear the area and protect their head.

Question 53

Fill in the blank: Always have a _____ plan when biking in remote areas.

Answer 53

rescue.

Question 54

What is the best way to treat a sprained wrist?

Answer 54

Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation (RICE).

Question 55

True or False: You should give food or drink to an unconscious patient.

Answer 55

False.

Question 56

What is a key component of wilderness first aid training?

Answer 56

Scenario-based practice.

Question 57

Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a sign of stroke?

Answer 57

Rapid breathing.

Question 58

What is the primary concern for a patient with a broken leg?

Answer 58

Pain management and stabilization.

Question 59

Fill in the blank: A WFR should always carry a _____ for communication.

Answer 59

whistle.

Question 60

What should you assess in a patient with a suspected concussion?

Answer 60

Cognitive function and balance.

Question 61

True or False: A WFR can provide emotional support to patients.

Answer 61

True.

Question 62

What is the best method for treating a minor cut?

Answer 62

Clean the wound and apply a sterile bandage.

Question 63

Multiple choice: Which of the following is a risk factor for mountain biking injuries?

Answer 63

Inexperience.

Question 64

What should you do if a patient is allergic to a medication?

Answer 64

Avoid administering that medication and seek alternatives.

Question 65

Fill in the blank: It is important to _____ your first aid kit regularly.

Answer 65

check.

Question 66

What is the role of a spotter in mountain biking?

Answer 66

To assist and ensure safety while riding difficult terrain.

Question 67

True or False: You should always use a helmet while mountain biking.

Answer 67

True.

Question 68

What is the first action to take if someone is choking?

Answer 68

Encourage them to cough if they can.

Question 69

Multiple choice: What is the best way to treat a bee sting?

Answer 69

Remove the stinger and apply a cold pack.

Question 70

What should you do if you encounter a wild animal while biking?

Answer 70

Stay calm and slowly back away.

Question 71

Fill in the blank: Always inform someone about your _____ before going mountain biking.

Answer 71

route.

Question 72

What is one of the main goals of wilderness first aid?

Answer 72

To preserve life.

Question 73

True or False: It’s acceptable to move an injured person without assessing the situation.

Answer 73

False.

Question 74

What is a common sign of a broken bone?

Answer 74

Inability to move the affected area.

Question 75

Multiple choice: Which of the following is the best way to treat frostbite?

Answer 75

Gradually rewarm the affected area.

Question 76

What should you do if a patient is experiencing severe anxiety?

Answer 76

Provide reassurance and help them focus on their breathing.

Question 77

Fill in the blank: Maintaining _____ is crucial for a WFR.

Answer 77

skills.

Question 78

What is the primary focus during a wilderness rescue?

Answer 78

Safety of the rescuer and the patient.

Question 79

True or False: A WFR can work independently in the wilderness.

Answer 79

True, but should follow protocols.

Question 80

What should be included in a rescue plan?

Answer 80

Evacuation routes and communication methods.

Question 81

Multiple choice: What is a common treatment for a sprained ankle?

Answer 81

RICE method.

Question 82

What should you do if you encounter a medical emergency while biking?

Answer 82

Assess the scene and provide care as needed.

Question 83

What is the most important topic in sports outdoor medicine?

Answer 83

The management of someone injured

Question 84

What are the four effective survey techniques used in initial assessment?

Answer 84

• Scene survey
• Primary survey
• Secondary survey
• Ongoing survey

Question 85

What is the first survey technique when assessing an injured patient?

Answer 85

Scene survey

Question 86

What should you ensure before entering a scene to assess a victim?

Answer 86

The scene is safe

Question 87

What is the primary purpose of the primary survey?

Answer 87

To keep the victim alive

Question 88

What acronym is used to prioritize treatment during the primary survey?

Answer 88

MARCH

Question 89

What does the ‘M’ in the MARCH acronym stand for?

Answer 89

Massive hemorrhage

Question 90

What does the ‘A’ in the MARCH acronym represent?

Answer 90

Airway (with C-spine precautions)

Question 91

What is the third priority in the MARCH acronym?

Answer 91

Respiration

Question 92

What should be prioritized even before managing the airway?

Answer 92

Preventing major hemorrhage

Question 93

What steps should be taken to stop heavy bleeding?

Answer 93

Direct pressure or a tourniquet

Question 94

What should you assume if a victim is unresponsive?

Answer 94

There is a C-spine injury

Question 95

What precaution should be taken for Airway during the primary assessment?

Answer 95

Hold the C-spine

Question 96

What should you check for after assessing the airway?

Answer 96

Respiration

Question 97

What falls under Circulation when using the MARCH acronym?

Answer 97

Checking the pulse

Question 98

What action should be taken if the victim is not breathing or has no pulse?

Answer 98

Initiate CPR

Question 99

Fill in the blank: The second survey technique is the _______.

Answer 99

Primary survey

Question 100

True or False: The scene survey should take a long time to complete.

Answer 100

False

Question 101

What is the primary focus of Hypothermia/Hyperthermia management?

Answer 101

Ensure the patient is warm and dry and assess the need for evacuation (Hike vs. Helicopter)

This highlights the importance of environmental factors in patient care.

Question 102

What does MARCH stand for in the primary survey?

Answer 102

MARCH prioritization ensures patient stability

MARCH is a mnemonic used in trauma assessment.

Question 103

What does the acronym SAMPLE represent in the secondary survey?

Answer 103

• Symptoms/Sübjective
• Allergies
• Medications
• Prior medical history
• Last oral intake
• Events leading up to illness/injury

SAMPLE helps gather comprehensive patient history.

Question 104

What should you do if a patient cannot answer questions during the secondary survey?

Answer 104

Ask family, friends, or bystanders for information

This approach ensures critical information is obtained.

Question 105

What is the purpose of the ongoing survey?

Answer 105

Repeat the assessment as often as needed, especially if the patient is unstable

Continuous monitoring is vital until medical help arrives.

Question 106

What does the acronym AVPU stand for in the ongoing survey?

Answer 106

• Alert
• Verbal
• Pain
• Unresponsive

AVPU is used to assess a patient’s responsiveness.

Question 107

When should you move a patient to a safer location?

Answer 107

If the scene is not safe for the victim

Ensuring safety is paramount, but careful consideration of potential spinal injuries is necessary.

Question 108

What is the risk-to-benefit ratio in scene safety?

Answer 108

Weighing the risks of moving the victim against the dangers of staying in the current location

This assessment is crucial in emergency situations.

Question 109

What is the blood sweep?

Answer 109

A quick assessment to identify major bleeding and deformities

Effective for detecting both external and potential internal injuries.

Question 110

Why is it important to look under layers of clothing during a blood sweep?

Answer 110

Blood can collect between layers, indicating hidden injuries

Comprehensive assessment includes examining all areas of the body.

Question 111

What should you do if a patient is bleeding internally?

Answer 111

Evacuate them as quickly as possible

Internal bleeding is a critical condition that requires immediate medical attention.

Question 112

True or False: You should not check the ground or street for blood during the blood sweep.

Answer 112

False

Checking the surroundings can provide additional information about the patient’s condition.

Question 113

What is a significant difference between wound management in the wilderness and urban settings?

Answer 113

Backcountry wounds are often dirty or may become dirty, and there is often a lack of first aid materials.

Question 114

What is the first step in managing a wound after the primary survey?

Answer 114

Gain exposure to the injured area.

Question 115

What is hemostasis?

Answer 115

Stopping the bleeding.

Question 116

What does ‘M’ stand for in the MARCH protocol?

Answer 116

Massive hemorrhage.

Question 117

What is the first step in stopping any blood loss?

Answer 117

Application of direct pressure.

Question 118

What should you do if direct pressure does not stop the bleeding?

Answer 118

Use a tourniquet.

Question 119

True or False: Elevation of the limb above the heart is often sufficient to stop bleeding.

Answer 119

False.

Question 120

Where should a tourniquet be placed?

Answer 120

About two to four inches above the wound.

Question 121

What should you mark on the patient’s forehead after placing a tourniquet?

Answer 121

The time that you placed the tourniquet.

Question 122

What is the most important intervention to prevent infection in wound management?

Answer 122

High-pressure irrigation.

Question 123

What should be used to create a high-pressure stream of water for irrigation?

Answer 123

A catheter tip or a plastic bag with a small hole.

Question 124

What should be done to visible foreign matter in a wound?

Answer 124

Remove it to minimize infection, inflammation, and discomfort.

Question 125

What is the purpose of dressing a wound?

Answer 125

To protect wounds from the environment and help prevent infection.

Question 126

Fill in the blank: If a commercial pad or dressing is not available, improvise using a _______.

Answer 126

4 x 4 pad covered in an antibiotic ointment.

Question 127

What types of injuries require consideration for evacuation?

Answer 127

• Complex or mutilating wounds
• Grossly contaminated with penetrating debris
• Laceration of eyelid, ear or cartilage
• Penetration of bone, joint or tendon
• Bites of hands, legs or feet
• Amputations

Question 128

What recent studies suggest about wound scabbing?

Answer 128

Keeping the wound environment moist promotes healing and reduces scar formation.

Question 129

What should be done daily to keep a wound moist?

Answer 129

Apply Vaseline, honey, or a clean and moist dressing.

Question 130

True or False: Wounds should be kept exposed to the air to promote healing.

Answer 130

False.

Question 131

What should be done to wounds to minimize scab formation?

Answer 131

Rinse daily and inspect dressings.

Question 132

What are the three rules for wound healing?

Answer 132

Keep them clean, keep them moist, keep them covered

Question 133

What are the two courses of action for closing a laceration in the wilderness?

Answer 133

• Primary closure
• Delayed primary closure

Question 134

What methods can be used for primary closure of a laceration?

Answer 134

• Sutures
• Staples
• Tape
• Skin glue

Question 135

What is the advantage of primary closure compared to delayed primary closure?

Answer 135

Immediate treatment with better mobility and less pain

Question 136

What is the main disadvantage of primary closure?

Answer 136

Higher risk of infection

Question 137

What is used to achieve closure with steri-strips or tape?

Answer 137

Place steri-strips or tape over the wound and pull the wound together

Question 138

Where are staples appropriate for use when closing wounds?

Answer 138

Anywhere except the face

Question 139

What is skin glue used for?

Answer 139

Closing small and uncomplicated lacerations

Question 140

What must be done to flexible parts of the body after applying skin glue?

Answer 140

Immobilize the joint with a splint

Question 141

How are burn injuries classified?

Answer 141

• By Depth
• By Area
• Location on the body

Question 142

What are the three depths of burns?

Answer 142

• Superficial
• Partial thickness
• Full thickness

Question 143

What is a characteristic of superficial burns?

Answer 143

Skin can become red and painful

Question 144

What treatment is recommended for superficial burns?

Answer 144

Aloe-vera gel and cool damp cloths

Question 145

What should be avoided to prevent increased scar formation in superficial burns?

Answer 145

Leaving the wound to dry

Question 146

What is the treatment for partial and full-thickness burns?

Answer 146

• Gently clean with cool water
• Trim away loose skin
• Apply antibacterial ointment
• Cover with a non-adhesive sterile dressing

Question 147

What should not be applied directly to burns for more than 15 minutes?

Answer 147

Ice

Question 148

What is the Rule of Nines used for?

Answer 148

To aid in decision making for evacuation based on total body surface area affected by burns

Question 149

What percentage of body surface area does each arm represent in the Rule of Nines?

Answer 149

9%

Question 150

What percentage of body surface area does each leg represent in the Rule of Nines?

Answer 150

18%

Question 151

When should a burn victim be evacuated?

Answer 151

• Partial thickness burns greater than 10% body surface area
• Full thickness burns greater than 1% body surface area
• Burns involving the face, hands, feet, or genitals
• Electrical burns
• If the burn victim is medically ill
• Uncontrolled pain
• Burns complicated by smoke or heat inhalation

Question 152

What is a blister?

Answer 152

A pocket of fluid between the upper layers of skin

Commonly develops from friction, freezing, or burns.

Question 153

What are the common causes of blisters?

Answer 153

• Friction (e.g., from poorly fitting shoes)
• Freezing of the skin (frostbite)
• Burns

Question 154

What is the purpose of a blister?

Answer 154

To protect and cushion the layers underneath the skin

Question 155

What can blisters be filled with?

Answer 155

• Serum
• Plasma
• Blood
• Pus

Question 156

What is a ‘hot spot’ in relation to blisters?

Answer 156

A sore spot that usually forms before a blister

Question 157

What should you do if a small blister or hot spot forms?

Answer 157

Place a dual-layer pad over that area

Question 158

What is Blist-o-ban?

Answer 158

A material used to address friction and shear forces on the skin

Question 159

How does a dual-layer pad prevent blisters?

Answer 159

It allows the bandage to glide smoothly, deflecting friction and shear forces away from the skin

Question 160

What is the key to preventing friction blisters on feet?

Answer 160

Reducing hot spots by properly breaking in boots and reducing moisture by wearing wool socks

Question 161

How can you treat a blister that has already formed?

Answer 161

Cut a hole in the moleskin and place the ring around the blister

Question 162

When should a blister be opened?

Answer 162

If it is 2 cm in diameter or larger, or if it has already ruptured

Question 163

What is Medihoney?

Answer 163

A honey-based treatment used in wound care to prevent infection and speed healing

Question 164

What are the benefits of using Manuka honey in wound care?

Answer 164

Contains methylglyoxal which helps fight a broader range of bacteria strains

Question 165

What are some over-the-counter topical first aid antibiotics?

Answer 165

• Bacitracin
• Neomycin
• Polymyxin B sulfate

Question 166

What is Silvadene Cream 1% used for?

Answer 166

As a topical antimicrobial drug for prevention and treatment of wounds and burns

Question 167

What are the four components of a tooth?

Answer 167

• Enamel
• Dentin
• Cementum
• Pulp

Question 168

What is the hardest substance in the body?

Answer 168

Enamel

Question 169

What is the function of dentin?

Answer 169

Lies beneath enamel and cementum; makes up a significant portion of the tooth

Question 170

What happens if the dentin tubules become exposed?

Answer 170

Teeth become very sensitive to cold and air

Question 171

What is the function of cementum?

Answer 171

Covers the root of the tooth and is similar in hardness to bone

Question 172

What does the pulp of a tooth contain?

Answer 172

Nerves and blood vessels that supply the tooth

Question 173

What is pulpitis?

Answer 173

Inflammation of the pulp, primary cause of toothaches

Question 174

What can cause inflammation of the pulp?

Answer 174

• Bacterial entry from tooth decay
• Trauma
• Fillings placed near the pulp

Question 175

What symptoms indicate pulpitis?

Answer 175

• Sensitivity to heat or cold
• Pain after removal of stimulus

Question 176

What are common symptoms of pulpitis?

Answer 176

Sensitivity or pain to stimuli such as cold, hot, sweets, or tapping

Question 177

What initial treatment should be done for pulpitis?

Answer 177

Remove irritants or debris, usually by swishing the mouth with warm water

Question 178

What medication can be given to reduce pain from pulpitis?

Answer 178

Ibuprofen

Question 179

What should patients with pulpitis do after initial treatment?

Answer 179

See a dentist upon returning home

Question 180

What should you do when a filling or crown falls out?

Answer 180

Remove debris and fill the hole with temporary filling material

Question 181

What are the two products you can use for temporary fillings?

Answer 181

• Cavit
• IRM

Question 182

What is a characteristic of Cavit?

Answer 182

Comes pre-mixed and hardens once placed in the mouth

Question 183

What is the advantage of IRM?

Answer 183

Can be mixed to any desired consistency

Question 184

What types of activities commonly lead to dental trauma?

Answer 184

• Mountain biking
• Skiing
• Climbing
• Rafting

Question 185

What is a common symptom of a chipped tooth?

Answer 185

An obvious chip in the tooth, usually without pulp exposure

Question 186

What is the treatment for a chipped tooth?

Answer 186

Pain management and smoothing sharp edges with temporary filling

Question 187

What defines a tooth fracture?

Answer 187

A very large part of the tooth is broken with loose fragments present

Question 188

What should be done for a fractured tooth?

Answer 188

Remove loose fragments and cover the tooth with a temporary filling

Question 189

What happens when a tooth is knocked loose?

Answer 189

The tooth can reattach and become secure again over time

Question 190

What should patients do if their tooth is knocked loose?

Answer 190

Eat soft foods and take Ibuprofen

Question 191

What is the best immediate action if a tooth is knocked out?

Answer 191

Try to put the tooth back in its socket

Question 192

What is the success rate of a replanted tooth if done within 20 minutes?

Answer 192

High rate of success

Question 193

What should you not do when handling a knocked-out tooth?

Answer 193

• Scrub
• Scrape
• Disinfect
• Let the root surface dry out

Question 194

What is the best solution to store a knocked-out tooth?

Answer 194

• Hank’s Balanced Salt Solution
• Milk

Question 195

How long can a tooth last in Hank’s Balanced Salt Solution?

Answer 195

24 hours

Question 196

How long can a tooth last in milk?

Answer 196

About 6 hours

Question 197

What are some not so great solutions for tooth storage?

Answer 197

• Salt water
• Saliva

Question 198

What is a poor solution for tooth storage?

Answer 198

• Water
• Sports drinks

Question 199

Why is water not a good storage medium for a tooth?

Answer 199

Destroys the cells on the tooth

Question 200

What is a common limitation of saliva as a storage medium?

Answer 200

Contains enzymes and bacteria that can damage a tooth over time

Question 201

What types of injuries are most commonly associated with mountain biking?

Answer 201

Wounds and bruises

Wounds and bruises account for the highest percentage of injuries sustained while biking.

Question 202

What percentage of mountain biking injuries are fractures?

Answer 202

4%

Fractures are among the less common types of injuries in mountain biking.

Question 203

Which body parts are most commonly injured in mountain biking?

Answer 203

• Neck
• Knees
• Buttocks/Groin
• Upper Extremities

These areas are where bikers most frequently seek medical care.

Question 204

What is the recommended safety gear for mountain bikers to prevent head injuries?

Answer 204

Helmet

Bikers should always wear a helmet, which should be checked for integrity after any impact.

Question 205

What are the clinical findings that may indicate a skull fracture in head injury cases?

Answer 205

Clear liquid leaking from the ears or nose

This symptom constitutes a medical emergency.

Question 206

What are the common signs of a concussion?

Answer 206

• Headache
• Slurred speech
• Vomiting
• Delayed speech
• Disorientation
• Memory deficits
• Intense emotions
• Vertigo
• Nausea
• Vacant stare
• Delayed motor responses
• Confusion
• Loss of consciousness
• Dizziness

These symptoms may vary based on the severity and location of the concussion.

Question 207

What is Micro-Whiplash syndrome associated with?

Answer 207

Tail vibrations on the neck

This syndrome can occur over extended periods while biking.

Question 208

What can help manage generalized neck and back pain from biking?

Answer 208

• Massaging
• Ice
• Stretching
• Non-sedating pain relievers

These methods can alleviate discomfort from micro-injuries.

Question 209

What conditions can arise from improper saddle height in biking?

Answer 209

• Patellar tendonitis
• Quadriceps tendonitis

These conditions often present with patellar pain, swelling, and joint tenderness.

Question 210

What symptoms can occur if the saddle is positioned too high?

Answer 210

• Saddle sores
• Chafing

These issues result in localized skin irritation.

Question 211

How can saddle sores and chafing be prevented?

Answer 211

• Keeping the area clean and dry
• Wearing seamless shorts

These practices can help alleviate symptoms associated with saddle sores.

Question 212

What is the recommended action if concussion symptoms worsen and last longer than 15 minutes?

Answer 212

Evacuate the patient

This is crucial in managing head injuries effectively.

Question 213

True or False: Most fractures and dislocations in mountain biking occur in the lower extremities.

Answer 213

False

Most fractures and dislocations occur in the upper extremity.

Question 214

Fill in the blank: The treatment of a concussion varies with the _______.

Answer 214

[severity]

Mild concussions often require monitoring, while severe cases may need intensive care.

Question 215

What is the proper seat height for a bike rider?

Answer 215

The rider should sit on the seat with their heel on the pedal, and the leg on the pedal should be straight.

Question 216

How should the seat angle be adjusted for male and female riders?

Answer 216

For males, the seat angle is generally slightly elevated in the back; for females, it is generally depressed in the back.

Question 217

What is the recommended handlebar position relative to the saddle?

Answer 217

The handlebar should be positioned one to four inches below the level of the saddle.

Question 218

What percentage of a rider’s body weight should rest on the arms while riding?

Answer 218

About one third of the rider’s body weight.

Question 219

What adjustments can be made to handlebars during long rides?

Answer 219

The height and positioning of the handlebars can be adjusted to help with back and neck pain.

Question 220

When did rock climbing begin as a distinct athletic activity?

Answer 220

In the last nineteenth century in Europe.

Question 221

What is the origin of rock climbing according to recent research?

Answer 221

Rock climbing began in Africa millions of years ago with our primate ancestors.

Question 222

What is the most common injury associated with rock climbing?

Answer 222

Falling is the most common injury.

Question 223

How do climbing ropes help reduce the force felt by a climber during a fall?

Answer 223

Climbing ropes are dynamic and can stretch up to 30% of their length.

Question 224

What happens when a climber passes their leg in front of the rope during a fall?

Answer 224

The rope can grab their leg and flip them upside down, potentially causing head or neck impact.

Question 225

What is the most dangerous moment for a climber?

Answer 225

The transition to descending after reaching the top of a route.

Question 226

What critical mistake can lead to climbing deaths during descent?

Answer 226

Thinking they are secured to their second system and falling the full length of the route.

Question 227

What can happen to a belayer during a fall?

Answer 227

The belayer can be slammed into the wall by a falling climber due to a lack of slack.

Question 228

What types of injuries can occur to belayers?

Answer 228

Traumatic injuries including sprained and broken ankles and arms.

Question 229

What can happen to climbers if their belayer is injured or killed?

Answer 229

Climbers can become stranded.

Question 230

Fill in the blank: Rock climbing has been around for a very long time, with evidence of it dating back to the ______ century.

Question 231

True or False: Helmets worn while climbing can help reduce the risk of severe spinal traumas and concussions.

Question 232

What type of injuries are common in climbing?

Answer 232

Overuse injuries

These injuries often occur from overloading tendons, joints, and muscles.

Question 233

What are the five pulleys in the fingers named?

Answer 233

A1, A2, A3, A4, A5

A1, A3, and A5 are considered minor pulleys, while A2 and A4 are major pulleys.

Question 234

What is the primary function of the finger pulleys?

Answer 234

To prevent ‘bowstringing’

Pulleys hold tendons tightly to the bones.

Question 235

Which pulley is most commonly injured in climbers?

Answer 235

A2 pulley

The A2 pulley is often cited as the most injured pulley that presents to clinicians.

Question 236

What is the basic mechanism for flexor tendon pulley injury?

Answer 236

Force applied above what the pulley can tolerate

This often occurs when using the ‘crimp grip’.

Question 237

What is a recommended prevention method for pulley injuries?

Answer 237

Gentle climbing and focus on good technique

Climbers should prioritize using their feet for upward progress.

Question 238

What is the first step in healing a finger pulley injury?

Answer 238

Applying ice and taking an anti-inflammatory

Time off climbing is necessary until healing occurs.

Question 239

What materials are most rock climbing shoes made of?

Answer 239

Leather uppers with rubber toe and heel caps

The rubber is specially formulated to improve friction.

Question 240

Why do climbers wear climbing shoes several sizes smaller than street shoes?

Answer 240

To improve performance on different terrain

Features include downturned toes and stiff toe boxes.

Question 241

What is suspension trauma?

Answer 241

A condition where blood pools in the legs while in a harness

It can lead to lightheadedness or passing out.

Question 242

What are the symptoms of suspension trauma?

Answer 242

Lightheadedness and ultimately passing out

Symptoms can occur after over an hour of suspension, or within 5-10 minutes in 20% of cases.

Question 243

What is the highest priority for field care of a suspension trauma patient?

Answer 243

Urgent evacuation to the ground

This is crucial as the condition can be life-threatening.

Question 244

How many bones are in each foot?

Answer 244

28 bones

This represents nearly one-fourth of all the bones in the entire body.

Question 245

What is the role of the big toe during hiking?

Answer 245

Grips the feet to the walking surface

The big toe carries part of the body weight with each step but no weight rests on it when standing.

Question 246

How many arches does the foot have, and what is their purpose?

Answer 246

Three arches designed to act like springs

They aid in propulsion, store energy, and absorb shock.

Question 247

What issues can arise from having low arches or flat feet?

Answer 247

Heel pain, arch pain, plantar fasciitis

A person may walk with their feet rotated incorrectly.

Question 248

What problems can high arches cause?

Answer 248

Excessive pressure on the back part and forefoot areas

This can lead to heel pain and plantar fasciitis.

Question 249

What should be done with useless shoe inserts?

Answer 249

Remove them and replace with proper arch supports

Arch supports are a less expensive alternative to new shoes.

Question 250

What is the significance of activity-specific shoes?

Answer 250

They are designed for different movements

Running shoes for forward motion and basketball shoes for side-to-side movements.

Question 251

What can happen if the wrong shoes are used for outdoor support?

Answer 251

Knee, hip, and back pain

Old and worn-out shoes can lead to awkward foot strikes.

Question 252

How often should daily shoes be replaced?

Answer 252

Every six months at most

Monitor soles and replace or resole when support is low.

Question 253

What is the proper fit for hiking shoes?

Answer 253

Half-inch space between longest toe and front of shoe

Also, the index finger should fit between shoe and foot with little force.

Question 254

What is the importance of clipping toenails before a hike?

Answer 254

Prevents trauma to the nails

Long nails can be pushed into by shoes, causing blood to form under them.

Question 255

Is it better to wear one sock or two while hiking?

Answer 255

It comes down to personal preference

Both approaches can protect your feet if appropriate socks are used.

Question 256

What is the purpose of a thin, moisture-wicking synthetic sock?

Answer 256

Reduces friction and wicks moisture away from the foot

It is typically worn under an outer sock.

Question 257

What materials are commonly found in hiking socks?

Answer 257

A blend of fabrics for comfort, warmth, durability, and fast drying

Hiking socks are rarely made from a single fabric.

Question 258

What is the most popular material for hiking socks?

Answer 258

Wool

Wool is recommended above all other materials for hiking socks.

Question 259

What materials are commonly blended with wool in hiking socks?

Answer 259

• Synthetic materials
• Polyester
• Nylon
• Spandex

Blending improves durability and drying speed.

Question 260

What are the properties of polyester as a sock material?

Answer 260

Insulates, wicks moisture, and dries quickly

Polyester is a synthetic material.

Question 261

What is the role of nylon in hiking socks?

Answer 261

Adds durability and improves drying times

Nylon is occasionally used as the primary material.

Question 262

What are the characteristics of silk as a sock material?

Answer 262

Natural insulator, comfortable, lightweight, but not very durable

Silk is occasionally used in sock liners.

Question 263

What is the purpose of adding spandex to hiking socks?

Answer 263

Helps socks hold their shape and minimizes bunching and wrinkling

Spandex is included in small percentages.

Question 264

What type of socks should be avoided for hiking?

Answer 264

100% cotton socks

Cotton absorbs sweat and dries very slowly.

Question 265

What is a blister?

Answer 265

A pocket of fluid between the upper layers of skin, under the epidermis

Blisters commonly develop on the feet during hiking.

Question 266

What causes blisters to form?

Answer 266

Friction between the shoe and foot

Friction can be caused by the force of the shoe and the interaction of skin and sock.

Question 267

What is a ‘hot spot’ in the context of blisters?

Answer 267

A sore spot where blisters usually begin to form

Identifying hot spots early can help prevent full-blown blisters.

Question 268

What material can be placed over a hot spot to prevent blisters?

Answer 268

Dual-layer pads, such as Blist-o-ban

These pads help reduce friction and pressure.

Question 269

How should a blister that has already formed be treated?

Answer 269

Cut a hole in moleskin or duct tape and place it around the blister

This reduces pressure and pain on the blister.

Question 270

When is it appropriate to open a blister?

Answer 270

If the blister is 2 cm in diameter or larger

Opening smaller blisters is generally not recommended.

Question 271

What are the three ways heat moves from the body?

Answer 271

• Radiation
• Conduction
• Convection

These methods describe how heat is lost to the environment.

Question 272

What is the normal human body temperature?

Answer 272

Around 98.6°F (37°C)

This temperature is crucial for understanding heat loss.

Question 273

What is the best conductor of heat?

Answer 273

Water

Water conducts heat away from the body effectively.

Question 274

What is the purpose of layering clothing for heat retention?

Answer 274

Traps body heat in dead air space and wicks moisture away

Layering prevents conductive and convective heat loss.

Question 275

What is the function of the base layer in clothing?

Answer 275

Moves or ‘wicks’ water away from the skin

The base layer is essential for moisture management.

Question 276

What is the purpose of the base layer in clothing?

Answer 276

To wick sweat away to keep you dry

This includes socks, underwear, and an initial pant/shirt base layer if in colder conditions.

Question 277

What is the function of the middle layer in clothing?

Answer 277

To retain body heat by creating ‘dead air’

This can include clothing such as shirts and pants.

Question 278

What is the role of the outer layer in clothing?

Answer 278

To act as a water- or wind-resistant barrier

This layer helps prevent convection loss of heat.

Question 279

Why is it prudent to pack multiple layers of clothing?

Answer 279

To adapt to changing weather conditions

You can peel off layers to cool down or add layers if it gets colder.

Question 280

What is a key characteristic of loose-fitting clothing in hot environments?

Answer 280

It facilitates ventilation by moving heat away from the body

Question 281

What is one of the primary benefits of wool as a fabric choice?

Answer 281

It is an excellent insulator and maintains insulation even when wet

Merino wool can hold 30% of its weight in water absorption without feeling wet.

Question 282

What makes ultra-fine merino wool a preferred choice?

Answer 282

It is itch-free, naturally breathable, moisture-wicking, and fast-drying

Question 283

What are the advantages of synthetic fabrics like fleece?

Answer 283

Quick-drying, durable, and affordable

Synthetics have 3D patterns that imitate wool.

Question 284

What is ‘down’ in the context of insulation?

Answer 284

The under plumage found beneath the feathers of ducks and geese

Down provides natural insulation.

Question 285

What does the fill rating of down insulation indicate?

Answer 285

The amount of goose down added to the coat or sleeping bag

Higher numbers indicate more insulation and warmth.

Question 286

What is a significant drawback of down insulation when wet?

Answer 286

It clumps and loses its ability to create dead air space

Question 287

What are the characteristics of silk as a fabric?

Answer 287

Soft, thin, and light; good for cool weather

Silk does not wick moisture as well as wool or synthetics.

Question 288

Why is cotton considered a poor choice for outdoor activities?

Answer 288

It does not wick moisture effectively and does not dry quickly

Wet cotton can lead to hypothermia.

Question 289

What is the phrase used to describe the dangers of cotton in outdoor activities?

Answer 289

‘Cotton kills’

Question 290

What are synthetic fibers primarily made from?

Answer 290

Chemicals created to produce fabrics like polyester, rayon, and acrylic

Question 291

What are some advantages of synthetic fibers?

Answer 291

Resistant to insects and fungus, cheaper to produce, and create dead space

Question 292

What is a serious drawback of synthetic fibers?

Answer 292

They will melt and have little to no ability to absorb water

Question 293

Why are synthetic clothes considered ideal in wet environments?

Answer 293

They always insulate, even when wet

Question 294

What are the disadvantages of synthetic clothing for hiking?

Answer 294

They are heavy and do not pack well

Question 295

What is Quallofil used for?

Answer 295

Sleeping bags and insulated jackets

Question 296

What are the drawbacks of Quallofil?

Answer 296

It is heavy and bulky

Question 297

What is PolarGuard known for?

Answer 297

It is considered the ‘premiere’ synthetic insulation

Question 298

What improvements have been made to PolarGuard?

Answer 298

Less bulky and improved insulating abilities by around 10%

Question 299

What are super thin fibers used for in clothing?

Answer 299

They create dead air space and more insulation

Question 300

Name two examples of super thin fibers.

Answer 300

Primaloft and Thinsulate

Question 301

What is the purpose of the Base layer in clothing?

Answer 301

To wick sweat away and keep you dry

Question 302

What are examples of high-performance fabrics used for the Base layer?

Answer 302

• Wool
• Synthetic
• Silk

Question 303

What is the function of the Middle layer?

Answer 303

To retain body heat

Question 304

What materials are popular choices for the Middle layer?

Answer 304

• Wool
• Down
• Fleece
• Synthetics with high-loft options

Question 305

What are some suitable options for wet weather in the Middle layer?

Answer 305

Synthetic pile or fleece options

Question 306

What is the role of the Outer layer?

Answer 306

To serve as a water- or wind-resistant barrier

Question 307

What features should an Outer layer have for wet conditions?

Answer 307

• Waterproof
• Sealed seams
• Zipper guards
• Cinch-able hoods

Question 308

What is a good rule of thumb for the Mid-layer in colder weather?

Answer 308

Plan on wearing a synthetic as your go-to and pack an extra down jacket

Question 309

What should you remember about dressing for the outdoors?

Answer 309

What you wear keeps you safe against the elements

Question 310

Fill in the blank: There is no bad weather, only bad _______.

Answer 310

clothing

Question 311

What has caused a 50 percent decrease in skiing related injuries since the 1970s?

Answer 311

Improvement of equipment with safety release bindings and hard-shell boots that allow for better control

Question 312

What type of injuries have increased despite improvements in skiing equipment?

Answer 312

Soft tissue injuries

Question 313

What percentage of downhill skiing accidents are due to improper equipment maintenance?

Answer 313

Nearly 50 percent

Question 314

What is the primary cause of 70 percent of lower leg fractures and knee injuries while skiing?

Answer 314

Improper binding release

Question 315

What is the most common type of injury among skiers?

Answer 315

Soft tissue knee injuries

Question 316

Why are beginner skiers particularly susceptible to medial collateral ligament (MCL) injuries?

Answer 316

They are taught to use the ‘snowplow’ or ‘wedge’ technique, which can put stress on the MCL

Question 317

What should be done if a knee injury is suspected while skiing?

Answer 317

Immobilize the knee with a splint and take the patient off the hill

Question 318

What is the role of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee?

Answer 318

To prevent backward motion of the femur on the tibia and hyperextension at the knee

Question 319

What is a common symptom reported by skiers who suffer an ACL injury?

Answer 319

Hearing an audible ‘pop’ or ‘snap’ prior to the knee giving out

Question 320

What is a ‘boot top’ fracture?

Answer 320

A fracture that typically occurs at the top of the ski boot due to its hard shell providing support

Question 321

What is the most common upper extremity injury among skiers?

Answer 321

Skier’s thumb injury

Question 322

How does a skier’s thumb injury typically occur?

Answer 322

When the skier falls on their ski pole or the thumb catches snow during a fall

Question 323

What are the symptoms of skier’s thumb injury?

Answer 323

Tenderness in the area with deep throbbing pain

Question 324

What is the potential severity of head injuries in skiing?

Answer 324

They can cause a bleed in the brain

Question 325

What can cause an MCL tear while skiing?

Answer 325

The impact caused by one leg falling on another

Question 326

What is the common outcome of an ACL injury?

Answer 326

Popping sound during injury and potential knee instability

Question 327

What type of injuries may occur due to a fall affecting the shoulder?

Answer 327

Injuries to ligaments, muscles, and tendons

Question 328

What is the instinctual action that can lead to wrist injuries while skiing?

Answer 328

Reaching out a hand for support during a fall

Question 329

What is skier’s thumb?

Answer 329

An acute injury that occurs when falling with your hand in the ski pole strap, causing a ligament tear

Question 330

Fill in the blank: The most injured structure of the knee is the _______.

Answer 330

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)

Question 331

True or False: Most other skiing injuries are less severe than head injuries.

Answer 331

True

Question 332

What is a boot top fracture?

Answer 332

Fracture of the tibia and/or fibula above the top of the boot.

These fractures almost always require surgical intervention due to high non-union rates.

Question 333

What is the significance of helmet use in skiing?

Answer 333

Helmets offer limited protection beyond 12 mph and can create a false sense of security.

This may lead to reckless behaviors among skiers.

Question 334

What should be suspected when assisting a patient who has fallen?

Answer 334

A head injury and common signs of concussions.

Vigilance is necessary to identify these injuries.

Question 335

What is a toe side fall in snowboarding?

Answer 335

A fall where the snowboarder falls face forward toward the ground.

This can lead to clavicular fractures, shoulder separations, and head injuries.

Question 336

What injuries can occur from a toe side fall in snowboarding?

Answer 336

Clavicular fractures, shoulder separations, facial injuries, and head injuries.

If the snowboarder braces for the fall, it can result in severe wrist or humeral fractures.

Question 337

What is the most common wrist fracture seen among snowboarders?

Answer 337

‘Dinner fork’ fracture.

This term describes the characteristic appearance of the fracture.

Question 338

What is the impact of wrist guards in snowboarding?

Answer 338

They prevent wrist injuries but may transfer forces to proximal joints, causing forearm fractures and shoulder injuries.

Wrist guards are common protective equipment for snowboarders.

Question 339

What is a heel side fall in snowboarding?

Answer 339

A fall where the snowboarder falls backward toward the ground.

This can lead to buttock contusions, spinal compressions, and head injuries.

Question 340

What percentage of drowning victims are male?

Answer 340

Nearly 80%.

This statistic highlights a gender disparity in drowning occurrences.

Question 341

What role do drugs and alcohol play in drowning incidents?

Answer 341

They are involved in half of adolescent and adult deaths associated with water recreation.

Substance use significantly increases the risk of drowning.

Question 342

What is the leading cause of drowning deaths related to boating?

Answer 342

Failure to wear a personal flotation device (PFD).

This accounts for 88% of drowning deaths while boating.

Question 343

What happens to the lungs during drowning?

Answer 343

Victims inhale water, causing pulmonary damage and hypoxemia, leading to secondary organ damage.

The heart becomes ischemic, and neurological injury can result.

Question 344

What are common heart issues following drowning?

Answer 344

Heart arrhythmias, or irregular heartbeats.

These are typically secondary to severe hypoxemia.

Question 345

What is hypoxia?

Answer 345

A lack of oxygen that causes injury and inflammation in the brain, potentially leading to cerebral edema.

Oxygenation is crucial in managing submersion injuries.

Question 346

How does drowning behavior appear to untrained observers?

Answer 346

It can look like calm, safe behavior.

Drowning itself is quick and silent, often preceded by distress that may not be obvious.

Question 347

What is the instinctive drowning response?

Answer 347

A set of autonomic reactions occurring in the 20 to 60 seconds before sinking underwater.

Trained rescuers learn to recognize these movements.

Question 348

What should a rescuer use to approach a drowning victim?

Answer 348

A buoyant object or approach from behind

This helps prevent the victim from submerging the rescuer.

Question 349

What is the recommended technique if a rescuer is pushed underwater by a drowning victim?

Answer 349

Dive downwards to escape the victim

This technique allows the rescuer to avoid being held down.

Question 350

What is the first priority after rescuing a drowning victim?

Answer 350

Transport the victim to the water’s edge

This prepares the victim for removal from the water.

Question 351

How should a cooperative drowning victim be towed?

Answer 351

Held at the armpits

This method allows for better control and safety.

Question 352

How should an unconscious drowning victim be towed?

Answer 352

Held at the chin and cheeks

This ensures the mouth and nose are above water.

Question 353

What is the primary issue drowning causes?

Answer 353

An oxygenation problem

Drowning primarily affects the ability to breathe.

Question 354

What does the European Resuscitation Council recommend for rescue breaths during CPR?

Answer 354

Five rescue breaths instead of two

This increases the likelihood of reviving the patient.

Question 355

What is more important than post-submersion actions?

Answer 355

Prevention

Preventative measures can avoid drowning incidents altogether.

Question 356

What should be avoided while participating in water activities?

Answer 356

Alcohol

Alcohol impairs judgment and increases drowning risk.

Question 357

What safety equipment should everyone on a boat wear?

Answer 357

Approved personal flotation devices

These devices help keep the person’s head above water.

Question 358

How many thunderstorms occur worldwide each day?

Answer 358

Approximately 50,000

Thunderstorms are a common global phenomenon.

Question 359

How many people are estimated to be killed by lightning worldwide each year?

Answer 359

About 2,000

This figure is an estimate by National Geographic.

Question 360

Which region in the United States is most prone to lightning?

Answer 360

Florida

Florida experiences a high frequency of thunderstorms.

Question 361

What is the temperature reached by the heat of a lightning strike?

Answer 361

Around 27,000 C° (48,632 F°)

This extreme heat contributes to the formation of thunder.

Question 362

What phenomenon is created by the rapid expansion of compressed air from a lightning strike?

Answer 362

Thunder

The shock wave produced results in the loud noise associated with lightning.

Question 363

Where do most lightning deaths occur?

Answer 363

Open fields, sport parks, in/on water, under trees, on beaches, working on farm equipment

These locations are particularly dangerous during thunderstorms.

Question 364

Fill in the blank: Lightning strikes the earth more than ______ times each second.

Answer 364

100

This statistic emphasizes the frequency of lightning activity.

Question 365

What is positive lightning?

Answer 365

Lightning that originates from the top of a thunderstorm, which carries a large positive charge.

Question 366

Why is positive lightning particularly dangerous?

Answer 366

It frequently strikes away from the rain core, usually ahead of the thunderstorm, striking areas considered low risk.

Question 367

What is the recommended action before a storm strikes?

Answer 367

Get to shelter.

Question 368

What is ground current?

Answer 368

Electricity that spreads out in the ground after a lightning strike, potentially causing injury.

Question 369

What is side splash in the context of lightning injuries?

Answer 369

Lightning that jumps from an object to a person or from one person to another.

Question 370

What are upward streamers?

Answer 370

High objects and the ground that produce leaders rising just prior to lightning strikes.

Question 371

What is a direct strike?

Answer 371

Lightning that hits someone directly from the sky.

Question 372

What are contact strikes?

Answer 372

Lightning that enters a person through wiring or water pipes.

Question 373

What is blunt trauma in relation to lightning injuries?

Answer 373

Injuries caused by the concussive force of the lightning strike or being thrown by muscular contraction.

Question 374

What percentage of lightning deaths are caused by ground current?

Answer 374

50-55%.

Question 375

What is the most common cause of death in lightning strikes?

Answer 375

Cardiopulmonary arrest.

Question 376

What should be done for a person in respiratory arrest after a lightning strike?

Answer 376

They may need only artificial respiration to prevent secondary hypoxic arrest.

Question 377

What is the MARCH protocol?

Answer 377

A guideline to follow in emergencies, particularly for lightning strike victims.

Question 378

What should you do if you hear thunder?

Answer 378

Seek shelter indoors.

Question 379

What are some tips to reduce lightning strike risk outdoors?

Answer 379

• Avoid open fields
• Stay away from tall, isolated trees
• Spread out in groups
• Set up camp in low areas
• Stay away from water and metal objects

Question 380

True or False: A tent offers protection from lightning.

Answer 380

False.

Question 381

What is flashover in the context of lightning strikes?

Answer 381

The electrical current flowing on the outside of the body after a lightning strike.

Question 382

What can happen to the electrical current during a lightning strike?

Answer 382

It may enter the body through cranial orifices and flow through the body.

Question 383

What is the potential distance lightning can strike from a thunderstorm?

Answer 383

Up to 5 or 10 miles (8 or 16 kilometers).

Question 384

Fill in the blank: The current from a lightning flash will easily travel for _______.

Answer 384

long distances.

Question 385

What offers the best protection from lightning?

Answer 385

A house or other substantial building

People should stay away from windows and doors and avoid contact with anything that conducts electricity.

Question 386

What should you do if you see lightning or hear thunder?

Answer 386

Go indoors

Wait at least 30 minutes after the last clap of thunder before leaving shelter.

Question 387

Do rubber tires protect you from lightning?

Answer 387

No

Lightning flows around the outside of a car, not through the rubber tires.

Question 388

What is the primary factor in avalanche survival?

Answer 388

The amount of time someone is buried in the snow

Asphyxiation is the predominant mechanism of death among avalanche victims.

Question 389

What are the four elements required for an avalanche to occur?

Answer 389

1. A slab of snow
2. A weak layer of snow
3. A trigger (like new snow)
4. A slope angle steep enough for snow to slide, generally between 25-55 degrees

Slope angle should be one of the first considerations when traveling in the backcountry.

Question 390

What is the second-largest cause of natural avalanches?

Answer 390

Changes in the snowpack, such as melting due to the sun

Most avalanches occur spontaneously during storms with increased snowfall.

Question 391

True or False: Avalanches can be triggered by loud sounds.

Answer 391

False

Contrary to popular belief, avalanches are not triggered by loud sounds.

Question 392

What group accounts for the largest number of backcountry users killed in avalanches?

Answer 392

Snowmobilers

Human factors contribute to nearly all avalanche accidents.

Question 393

What speeds can avalanches reach in less than 10 seconds?

Answer 393

Up to 100 mph

Trauma is also a cause of death and injury for avalanche victims.

Question 394

Fill in the blank: To be truly safe from an avalanche, a person needs to take an _______.

Answer 394

[avalanche safety course]

Understanding avalanches is critical in wilderness medicine.

Question 395

What has dramatically increased over the past two decades regarding avalanches?

Answer 395

Injury and death rates

This increase is largely due to human factors.

Question 396

What is a rare cause of death among avalanche victims?

Answer 396

Hypothermia

Asphyxiation is the predominant cause of death.

Question 397

What is the role of slope angle in avalanches?

Answer 397

It is a primary factor in every avalanche

Generally, a slope angle between 25-55 degrees is steep enough for snow to slide.

Question 398

What percentage of avalanche victims sustain significant blunt trauma?

Answer 398

As many as one-third

Trauma is a significant cause of death and injury in avalanches.

Question 399

What is the typical range of slope angles where avalanches commonly occur?

Answer 399

36-38 degrees

Not all avalanches start on slopes with these precise angles.

Question 400

What is remote triggering in the context of avalanches?

Answer 400

Triggering a slide from below on a gentle slope connected to a steeper slope

This is common in avalanche run-out zones.

Question 401

What is the recommended practice when crossing avalanche run-out zones?

Answer 401

Cross one at a time and keep a watchful eye on one another.

Question 402

What percentage of avalanche victims have massive trauma as the primary cause of death?

Answer 402

About one-fourth.

Question 403

What types of injuries are commonly sustained by avalanche victims?

Answer 403

• Spinal fractures
• Long bone fractures
• Blunt abdominal trauma
• Head injuries

Question 404

How does air pressure under an avalanche compare to atmospheric pressure?

Answer 404

Higher than atmospheric pressure.

Question 405

What is the survival rate for avalanche victims rescued within 18 minutes?

Answer 405

Higher than 91%.

Question 406

What happens to the survival rate for avalanche victims buried between 19 and 35 minutes?

Answer 406

Drops to 34%.

Question 407

What are the two reasons air pockets fail for avalanche victims?

Answer 407

• Heat from expired air causes ice to form around the mouth
• Re-breathing expired air leads to carbon dioxide inhalation and asphyxiation.

Question 408

What are critical rules to follow when traveling on snow terrain?

Answer 408

• Never go directly above any member of your party
• Avoid gullies and narrow valleys
• Travel on ridgelines or in dense forest
• Cross exposed areas one person at a time
• Look for ‘red flags’ like collapsing or cracking snow
• Start on low angle slopes less than 25°
• Call the Forest Service for current snow conditions
• Carry avalanche rescue equipment.

Question 409

What should survivors do if an avalanche is witnessed?

Answer 409

Maintain sight of the victim and make a mental note of their last seen area.

Question 410

What are the basic avalanche survival and rescue equipment?

Answer 410

• Transceivers (beacons)
• Shovels
• Probes

Question 411

What is the ‘golden eighteen minutes’ in avalanche rescue?

Answer 411

The critical time frame after burial within which a victim can be found.

Question 412

What should rescuers do with their transceivers when searching for a buried victim?

Answer 412

Switch from ‘send’ to ‘receive’ mode.

Question 413

What is the primary focus of care for avalanche victims?

Answer 413

The MARCH protocol.

Question 414

What environmental condition can accelerate core body cooling after an avalanche burial?

Answer 414

Exposure to wind.

Question 415

Fill in the blank: Most injuries can be avoided by good decision making, minimizing risk by traveling wisely with good techniques, and avoiding _______ terrain.

Answer 415

[high-risk]

Question 416

What is the primary goal to avoid in avalanche scenarios?

Answer 416

To never be in an avalanche.

Question 417

What do avalanche airbags do?

Answer 417

Help a person avoid being buried by making them a larger object, forcing them toward the surface.

Question 418

What principle do avalanche airbags work on?

Answer 418

Inverse granular convection.

Question 419

How do avalanches behave?

Answer 419

Like granular materials, fluid-like, where smaller particles settle and larger particles rise.

Question 420

What is the effect of deploying an avalanche airbag correctly?

Answer 420

Significantly reduced chances of complete burial.

Question 421

What is the purpose of the Avalung device?

Answer 421

To help victims breathe during avalanche burial by drawing breath over a large surface area.

Question 422

What happens to a victim’s breath during an avalanche burial?

Answer 422

Snow melts from the heat of the breath and refreezes, blocking oxygen flow and allowing CO2 to accumulate.

Question 423

What tragic event occurred in September 2015 in Zion National Park?

Answer 423

A flash flood killed seven highly trained canyoners.

Question 424

What warning did the canyoners ignore before the flash flood?

Answer 424

A moderate level warning of flooding from the National Weather Service.

Question 425

What is a flash flood?

Answer 425

A flood that begins within six hours of heavy rainfall.

Question 426

What is the second leading cause of natural disaster-related deaths in the U.S.?

Answer 426

Flash flooding.

Question 427

How many deaths occur annually due to flash floods in the U.S.?

Answer 427

Approximately 100 deaths.

Question 428

Where can flash floods occur?

Answer 428

Anytime and anywhere, not just wilderness areas.

Question 429

What factors influence the formation of flash floods?

Answer 429

Weather conditions, topography, and soil conditions.

Question 430

Why are arid deserts particularly susceptible to flash floods?

Answer 430

Due to impermeable clay-like soil, funneling effects of slot canyons, and infrequency of storms.

Question 431

What can happen when adventurers are in the backcountry during a flash flood?

Answer 431

They may see blue skies while it rains heavily miles away.

Question 432

What color is the head of a flash flood often described as?

Answer 432

Dark brown due to debris, dirt, and rock.

Question 433

What does the head of a flash flood do?

Answer 433

Acts as a ‘moving dam’ and can slow down speed, causing water to back up.

Question 434

True or False: A small flood can knock a person over.

Answer 434

True.

Question 435

What percentage of flood-related fatalities in the U.S. occur in vehicles?

Answer 435

More than half

This highlights the dangers of being in a vehicle during a flood.

Question 436

What happens to most vehicles when submerged in six inches of water?

Answer 436

Lose complete control

Most vehicles begin to float in a foot of water.

Question 437

What should you do if your vehicle becomes surrounded by water?

Answer 437

Abandon your vehicle and seek higher ground

This is crucial for safety during a flood.

Question 438

What types of debris can floodwaters carry?

Answer 438

Trees and boulders

This debris can harm or kill anyone in its path.

Question 439

What is the recommended action if caught in a flood?

Answer 439

Seek higher ground immediately

This is vital to avoid injury or death.

Question 440

What is the best way to prevent flood-related injuries?

Answer 440

Prevention through planning and exercising caution

Being aware of flooding potential is essential.

Question 441

What does ‘turn around, don’t drown’ (TADD) mean?

Answer 441

A warning to avoid driving through flooded areas

This phrase emphasizes the dangers of floodwaters.

Question 442

What is the average normal human body temperature?

Answer 442

98.6°F (37°C)

This is critical in understanding heat-related illnesses.

Question 443

What is hyperthermia?

Answer 443

A rise in core temperature above 98.6°F (37°C)

Occurs when the body can’t divest excess heat.

Question 444

What are the three ways the body loses heat?

Answer 444

1. Radiation
2. Conduction
3. Convection

Each method has specific conditions for effectiveness.

Question 445

What is conduction in the context of body heat loss?

Answer 445

Heat loss when the body is in contact with a cooler object

Significant when in contact with snow, ice, or cold water.

Question 446

What is convection in heat loss?

Answer 446

Heat transfer through circulating air currents

It explains why we feel cooler in the wind.

Question 447

How does evaporation contribute to heat loss?

Answer 447

Utilizes radiation, conduction, and convection

This occurs through sweating and can happen with wet clothes.

Question 448

What happens when air temperatures rise in relation to body heat loss?

Answer 448

Radiation no longer works; the body relies on convection and conduction

This can lead to increased body temperature.

Question 449

What is the illness that occurs when the body cannot transfer heat fast enough?

Answer 449

Hyperthermia

It can lead to serious health issues.

Question 450

What is hyperthermia?

Answer 450

A condition that occurs when the body temperature rises significantly due to various factors

Question 451

What medical conditions increase the risk of developing hyperthermia?

Answer 451

Conditions that prevent heat from leaving the body, such as dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, and obesity

Question 452

Name environmental factors that can increase the risk of hyperthermia.

Answer 452

• Exercising in a hot climate
• Lack of air conditioning
• Inappropriate clothing
• Decreased fluid intake
• Being inside a hot tent or car
• Sitting in a hot tub

Question 453

What is the first physiological response to heat stress?

Answer 453

Skin turning red due to vasodilation and increased blood flow to the skin

Question 454

What happens to the heart during heat stress?

Answer 454

Heart rate and cardiac output increase to facilitate heat transfer to the environment

Question 455

What are the clinical manifestations of heat injury?

Answer 455

Heat cramps, heat syncope, heat exhaustion, and heat stroke

Question 456

What causes heat cramps?

Answer 456

Loss of salt in the body, typically from fluid loss replaced by a fluid solution without enough salt

Question 457

What is the key treatment for heat cramps?

Answer 457

Replace lost salt through salty snacks and electrolyte drinks

Question 458

True or False: A lack of potassium causes heat cramps.

Answer 458

False

Question 459

What is heat syncope?

Answer 459

Fainting due to dehydration, dilation of blood vessels, and pooling of blood in the legs

Question 460

What populations are most affected by heat syncope?

Answer 460

• Non-acclimatized individuals
• Geriatric demographic

Question 461

What should be done for initial treatment of heat syncope?

Answer 461

Lie the patient flat and elevate their feet

Question 462

What is heat exhaustion?

Answer 462

A form of heat illness characterized by significant water and salt loss

Question 463

List symptoms of heat exhaustion.

Answer 463

• Weakness
• Fatigue
• Nausea
• Vomiting
• Headache
• Thirst

Question 464

What are some signs that heat exhaustion is progressing to heat stroke?

Answer 464

• Elevated body temperature
• Altered mental status
• Fast heart and breathing rate
• Profuse sweating
• Orthostatic hypotension

Question 465

What is the treatment for heat exhaustion?

Answer 465

Give water and electrolytes, stop activities, and move to a cool area

Question 466

What defines heat stroke?

Answer 466

Severe hyperthermia (≥ 40° C), neurological problems, and loss of sweating

Question 467

What are neurological abnormalities associated with heat stroke?

Answer 467

• Stumbling gait
• Irritability
• Confusion
• Seizures
• Hallucinations
• Coma

Question 468

Fill in the blank: Heat stroke is a _______ medical emergency.

Answer 468

[true]

Question 469

What is the primary method of treatment for heatstroke?

Answer 469

Active cooling through immersion in cold water or pouring cool water on the victim

Active cooling is crucial for rapid temperature reduction in heatstroke victims

Question 470

How does cold-water immersion compare to evaporative cooling?

Answer 470

Cold-water immersion reduces body temperature twice as fast as evaporative cooling

This method has been shown to be safe in young, healthy heatstroke victims

Question 471

What should be done if immersion in cold water is not possible?

Answer 471

Pour cool/cold water on the victim and keep their skin ‘sopping wet’

Continuous fanning promotes evaporation and further cooling

Question 472

Where should ice packs and cold compresses be applied on a heatstroke victim?

Answer 472

In areas where large arteries run, such as:
* Groin
* Armpit
* Neck

This helps in rapid cooling of the body

Question 473

What are the evacuation guidelines for heat-related conditions?

Answer 473

Evacuate if:
* Loss of consciousness
* More than one episode of syncope
* Signs of heatstroke
* Severe heat cramps not responding to salt solutions

Heat exhaustion does not require evacuation if treated effectively in the field

Question 474

What is the most significant risk factor for developing heat-related injuries?

Answer 474

Dehydration

Dehydration is linked to most risk factors for heat-related illnesses

Question 475

What environmental conditions inhibit the body’s ability to lose heat?

Answer 475

High humidity

It reduces the effectiveness of sweating and evaporation

Question 476

What is the recommended duration for adults to acclimatize to hot environments?

Answer 476

7-10 days

This gradual increase in activity helps improve heat coping mechanisms

Question 477

How long do children and the elderly require to maximize acclimatization?

Answer 477

10-14 days

They need more time to adjust to heat exposure compared to adults

Question 478

What should rehydration include to maintain proper balance in the body?

Answer 478

A combination of water and electrolytes

Too much water without electrolytes can lead to low sodium levels and neurological damage

Question 479

What is a reliable way to gauge hydration status?

Answer 479

The color of urine

Consistently clear urine indicates proper hydration

Question 480

What is the goal of hydration in preventing heat illness?

Answer 480

To avoid the onset of heat illness altogether

Early signs of dehydration should be addressed before headaches or heat illness develop

Question 481

What type of clothing is recommended to prevent heat-related illness?

Answer 481

Loose-fitting clothing

It promotes airflow and facilitates evaporative cooling

Question 482

What type of clothing should be avoided to minimize heat absorption?

Answer 482

Dark-colored clothing

It absorbs light and increases body temperature

Question 483

Fill in the blank: The onset of a headache is often the beginning of _______.

Answer 483

heat illness

Recognizing this early can help prevent more serious conditions

Question 484

True or False: Tight-fitting clothing helps in the effective cooling of the body.

Answer 484

False

Tight-fitting clothing restricts airflow needed for evaporation

Question 485

What is an effective method of cooling besides immersion?

Answer 485

Dousing often in cooling fluids or misting sprays

These methods can help reduce body temperature effectively

Question 486

What is hypothermia most often associated with?

Answer 486

Prolonged exposure to cold winter activities such as skiing, snowshoeing, and mountaineering

Hypothermia can also result from immersion accidents and can occur during hot summer months.

Question 487

Which groups of people are particularly susceptible to hypothermia?

Answer 487

The elderly and young babies

They have a challenging time with thermoregulation.

Question 488

What are the three methods of heat loss from the body?

Answer 488

• Radiation
• Conduction
• Convection

Evaporation is a process that utilizes all three methods of heat transfer.

Question 489

What temperature defines the onset of hypothermia?

Answer 489

A core body temperature of 35°C (95°F) or less.

Question 490

What occurs during radiation heat loss?

Answer 490

Heat loss occurs whenever the air temperature surrounding the body is less than 20°C (68°F).

Question 491

How does conduction heat loss occur?

Answer 491

When the body is in contact with any object that is cooler than we are.

Question 492

What is convection heat loss?

Answer 492

Heat is transferred away from the body through circulating air currents.

Question 493

What is the primary physiological response when the body begins to lose heat?

Answer 493

Shivering utilizes muscle activity to produce heat.

Question 494

What is vasoconstriction?

Answer 494

The narrowing of blood vessels to prevent blood from reaching the skin.

Question 495

What is ‘paradoxical undressing’?

Answer 495

The phenomenon where hypothermic individuals take off their clothes despite being cold.

Question 496

What characterizes mild hypothermia?

Answer 496

A core temperature ranging from 32° to 35° C (89.6-95°F) with shivering and confusion.

Question 497

What are the vital signs like in moderate hypothermia?

Answer 497

Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate decrease.

Question 498

What core temperature range defines severe hypothermia?

Answer 498

Between 24°C and 28°C (75.2-82.4°F).

Question 499

What happens to the body at a core temperature below 24°C?

Answer 499

Profound hypothermia occurs with little chance of survival.

Question 500

Fill in the blank: Heat is lost from the body through _______.

Answer 500

radiation, conduction, convection, and evaporation.

Question 501

True or False: Cold-related injuries can occur in above-sub-zero temperatures.

Answer 501

True.

Question 502

What is the most important aspect of preventing hypothermia?

Answer 502

Adequate preparation.

Question 503

What happens to shivering at a core temperature of 30°C?

Answer 503

Shivering ceases.

Question 504

What are the symptoms of mild hypothermia?

Answer 504

• Turning blue
• Sensation of cold
• Uncontrollable shivering
• Impaired mental status

Varying degrees of confusion and disorientation may occur.

Question 505

What is the perception of temperature closely linked to?

Answer 505

Skin temperature rather than core temperature.

Question 506

What should be considered when seeking shelter to limit heat loss?

Answer 506

• Areas that are dry (conduction)
• Insulated (radiation)
• Out of the wind (convection)
• No direct contact with ice and snow (conduction)

Question 507

What are the four stages of hypothermia?

Answer 507

Mild, Moderate, Severe, Profound

Question 508

What are the clinical symptoms of mild hypothermia?

Answer 508

Conscious, shivering

Question 509

What is the typical core temperature range for moderate hypothermia?

Answer 509

28 to 32°C (82 to 90°F)

Question 510

What is the treatment priority for hypothermia in the field?

Answer 510

Preventing further heat loss

Question 511

What should be done first when treating a victim of hypothermia?

Answer 511

Remove the victim from the situation that caused them to become cold

Question 512

List the three methods of heat loss that need to be prevented.

Answer 512

• Radiation
• Conduction
• Convection

Question 513

Fill in the blank: Evaporative heat loss is addressed through the application of a _______.

Answer 513

vapor barrier

Question 514

What type of beverages should be avoided when treating hypothermia?

Answer 514

Alcoholic beverages

Question 515

True or False: In a rescue situation, a person is considered dead until they are warm and dead.

Answer 515

True

Question 516

What is a recommended treatment for mild hypothermia?

Answer 516

Dress in dry clothes and wrap in blankets

Question 517

What should be avoided in treating mild hypothermia?

Answer 517

Baths or water immersion

Question 518

What is critical for patients with moderate hypothermia?

Answer 518

Active rewarming must be performed

Question 519

What items can be used for rewarming in the field for moderate hypothermia?

Answer 519

• Large electric heat pads
• Warm water bottles

Question 520

What characterizes severe hypothermia?

Answer 520

True medical emergency requiring aggressive treatment

Question 521

What should be assessed for at least 60 seconds in severe hypothermia?

Answer 521

Vital signs

Question 522

When should CPR be initiated in severe hypothermia?

Answer 522

After determining the patient has no vital signs

Question 523

What is the evacuation guideline for victims with moderate to severe hypothermia?

Answer 523

Must be evacuated from the wilderness

Question 524

How should hypothennic patients be handled during transport?

Answer 524

Very gently and kept horizontal

Question 525

What is the single most important aspect of hypothermia treatment?

Answer 525

Adequate prevention through preparation

Question 526

What is hypothermia often referred to as?

Answer 526

The killer of the unprepared

Question 527

What occurs if a person is taken immediately to the summit of Mt. Everest?

Answer 527

They would pass out and likely die within minutes.

Question 528

What altitude is referred to as the ‘death zone’?

Answer 528

About 27,000 feet (8,200 meters).

Question 529

What is the main cause of altitude illness?

Answer 529

Hypobaric hypoxia due to decreased oxygen pressure at high altitudes.

Question 530

What happens to the body’s carbon dioxide levels at high altitude?

Answer 530

They are lowered by hyperventilation.

Question 531

What severe symptoms arise from altitude sickness?

Answer 531

Edema or fluid accumulation in the body.

Question 532

What is acute mountain sickness (AMS) diagnosed by?

Answer 532

A headache and at least one other symptom: dizziness, fatigue, nausea, or insomnia.

Question 533

What are the common symptoms of High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE)?

Answer 533

Poor muscle control, altered level of consciousness, severe lack of energy.

Question 534

What is the treatment for Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS)?

Answer 534

Discontinue ascent and rest, with descent being the most effective treatment.

Question 535

What is High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE) characterized by?

Answer 535

Shortness of breath at rest, cough, weakness, and chest tightness.

Question 536

What is the safest method to prevent altitude illness?

Answer 536

Slow ascent to allow for acclimatization.

Question 537

What medicine is mentioned as helpful for AMS?

Answer 537

Acetazolamide.

Question 538

What is the recommended ascent limit to prevent HAPE?

Answer 538

No more than 300 meters (1,000 feet) a day.

Question 539

True or False: HACE almost never occurs without AMS symptoms first.

Answer 539

True.

Question 540

What should be done immediately if HACE is suspected?

Answer 540

Immediate descent with assistance.

Question 541

Fill in the blank: The initial sign of HAPE is a marked decrease in _______.

Answer 541

exercise tolerance.

Question 542

What happens during hyperventilation at high altitudes?

Answer 542

It lowers CO2 levels, which can reduce the drive to breathe.

Question 543

What is the likely consequence of edema in the brain at high altitude?

Answer 543

Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS) can progress to High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE).

Question 544

What can happen to mild cases of HAPE?

Answer 544

They may resolve within hours after descent.

Question 545

How long can the recovery from HACE last?

Answer 545

Recovery can last for weeks.

Question 546

What is the primary purpose of water purification?

Answer 546

To eliminate pathogens that will cause symptoms and disease in humans.

Question 547

List three outcomes of water purification besides pathogen removal.

Answer 547

• Removes toxic compounds
• Eliminates unpleasant tastes
• Improves water quality

Question 548

What is recommended for ensuring safe drinking water?

Answer 548

Use at least two methods to treat water.

Question 549

Define ‘Purify’ in the context of water treatment.

Answer 549

Removes taste, odor and smell.

Question 550

Define ‘Disinfect’ in the context of water treatment.

Answer 550

Removes or destroys pathogens.

Question 551

Define ‘Sterilize’ in the context of water treatment.

Answer 551

Destroys all life forms.

Question 552

What does ‘Filtration’ refer to in water treatment?

Answer 552

Mechanical process of forcing water through a membrane to remove pathogens.

Question 553

True or False: Water sterilization is necessary for safe drinking.

Answer 553

False.

Question 554

What are the most common pathogens causing illness in water?

Answer 554

• Bacteria
• Viruses
• Protozoa
• Parasites

Question 555

What is the best water source for purification?

Answer 555

Get close to the source, such as a snowbank or fast-moving water.

Question 556

Why are slow-flowing rivers and ponds considered poor water sources?

Answer 556

Bacteria and parasites tend to thrive in these environments.

Question 557

What is the purpose of pre-treatment in water purification?

Answer 557

To remove contaminants such as sediment, leaves, and small twigs.

Question 558

What is the first step in the pre-treatment process?

Answer 558

Screening.

Question 559

Describe the screening process in water pre-treatment.

Answer 559

Pouring water through a cloth to remove large contaminants.

Question 560

What is the purpose of the standing process in water pre-treatment?

Answer 560

Allows smaller particles to settle to the bottom of the container.

Question 561

What chemical is commonly used for flocculating water?

Answer 561

Alum.

Question 562

How long should water be boiled for effective disinfection at high elevations?

Answer 562

At least 3 minutes if above 6,562 feet (2000m).

Question 563

What is the boiling point of water at sea level?

Answer 563

100°C (212°F).

Question 564

What is a disadvantage of boiling water for purification?

Answer 564

The water is hot and may not taste good.

Question 565

What pathogens can be effectively killed by boiling water?

Answer 565

Most human pathogens.

Question 566

What is the effectiveness of filters in water treatment?

Answer 566

Filters screen out bacteria, protozoa, and helminths, but are not reliable for eliminating viruses.

Question 567

True or False: Filters can completely eradicate viruses from water.

Answer 567

False.

Question 568

What happens to filters over time during use?

Answer 568

They clog and become less effective.

Question 569

What should be done in areas with potential contamination when using filters?

Answer 569

Use an additional method of disinfection, such as halogenation.

Question 570

What are iodine and chlorine effective against?

Answer 570

Viruses and bacteria

Their effectiveness against protozoa and helminths varies greatly.

Question 571

Which protozoan is effectively killed by halogen disinfection?

Answer 571

Giardia lamblia

Cryptosporidium oysts are extremely resistant to halogen disinfection.

Question 572

What major problem affects chemical disinfection?

Answer 572

Improper treatment by the user

Question 573

What factors does disinfection depend on?

Answer 573

Halogen concentration and contact time

Question 574

Why is chlorine less suitable for cold, contaminated water?

Answer 574

It is more sensitive to halogen concentration and contact time

Question 575

Why are household cleaners like bleach not recommended for disinfection of drinking water?

Answer 575

They have some efficacy against bacteria but not viruses

Question 576

What can neutralize the unpleasant taste of halogens in water?

Answer 576

Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) or flavored drink mixes

Question 577

What is a risk associated with using iodine for water disinfection?

Answer 577

Potential effect on the thyroid gland

Question 578

What is required for using iodine safely for disinfection?

Answer 578

Following appropriate disinfection techniques and manufacturer guidelines

Question 579

What is the relationship between iodine concentration and contact time?

Answer 579

A lower concentration of iodine can be used if the contact time is longer or the water temperature is warmer

Question 580

What is the primary mechanism of Ultraviolet Radiation (UVR) treatment?

Answer 580

It destroys illness-causing microorganisms by attacking their DNA

Question 581

What factors affect the effectiveness of UVR treatment?

Answer 581

Exposure time, lamp intensity, and water quality parameters

Question 582

What must be low for UV treatment to work effectively?

Answer 582

Turbidity

Question 583

What is a significant risk after UV irradiation treatment?

Answer 583

Reactivation of pathogens

Question 584

What must not happen to UV-treated water before consumption?

Answer 584

It must not be exposed to visible light for any significant period

Question 585

What is a long-term disadvantage of UV purification?

Answer 585

No residual treatment

Question 586

What should be added to water purified by UV radiation for continued disinfection?

Answer 586

A chlorine compound

Question 587

What advantages does chlorine dioxide have over chlorine?

Answer 587

Wider range of effective pH and does not require more than simple mixing

Question 588

What does chlorine dioxide release to neutralize pathogens?

Answer 588

A very reactive form of oxygen

Question 589

What is one important quality of chlorine dioxide?

Answer 589

High-water solubility, especially in cold water

Question 590

What are tannins and humics?

Answer 590

Natural organic matter that leach into wilderness water

Question 591

How can activated carbon improve water quality?

Answer 591

It can remove bad taste and purify the water

Question 592

What is the primary focus of water treatment?

Answer 592

Tiny bugs or germs due to their immediate and serious risk to health

Question 593

What toxic resin is responsible for the skin reaction caused by poison ivy, oak, and sumac?

Answer 593

Urushiol

Urushiol is contained within the leaves, fruit, root, and stem of the plant.

Question 594

What is the primary function of urushiol in these plants?

Answer 594

Helps the plant to retain water

Question 595

How can urushiol be released from the plant?

Answer 595

The plant must be broken open

Question 596

What can cause urushiol to cling to objects?

Answer 596

Its remarkable adhesive properties

Question 597

Where are poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac predominantly found in the United States?

Answer 597

• Poison ivy: east of the Rocky Mountains
• Poison oak: west of the Rocky Mountains
• Poison sumac: southeastern United States

Question 598

What is the most common reaction to exposure to poison ivy, oak, or sumac?

Answer 598

An itchy red rash

Question 599

When do skin lesions typically appear after first-time exposure to urushiol?

Answer 599

21 to 48 hours, but may be delayed up to 21 days

Question 600

What is the best method to prevent a rash from urushiol exposure?

Answer 600

Avoidance of the plants

Question 601

What should be used to wash the area exposed to urushiol?

Answer 601

Warm or cold water and soap

Question 602

What topical treatment can be applied directly to the rash caused by urushiol?

Answer 602

Topical steroid cream

Question 603

What is Zanfel® Poison Ivy Wash used for?

Answer 603

To remove urushiol from the skin after an outbreak

Question 604

What causes sunburn?

Answer 604

Overexposure to the sun’s ultraviolet (UV) rays

Question 605

What are the two clinically important classes of UV rays?

Answer 605

• UVA
• UVB

Question 606

Which UV rays penetrate the skin deeply and contribute to skin cancers?

Answer 606

UVA rays

Question 607

Which UV rays are the chief cause of skin reddening and sunburns?

Answer 607

UVB rays

Question 608

What is the best way to prevent sunburn?

Answer 608

Avoid sun exposure

Question 609

What type of clothing is recommended to prevent sunburn?

Answer 609

Breathable full-length clothing

Question 610

What should sunscreen be labeled as to ensure it protects against both UVA and UVB rays?

Answer 610

Broad spectrum

Question 611

What does SPF stand for?

Answer 611

Sun Protection Factor

Question 612

How is SPF used to measure sunscreen effectiveness?

Answer 612

It measures the sunscreen’s ability to protect against UVB rays

Question 613

What is a common misconception about sunscreen?

Answer 613

There is no such thing as waterproof sunscreens

Question 614

Which medications can be used for pain control after sunburn?

Answer 614

• Acetaminophen
• Ibuprofen

Question 615

What topical treatment shows little to no benefit for sunburn relief?

Answer 615

Topical steroids

Question 616

What is an effective method for relieving itching from sunburn?

Answer 616

Cool soaks in water or cold showers

Question 617

What is the general management approach for bites and stings?

Answer 617

Conduct a primary and secondary survey to ensure the scene is safe and the victim is stable.

Infection is common with animal bites, and bites are tetanus-prone wounds.

Question 618

Name three types of bears found in North America.

Answer 618

• Brown bear (Grizzly and Kodiak)
• American black bear
• Polar bear

Question 619

How fast can North American bears run?

Answer 619

Up to 40 mph

Question 620

What is an effective way to prevent bear attacks?

Answer 620

Make noise, such as talking or using hand clickers.

Question 621

What should you do if you encounter a brown bear?

Answer 621

• Do not look into the bear’s eyes
• Do not make sudden movements
• Stand your ground but be submissive
• If attacked, protect your neck in the fetal position.

Question 622

What actions should be taken if a black bear attacks?

Answer 622

• Yell and throw things
• Act aggressively towards the bear
• Continue to fight back if attacked.

Question 623

What is another name for the mountain lion?

Answer 623

Cougar, puma, panther, or catamount.

Question 624

What is the main method by which snakes capture their prey?

Answer 624

They use specialized salivary glands that produce venom.

Question 625

What are the three families of snakes classified for medicine?

Answer 625

• Vipers
• Round snakes
• Sea snakes

Question 626

What is the most common type of pit viper found in North America?

Answer 626

Rattlesnakes, copperheads, and cottonmouths.

Question 627

What is a significant characteristic of pit vipers?

Answer 627

Triangle-shaped head and heat sensing pits.

Question 628

What should be done in the case of a pit viper bite?

Answer 628

Evacuate all victims of bites from venomous snakes.

Question 629

What distinguishes coral snakes from other snakes?

Answer 629

Distinct color banding pattern.

Question 630

True or False: The bite from a coral snake is typically very painful.

Answer 630

False

Question 631

What should be avoided when treating snake bites?

Answer 631

• Sawyer Extractor™
• Pressure immobilization
• Electric shock therapy
• Local application of ice
• Cutting and sucking the wound
• Tight-fitting tourniquet

Question 632

What is the main vector for diseases responsible for deaths worldwide?

Answer 632

Mosquitoes

Question 633

What does a mosquito inject into the skin while biting?

Answer 633

Saliva containing an anticoagulant.

Question 634

What are some suggestions for avoiding mosquito bites?

Answer 634

• Stay indoors at dusk
• Choose campsites away from standing water
• Wear long sleeves and pants
• Use repellents like DEET, Picaridin, or Lemon Oil Eucalyptus.

Question 635

What type of organism are ticks classified as?

Answer 635

Arachnids

Question 636

What is the process by which ticks find hosts called?

Answer 636

Questing

Question 637

What is the maximum time frame in which a tick can transmit disease?

Answer 637

2-3 days

Question 638

What should you do if bitten by a tick?

Answer 638

Pull it off straight upward with steady pressure.

Question 639

What order of insects includes ants, bees, and wasps?

Answer 639

Hymenoptera

Question 640

What is the most common reaction to a bee sting?

Answer 640

Local reaction consisting of a small red patch that burns and itches.

Question 641

What should be done immediately after a scorpion sting?

Answer 641

Clean the sting site with soap and water.

Question 642

What is the most medically important scorpion in the United States?

Answer 642

Bark scorpion (genus Centruroides)

Question 643

What should be done immediately after a scorpion sting?

Answer 643

Epinephrine should be given immediately or go straight to the hospital.

Question 644

In which climates are scorpions typically found?

Answer 644

Desert and semiarid climates between 50 degrees north and south latitude.

Question 645

What is the most medically important scorpion in the United States?

Answer 645

The bark scorpion (genus Centruroides).

Question 646

Where is the bark scorpion primarily found?

Answer 646

Arizona and New Mexico.

Question 647

What is the typical outcome of most scorpion stings?

Answer 647

Most result in only local pain and inflammation.

Question 648

What is the first step in treating a scorpion sting?

Answer 648

Clean the sting site with soap and water.

Question 649

What should be used to help with pain from a scorpion sting if available?

Answer 649

Ice.

Question 650

What do studies suggest about the use of ice for scorpion stings?

Answer 650

Ice will help to neutralize the pain.

Question 651

What action should be taken if a bark scorpion is identified?

Answer 651

Evacuate as soon as possible.

Question 652

Who is at a greater risk of rapid decompensation after a scorpion sting?

Answer 652

Children and elders.

Question 653

What is the primary energy source for the body while hiking and backpacking?

Answer 653

Carbohydrates

Carbohydrates are easier for the body to process than fats or protein.

Question 654

How many grams of carbohydrates should one consume per hour while backpacking?

Answer 654

30 to 60 grams

This equates to approximately 120 to 240 calories.

Question 655

What can happen if you don’t consume enough carbohydrates during a hike?

Answer 655

The body will burn muscle protein and stored body fat

This can lead to feelings of weakness and hinder progress.

Question 656

List three examples of good carbohydrate sources for hiking.

Answer 656

• Energy gels
• Dried fruit
• Protein bars

Question 657

What types of foods should be included in your diet prior to hiking?

Answer 657

• Whole grains (brown rice, quinoa, oats)
• Starchy vegetables (potatoes, peas)
• Fruits of all kinds

Question 658

Why should you consume electrolytes while hiking?

Answer 658

To replenish sodium, chloride, potassium, magnesium, manganese, and calcium

This is crucial especially in heat to maintain performance levels.

Question 659

What can happen if you consume high volumes of water without electrolytes?

Answer 659

Hyponatremia

This is a life-threatening condition where the body lacks sufficient salts.

Question 660

What is the ideal ratio of carbohydrates to protein for recovery after exercise?

Answer 660

4:1 ratio

Carbohydrates replace lost glycogen while protein repairs muscle tissue.

Question 661

How soon after exercise should you eat for recovery?

Answer 661

Within 30 to 45 minutes

This is when the body is especially receptive to replenishing and repairing.

Question 662

True or False: Thirst is a reliable indicator that you are adequately hydrated.

Answer 662

False

Thirst is an early symptom of dehydration, indicating that you are already dehydrated.

Question 663

How much water should you drink about 2 hours before starting a hike?

Answer 663

14 to 22 ounces

This helps ensure you start your hike hydrated.

Question 664

What is a good goal for water or sports drink intake during a hike?

Answer 664

6 to 12 ounces every 15 to 20 minutes

This helps maintain hydration levels.

Question 665

What should you do to recover hydration after a hike?

Answer 665

Drink 16 to 20 ounces of water or sports drink every hour for a few hours

This is crucial for full rehydration.

Question 666

What should you consider when choosing a first aid kit for a trip?

Answer 666

Consider the following questions:
* Type of activity or sport
* Duration of the trip
* Size of the group
* Group kit or individual kit
* Distance from help
* Endemic diseases in the area
* Participants’ known conditions
* Distance from definitive care

Question 667

What is the main difference between a pre-made medical kit and a custom kit?

Answer 667

Pre-made medical kits cover general cuts and scrapes but may not be specific enough for all injuries. Custom kits can be tailored to specific activities and locations.

Question 668

What does the acronym PAWS stand for in the context of first aid kits?

Answer 668

PAWS stands for:
* Prevention / Procedures
* Analgesics / Antibacterials / Antiseptics
* Wound care
* Survival

Question 669

What are some prevention items that should be included in a first aid kit?

Answer 669

Items for prevention include:
* Water filter and purification tablets
* Gloves
* Sunscreen/lip balm
* Sunglasses
* Blister prevention and treatment
* Insect repellant and barriers

Question 670

Name three specific tools that can be used for procedures in a first aid kit.

Answer 670

Specific tools include:
* Wound care material (e.g., steri-strips, gauze)
* Scissors
* Blood pressure cuff and stethoscope

Question 671

True or False: Aspirin should be used in head injuries.

Answer 671

False

Question 672

What are some common broad-spectrum antibiotics to consider for a first aid kit?

Answer 672

Common antibiotics include:
* Doxycycline
* Cipro
* Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid
* Azithromycin

Question 673

What is anaphylaxis and what should be included in a first aid kit to treat it?

Answer 673

Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction. Items to treat it include:
* EpiPen®
* Antihistamines
* Albuterol inhaler
* Oral steroids
* Ranitidine

Question 674

What wound care supplies are essential for a first aid kit?

Answer 674

Essential wound care supplies include:
* Gloves
* Alcohol swabs
* Gauze
* Steri-strips
* Tape
* Antibiotic ointment

Question 675

Fill in the blank: The potential for group members to be separated necessitates the inclusion of _______ items in a first aid kit.

Answer 675

[survival]

Question 676

List three items that should be included for survival in a first aid kit.

Answer 676

Survival items include:
* Map
* Compass
* Fire starter

Question 677

What is the importance of knowing endemic diseases in the area for which you are preparing a first aid kit?

Answer 677

Knowing endemic diseases helps in selecting appropriate medications to bring on the trip.

Question 678

What constitutes a lightweight medical kit for a backpacking trip?

Answer 678

A lightweight medical kit should contain items for treating high-altitude illness, cold exposure, trauma, and specific infectious diseases.

Question 679

What should you ensure regarding wound care supplies for each participant in a trip?

Answer 679

Each participant should bring their own necessary wound care supplies to ensure adequacy.

Question 680

What is the primary purpose of the primary assessment?

Answer 680

To keep the victim alive and identify major injuries

Question 681

What does the M in the MARCH acronym stand for?

Answer 681

Massive Hemorrhage

Question 682

What is the leading cause of death among Americans younger than 45?

Answer 682

Trauma

Question 683

Why is bleeding control prioritized in trauma care?

Answer 683

Bleeding out is the primary reason why physical trauma becomes fatal

Question 684

What type of bleeding is considered life-threatening?

Answer 684

Massive hemorrhage, such as from a lacerated artery

Question 685

What is the first step in addressing massive hemorrhage?

Answer 685

Perform a blood sweep

Question 686

Why is it important to look under layers of clothing during a blood sweep?

Answer 686

Blood can collect between layers, especially if clothing is waterproof or thick

Question 687

Which arteries are especially vulnerable to rapid bleed-outs?

Answer 687

• Femoral artery
• Carotid artery
• Brachial artery

Question 688

What can happen if the femoral or carotid artery is punctured?

Answer 688

Immediate blood pressure drop and extremely rapid blood loss

Question 689

Where can major hemorrhage also occur besides external injuries?

Answer 689

Internally in cavities such as chest, abdomen, behind the kidney, and thigh

Question 690

What should you do if someone is bleeding to death internally?

Answer 690

Recognize the signs and evacuate them very quickly

Question 691

True or False: All bleeding control is a priority in trauma care.

Answer 691

False

Question 692

Fill in the blank: The _______ assessment starts with the primary MARCH assessment.

Answer 692

primary

Question 693

What should you look for on the ground or street when assessing a bleeding patient?

Answer 693

Blood

Question 694

What is the first step in stopping any blood loss?

Answer 694

Direct pressure

Direct pressure controls bleeding from most wounds and is the first action to take.

Question 695

What should you use to apply direct pressure to a wound?

Answer 695

The cleanest materials available

Using clean materials helps prevent infection.

Question 696

How long may scalp wounds require continuous, direct pressure?

Answer 696

30 to 60 minutes

Scalp wounds often bleed profusely and may need extended pressure.

Question 697

Where should you apply finger pressure when controlling a bleed?

Answer 697

Directly over the source of the bleed

Applying pressure too broadly may be less effective.

Question 698

What should you do to reduce blood flow to an injured limb?

Answer 698

Elevate the limb above the heart

Elevating helps decrease blood flow and can aid in controlling bleeding.

Question 699

What is a tourniquet?

Answer 699

A limb-constricting device to stop hemorrhage

It cuts off blood flow to the limb to control severe bleeding.

Question 700

Where should a tourniquet be placed in relation to the injury?

Answer 700

2-6 inches above the injury

It should not be placed directly over the wound or over a joint.

Question 701

What is the risk if a tourniquet is used for more than 3-4 hours?

Answer 701

Limb loss

Prolonged use of a tourniquet can cause irreversible damage to the limb.

Question 702

Should a tourniquet be intermittently loosened to allow blood back into the extremity?

Answer 702

No

Intermittent loosening is unnecessary and can worsen bleeding.

Question 703

True or False: You should remove a tourniquet as soon as bleeding stops.

Answer 703

False

The tourniquet should remain in place until the victim reaches a hospital.

Question 704

What is an improvised tourniquet used for?

Answer 704

To stop severe bleeding.

Question 705

What is the first step in applying an improvised tourniquet?

Answer 705

Wrap the brown bandana tightly around the limb.

Question 706

What should be done after wrapping the bandana around the limb?

Answer 706

Tie a knot.

Question 707

What type of item should be placed through the knot of the tourniquet?

Answer 707

A long, sturdy item.

Question 708

List some examples of sturdy items that can be used in an improvised tourniquet.

Answer 708

• Stick
• Ski pole
• Tree branch
• Kitchen utensil

Question 709

What is the next step after placing a sturdy item through the knot?

Answer 709

Twist as tight as possible.

Question 710

How should the sturdy item be secured once twisted?

Answer 710

With another piece of cloth or wrap.

Question 711

Fill in the blank: To apply an improvised tourniquet, first wrap a _______ tightly around the limb.

Answer 711

[brown bandana]

Question 712

What is the next step in the MARCH primary assessment?

Answer 712

Rapid airway assessment

Airway obstruction is a leading cause of death after head injuries.

Question 713

What is one of the leading causes of death after head injuries?

Answer 713

Airway obstruction

Can also occur after vomiting by an unconscious person.

Question 714

How long can the brain survive without oxygen before permanent damage occurs?

Answer 714

A few minutes

The brain can sustain permanent damage after just a few minutes of oxygen deprivation.

Question 715

What is a quick way to assess if the airway is clear?

Answer 715

Ask the victim to state their name

If the victim can speak, their airway is likely clear.

Question 716

What should be done if the victim is unconscious or if their airway is obstructed?

Answer 716

Reposition them for easier breathing

The goal is to lift the tongue and soft tissue off the back of the airway.

Question 717

What is the first method to reposition the airway?

Answer 717

Head-Tilt-Chin-Lift method

This method bends the neck backwards and should only be used if there is no spinal cord injury.

Question 718

What is the second method to reposition the airway?

Answer 718

Jaw-Thrust Method

This method minimizes neck motion while lifting the tongue off the throat.

Question 719

What should be specifically assessed in cases of airway obstruction?

Answer 719

Possibility of cervical spine injury

Assume a cervical spine injury in cases of high velocity fall, head injury, or significant injury above the chest.

Question 720

When should the jaw-thrust method be used?

Answer 720

When a cervical spine injury is suspected

The method helps to open the airway without moving the neck.

Question 721

What should never be done to establish or maintain an airway if a cervical spine injury is suspected?

Answer 721

Hyperextended, hyperflexed, or rotated the head or neck

These movements can exacerbate cervical spine injuries.

Question 722

What is respiration?

Answer 722

Breathing delivers oxygen to the lungs during inhalation and removes carbon dioxide during exhalation.

Question 723

What can cause a person to stop breathing?

Answer 723

Head or spinal injuries, lightning strikes.

Question 724

What conditions can lead to inadequate respiration?

Answer 724

Heart failure, severe asthma attacks, burns, chest injuries, fluid in the lungs.

Question 725

How can you assess for adequate respiration?

Answer 725

Watch the chest wall movement; it should rise and fall equally on both sides.

Question 726

What might be necessary to visualize chest wall movement effectively?

Answer 726

Removing clothing from the victim if they are wearing heavy gear.

Question 727

What should you do if the victim is not breathing on their own?

Answer 727

Assist by delivering breaths to them.

Question 728

What percentage of oxygen is found in exhaled air from a human?

Answer 728

16% oxygen.

Question 729

What is the most effective way of delivering rescue breaths?

Answer 729

Using a CPR mask.

Question 730

What is crucial for the effectiveness of a CPR mask?

Answer 730

It must be tightly sealed around the victim’s mouth and nose.

Question 731

What are the dimensions of compact and collapsible CPR masks suitable for backcountry med kits?

Answer 731

1 inch x 1 inch.

Question 732

What should be done if no CPR mask is available?

Answer 732

Mouth-to-mouth may be needed.

Question 733

What technique should the rescuer use during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation?

Answer 733

Pinching the nose closed and tilting the chin up to open the airway.

Question 734

What should you do if your breaths are hitting resistance?

Answer 734

Try to reposition the airway.

Question 735

What is the fourth step of the MARCH protocol?

Answer 735

Quickly checking for a pulse

Check for pulses for 10 seconds at the neck (carotid artery) using the tips of your index and middle fingers.

Question 736

What motto has the American Heart Association emphasized for layperson CPR?

Answer 736

“Push Hard-Push Fast.”

This motto is aimed at encouraging effective chest compressions.

Question 737

What should a rescuer do if a victim is unresponsive and not breathing?

Answer 737

Call 911, obtain an AED if available, and start chest compressions.

Question 738

How should the victim be positioned for chest compressions?

Answer 738

On their back on a firm surface.

Question 739

Where should you place your palm during chest compressions?

Answer 739

Over the victim’s breastbone.

Question 740

What is the recommended depth for each chest compression?

Answer 740

At least two inches.

Question 741

What is the target rate for chest compressions per minute?

Answer 741

About 100 compressions per minute.

Question 742

Name two songs that can be used as a rhythm for chest compressions.

Answer 742

• Staying Alive
• Sweet Home Alabama

Question 743

What should you do if you are comfortable with CPR and delivering breaths?

Answer 743

Alternate between 30 compressions and 2 rescue breaths.

Question 744

What is the most important part of CPR?

Answer 744

Chest compressions.

Question 745

Under what conditions should you stop performing CPR?

Answer 745

• Someone can assist
• You become exhausted
• The victim is revived
• A qualified person pronounces the victim dead

Question 746

After how long should you typically stop CPR if the victim remains unresponsive?

Answer 746

30 minutes.

Question 747

What should you do if you have access to an AED?

Answer 747

Place the pads on the victim’s chest as soon as possible.

Question 748

What is important to follow when using an AED?

Answer 748

The instructions of the AED about whether to deliver a shock or to continue compressions.

Question 749

What is the final step of the MARCH protocol?

Answer 749

Assessing whether the victim needs urgent evacuation or may stay in the field for further assessment.

Question 750

What are some indicators that always require urgent evacuation?

Answer 750

• Difficulty breathing
• Weak or rapid pulse
• Head or spinal injury
• Open fracture
• Major hemorrhage

Question 751

In the MARCH protocol, what does the ‘H’ sometimes refer to?

Answer 751

‘Hypo/hyperthermia’ rather than ‘hike vs helicopter.’

Question 752

What should you do if a major injury or disability is present?

Answer 752

Call for evacuation.

Question 753

What is the purpose of the MARCH primary assessment?

Answer 753

To make a quick overall assessment of the patient’s potential life-threatening injuries.

Question 754

If the patient is stable after the MARCH primary assessment, what should you do next?

Answer 754

Proceed to a complete physical examination and secondary assessment.

Question 755

True or False: The MARCH protocol includes a step for assessing breathing difficulties.

Answer 755

True.

Question 756

Fill in the blank: The MARCH protocol is used to assess potential life-threatening _______.

Answer 756

[injuries].

Question 757

What is the focus of the secondary assessment?

Answer 757

A more thorough investigation of the medical problem and the circumstances surrounding the injury or illness.

Question 758

What are the two components of the secondary assessment?

Answer 758

• A complete physical examination
• A SAMPLE History

Question 759

What does a complete physical examination entail?

Answer 759

A head-to-toe physical exam on the patient.

Question 760

What is a key guideline for performing a physical examination?

Answer 760

Explain what you are doing and why to involve the patient in their own care.

Question 761

When should you avoid moving the patient during the examination?

Answer 761

Except in cases of imminent danger, avoid moving the patient until after the head-to-toe exam is complete.

Question 762

How do you measure heart rate?

Answer 762

Place your fingers on the neck (carotid artery) and count for 15 seconds (multiply by 4) or 30 seconds (multiply by 2).

Question 763

What is the normal heart rate range for adults?

Answer 763

50 to 100 beats per minute.

Question 764

What should a standard pulse reading include?

Answer 764

• Rate
• Rhythm
• Strength

Question 765

What might a well-conditioned athlete’s pulse rate be?

Answer 765

A normal pulse rate below 50.

Question 766

What factors can increase heart rate?

Answer 766

• Shock
• Exercise
• Altitude
• Illness
• Emotional stress
• Fever

Question 767

How is respiratory rate counted?

Answer 767

Each rise of the chest is counted over 15 seconds (multiply by 4) or 30 seconds (multiply by 2).

Question 768

What is the normal respiratory rate range?

Answer 768

12 to 20 breaths per minute.

Question 769

What should be noted when assessing respiratory rate?

Answer 769

• Labored vs unlabored
• Regular vs irregular
• Shallow vs deep
• Clear vs wheezing

Question 770

Fill in the blank: The respiratory rate is _______.

Answer 770

[key learning term]

Question 771

True or False: Children may have resting heart rates higher than 100 beats per minute.

Answer 771

True

Question 772

What is an example of a complete pulse reading?

Answer 772

The pulse is 110, irregular, and weak.

Question 773

What is another example of a complete respiratory rate reading?

Answer 773

Respiratory rate is 30, shallow and irregular.

Question 774

What is the Level of Responsiveness?

Answer 774

A quick gauge of brain function critical for assessing individuals with potential head injuries or other conditions affecting awareness

Level of responsiveness is evaluated based on a person’s awareness of self, location, and time.

Question 775

What does A+Ox3 indicate?

Answer 775

The person is awake and oriented to person, place, and time

One point is given for each correct identification: name, location, and date/time.

Question 776

What does A+Os4 signify?

Answer 776

The person knows person, place, time, and events

This indicates a high level of cognitive function.

Question 777

What does A+O≤3 represent?

Answer 777

The person knows three of the four: person, place, time, or events

This shows a moderate level of orientation.

Question 778

What does AT Ox? mean?

Answer 778

The person knows two of the categories: events and time

This reflects a lower level of awareness.

Question 779

What does A+Oxl indicate?

Answer 779

The person knows only one category

This suggests significant confusion or disorientation.

Question 780

What does A+Os0 mean?

Answer 780

The person does not know person, place, or time, or they are completely unconscious

This indicates a critical level of impaired consciousness.

Question 781

What are the key skin signs that indicate the condition of respiratory and cardiovascular systems?

Answer 781

Skin color, temperature, and moisture

These factors help assess a person’s overall health status.

Question 782

Describe the skin condition of a healthy person.

Answer 782

Warm and relatively dry

This is the expected state of skin in a healthy individual.

Question 783

What does it mean if a patient’s skin is described as pale, cool, and clammy?

Answer 783

It indicates potential distress or poor circulation

This can be a sign of shock or other serious conditions.

Question 784

What does it mean if a patient’s skin is warm, pink, and dry?

Answer 784

It indicates good circulation and hydration

This is a positive sign of health and stability.

Question 785

What is the purpose of a head-to-toe assessment?

Answer 785

To ensure no injuries are missed by assessing the whole body.

Question 786

What does PERRL stand for in eye assessment?

Answer 786

Pupils are Equal, Round, and Reactive to Light.

Question 787

What should be checked in the nose during a head assessment?

Answer 787

Check for breaks and for blood or clear fluid (CSF).

Question 788

What should be assessed behind the ears?

Answer 788

Check for bruising and inside ears for blood and clear fluid (CSF).

Question 789

What should be checked in the mouth during the assessment?

Answer 789

Check for blood, vomit, and missing teeth.

Question 790

How should the neck be assessed?

Answer 790

Palpate the front/backside of neck, collarbone, and shoulder for deformities.

Question 791

What does a deviation of the trachea indicate?

Answer 791

A deviation may indicate a pneumothorax on the opposite side.

Question 792

What technique is used to assess lung function?

Answer 792

Place hand vertically along the sternum and observe lung movement.

Question 793

What should be palpated in the abdomen?

Answer 793

Watch for visible signs of pain while palpating each quadrant.

Question 794

What is the procedure for assessing the pelvis?

Answer 794

Firmly press downward and then inward on the sides.

Question 795

How do you check for bone breaks in the legs?

Answer 795

Place hands about 3 inches apart and push in opposite directions on the bone.

Question 796

What is the first step before testing knee mobility?

Answer 796

Check the upper and lower legs for bone breaks.

Question 797

What should be assessed in the feet?

Answer 797

Test voluntary movement, strength, sensation, and capillary refill time.

Question 798

How is capillary refill time tested in toes?

Answer 798

Press down on the toenail for 5 seconds; color should return in 2 seconds.

Question 799

What should be done to test voluntary movement in hands?

Answer 799

Ask the patient to squeeze your fingers.

Question 800

How should sensation be tested in hands?

Answer 800

Scratch or tap the hand and ask the patient to describe what is happening.

Question 801

What is checked during the shoulder assessment?

Answer 801

Palpate shoulders for pain and check for full range of motion.

Question 802

Fill in the blank: When assessing the abdomen, you should watch the patient’s face for visible signs of _______.

Answer 802

pain.

Question 803

True or False: It is important to check the patient’s mouth for vomit during a head-to-toe assessment.

Answer 803

True.

Question 804

What does the acronym SAMPLE stand for in patient assessment?

Answer 804

Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past Medical History, Last Intake and Output, Events

Question 805

What is the difference between a symptom and a sign?

Answer 805

A symptom is something the patient perceives (e.g., pain), while a sign is something you can find during an exam (e.g., tenderness)

Question 806

What should you ask a patient regarding their symptoms?

Answer 806

Ask about nausea, dizziness, headache, and any discomfort

Question 807

What information should you gather about allergies?

Answer 807

Current medications, known allergies, exposure to allergens, and usual response

Question 808

What types of drugs should be inquired about during patient assessment?

Answer 808

Both nonprescription and prescription drugs, as well as possible alcohol or drug use

Question 809

Why is it important to ask about past medical history?

Answer 809

To identify any previous and relevant medical problems and check for medical alert tags

Question 810

What information is relevant regarding last intake and output?

Answer 810

When the patient last ate and drank, last urinated, and last defecated

Question 811

What does clear, copious urine indicate?

Answer 811

Good hydration

Question 812

What does dark, smelly urine suggest?

Answer 812

Dehydration

Question 813

What are some signs that a patient may be dehydrated?

Answer 813

Dark, smelly urine, diarrhea, or vomiting

Question 814

What should you ask regarding recent events?

Answer 814

Unusual circumstances that occurred in the past few days relevant to the patient’s situation or injury

Question 815

What does the SOAP note serve as in wilderness medicine?

Answer 815

Documentation for the patient’s medical condition and treatment or evacuation plans.

Question 816

Why is it important to document the patient’s experience?

Answer 816

To give an accurate report to EMS and protect against legal claims.

Question 817

What does the ‘S’ in SOAP stand for?

Answer 817

Subjective.

Question 818

What type of information is included in the Subjective component?

Answer 818

Information provided by the patient or bystanders, including the event/injury summary.

Question 819

What key points should be communicated in the Subjective section?

Answer 819

• Patient’s age and gender
• Chief complaint
• Mechanism of injury (MOI) or history of present illness (HPI)

Question 820

What does ‘MOI’ stand for and what does it explain?

Answer 820

Mechanism of Injury; it explains what led to the injury.

Question 821

Provide an example of a chief complaint.

Answer 821

Throbbing pain in the left wrist.

Question 822

What does the ‘O’ in SOAP stand for?

Answer 822

Objective.

Question 823

What type of data is included in the Objective component?

Answer 823

Quantifiable and measurable data, findings, and observations.

Question 824

What should be noted about the patient’s position after the MOI?

Answer 824

The position you found the patient in.

Question 825

List some relevant findings to convey to a healthcare provider.

Answer 825

• Bruises/bleeding
• Unusual hardness/softness
• Breathing sounds
• Pain responses
• Changes to circulation, sensation, and motion (CSMs)

Question 826

What are vital signs and why are they important in a SOAP note?

Answer 826

They provide critical information about the patient’s current state and changes over time.

Question 827

What does ‘AAO x 4’ indicate?

Answer 827

Alert and Oriented to person, place, time, and event.

Question 828

What does the ‘A’ in SOAP stand for?

Answer 828

Assessment.

Question 829

What is included in the Assessment component?

Answer 829

The diagnosis based on signs/symptoms and reasoning.

Question 830

What should be done if unsure about a diagnosis?

Answer 830

List more than one possibility.

Question 831

What does the ‘P’ in SOAP stand for?

Answer 831

Planning or Plans for Patient.

Question 832

What should be outlined in the Planning component?

Answer 832

The beginning treatment plan and possible future steps.

Question 833

What is important to remember when presenting to EMS?

Answer 833

Always defer to their recommendations for evacuation and care.

Question 834

Fill in the blank: The SOAP note is a critical part of _______ certification.

Answer 834

[Wilderness First Responder]

Question 835

What is the most important topic in wilderness medicine?

Answer 835

The management of someone injured or sick in the wilderness

Question 836

What are the four effective survey techniques for initial assessment in wilderness medicine?

Answer 836

• Scene survey
• Primary survey
• Secondary survey
• Ongoing survey

Question 837

What is the first step in a scene survey?

Answer 837

Ensure that the scene is safe before entering to assess the victim

Question 838

What does the MARCH acronym stand for in primary survey prioritization?

Answer 838

• Massive hemorrhage
• Airway (with C-spine precautions)
• Respiration
• Circulation
• Hypothermia/Hyperthermia or Hike vs. Helicopter

Question 839

In the primary survey, what is the top priority?

Answer 839

Preventing major hemorrhage

Question 840

What acronym is used for the secondary survey?

Answer 840

SAMPLE

Question 841

What does the SAMPLE acronym stand for?

Answer 841

• Symptoms/Subjective
• Allergies
• Medicine
• Prior medical history
• Last oral intake
• Events leading up to illness/injury

Question 842

What should be done in the ongoing survey?

Answer 842

Repeat the survey as often as needed, especially if the patient is unstable

Question 843

What does the AVPU acronym represent in ongoing surveys?

Answer 843

• Alert
• Verbal
• Pain
• Unresponsive

Question 844

What is the purpose of the AEIOU Tips mnemonic?

Answer 844

To identify potential causes for a victim’s altered mental status

Question 845

What does AEIOU Tips stand for?

Answer 845

• Allergies/Altitude
• Environment/Epilepsy
• Infection
• Overdose
• Underdose
• Trauma, toxins
• Insulin (diabetes)
• Psychological disorders
• Stroke

Question 846

What acronym is used to characterize a victim’s pain?

Answer 846

COLDERR

Question 847

What does COLDERR stand for?

Answer 847

• Character
• Onset
• Location
• Duration
• Exacerbation
• Relief
• Radiation

Question 848

What is the recovery position?

Answer 848

The patient is placed on their side to keep the airway open and prevent aspiration if they vomit

Question 849

What should be the first action if you suspect a drowning victim?

Answer 849

Perform rescue breaths if the patient has a pulse

Question 850

What is the risk-to-benefit ratio in scene safety?

Answer 850

It weighs the risks of moving the victim against the potential dangers of leaving them in a hazardous situation

Question 851

What is a blood sweep?

Answer 851

A quick assessment to identify any major bleeding or deformities in the musculoskeletal system

Question 852

What mnemonic helps remember areas where internal bleeding can occur?

Answer 852

CARTS

Question 853

What does CARTS stand for?

Answer 853

• Chest
• Abdomen
• Renal
• Thigh
• Skin/street

Question 854

What is the purpose of wound irrigation?

Answer 854

To clean the wound and remove debris, while protecting oneself with Body Substance Isolation (BSI)

Question 855

What is the SOAP acronym used for?

Answer 855

Medical documentation

Question 856

What does SOAP stand for?

Answer 856

• Subjective
• Objective
• Assessment
• Plan

Question 857

True or False: The verbal presentation when handing off a patient should follow the structure of a SOAP note.

Answer 857

True

Question 858

What symptoms indicate that Pat may be experiencing a heart attack?

Answer 858

Squeezing chest pressure and shortness of breath

Question 859

What should Pat avoid doing if he is experiencing a potential heart attack?

Answer 859

Skiing the rest of the way down the hill

Question 860

What is the recommended action for ski patrol when assisting Pat?

Answer 860

Come to him and assist him down

Question 861

Why is it important for someone experiencing a heart attack to rest in place?

Answer 861

To avoid further strain on the heart

Question 862

When should a person experiencing a heart attack exert themselves?

Answer 862

Only if there is no other way to get to medical care

Question 863

What is the urgency level for evacuating someone having a heart attack?

Answer 863

Urgent; they should be taken to medical care as fast as possible

Question 864

What medication should be given to Pat as soon as possible?

Answer 864

Aspirin

Question 865

What is the appropriate dosage of aspirin for a heart attack?

Answer 865

160-325mg, usually 1 adult strength or 4 baby aspirin

Question 866

How should the aspirin be administered for faster absorption?

Answer 866

Crush it once between molars and swallow the fragments

Question 867

What is the risk of delaying aspirin administration during a heart attack?

Answer 867

Causing more damage to the cardiac tissue

Question 868

Can heart attack symptoms improve while at rest?

Answer 868

Yes, but the heart attack may still be happening

Question 869

What additional medication can be given if available and deemed necessary?

Answer 869

Nitroglycerin

Question 870

What can Tylenol help with when administered before or with nitroglycerin?

Answer 870

Prevent/treat headaches associated with nitroglycerin use

Question 871

What should be done if aspirin is not immediately available?

Answer 871

Instruct patient to take 2-3 Pepto-Bismol tablets

Question 872

What is the active ingredient in Pepto-Bismol that can help during a heart attack?

Answer 872

Subsalicylate

Question 873

What does subsalicylate convert to in the stomach?

Answer 873

Salicylate (salicylic acid)

Question 874

What is the purpose of taking Pepto-Bismol during a potential heart attack?

Answer 874

To provide an adequate dose of salicylate to thin the blood

Question 875

What condition did Ashley likely experience?

Answer 875

Syncope from dehydration or overheating

Syncope refers to a temporary loss of consciousness often related to insufficient blood flow to the brain.

Question 876

What symptoms did Ashley exhibit before collapsing?

Answer 876

Lightheadedness and tunnel vision

Tunnel vision refers to the narrowing of the field of vision, often experienced just before fainting.

Question 877

What should Ashley do after experiencing syncope?

Answer 877

Rest in the shade and rehydrate

Resting and rehydrating helps restore electrolyte balance and prevent further episodes.

Question 878

What fluids should be given to Ashley to aid recovery?

Answer 878

Fluids with electrolytes

Electrolytes are essential for nerve and muscle function, especially after dehydration.

Question 879

What is a recommended way to ensure electrolyte intake?

Answer 879

Use electrolyte packets

Electrolyte packets, such as Pedialyte Advance Care, can be easily mixed with water.

Question 880

List other possible diagnoses for fainting.

Answer 880

• Low blood pressure
• Heart problems
• Dehydration
• Hypoglycemia
• Seizure
• Medications
• Pregnancy

Each of these conditions can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, resulting in fainting.

Question 881

What can low blood pressure cause?

Answer 881

Reduced blood flow to the brain

Low blood pressure may lead to symptoms such as dizziness and fainting.

Question 882

What distinguishes a seizure from syncope?

Answer 882

Seizures may involve convulsions and longer recovery time

During a seizure, the person may not regain consciousness immediately and may exhibit shaking.

Question 883

What medications can cause fainting as a side effect?

Answer 883

Blood pressure medications and antidepressants

Some medications can lower blood pressure or affect the nervous system, leading to syncope.

Question 884

What factors determine the decision to evacuate someone after fainting?

Answer 884

• Overall health and medical history
• Severity of symptoms
• Resources available for treatment and transport

Evaluating these factors is crucial for ensuring patient safety.

Question 885

What specific signs warrant immediate evacuation?

Answer 885

• Unconsciousness for more than a few minutes
• Severe dehydration
• Hypothermia
• Pregnancy-related issues

These conditions can indicate serious health risks that require urgent care.

Question 886

What was Ashley’s likely cause of fainting?

Answer 886

Inadequate water intake during a long hike in the heat

Proper hydration is crucial, especially during physical activities in hot conditions.

Question 887

True or False: Ashley has a personal or family history of heart problems.

Answer 887

False

Ashley has no known heart issues, making her case less concerning for cardiac-related fainting.

Question 888

Fill in the blank: If Ashley had experienced sudden abdominal pain along with fainting, it would raise concerns about _______.

Answer 888

[pregnancy]

Sudden abdominal pain in conjunction with fainting can indicate serious pregnancy complications.

Question 889

What are potential allergens found in the wilderness?

Answer 889

Bees, insects, plants, foods, and countless other exposures.

Question 890

Why is it important to be prepared for allergic reactions in the wilderness?

Answer 890

Symptoms can develop within seconds of exposure, necessitating rapid response and treatment.

Question 891

What are the three categories of allergic reactions?

Answer 891

• Local
• Generalized
• Systemic (anaphylaxis)

Question 892

What characterizes a local allergic reaction?

Answer 892

Development of inflammation symptoms (redness and swelling) and itching on the skin.

Question 893

What are the common treatments for local allergic reactions?

Answer 893

• Topical corticosteroids
• Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Question 894

What symptoms are associated with generalized allergic reactions?

Answer 894

Symptoms similar to local reactions, but occurring in areas beyond the site of exposure, such as hives throughout the abdomen, face, and extremities.

Question 895

Are generalized allergic reactions life-threatening?

Answer 895

Generally not life threatening.

Question 896

Fill in the blank: Local allergic reactions are the _______ severe of the three categories.

Answer 896

[least]

Question 897

True or False: Diphenhydramine is effective for alleviating itching symptoms and seasonal allergies.

Answer 897

True

Question 898

What is anaphylaxis?

Answer 898

A medical emergency that could result in significant respiratory and circulatory compromise if treatment is not provided promptly.

Question 899

How quickly can symptoms of anaphylaxis develop?

Answer 899

Symptoms may develop rapidly (within seconds to minutes) or over a longer period (in rare cases, may occur hours after exposure).

Question 900

What are the initial symptoms of anaphylaxis?

Answer 900

Itching, urticaria (hives), and inflammation of exposed and distant areas (including the lips and tongue).

Question 901

What respiratory issues can arise during anaphylaxis?

Answer 901

Inflammation of the airway can lead to diminished respiratory function and capacity, causing shortness of breath, chest tightness, and wheezing.

Question 902

What happens to blood pressure during anaphylaxis?

Answer 902

Blood pressure can drop dangerously low due to systemic vasodilation.

Question 903

What gastrointestinal symptoms can occur in anaphylaxis?

Answer 903

Vomiting and diarrhea.

Question 904

True or False: Anaphylaxis is less dangerous than other allergic reactions.

Answer 904

False

Question 905

Fill in the blank: Anaphylaxis may cause _____ in the airway, leading to respiratory issues.

Answer 905

inflammation

Question 906

What is the primary purpose of an EpiPen®?

Answer 906

To treat rapid onset of respiratory failure and shock due to anaphylactic reactions

EpiPen contains epinephrine, which is crucial in emergencies.

Question 907

What physiological effects does epinephrine have during anaphylactic shock?

Answer 907

Induces vasoconstriction and bronchodilation

These effects help reduce shock and airway inflammation.

Question 908

What is the recommended location for administering an EpiPen injection?

Answer 908

Intramuscularly into the thigh

The needle can penetrate through clothing.

Question 909

What is the guideline for the EpiPen’s orientation during injection?

Answer 909

Blue to the sky, orange to the thigh

The orange end contains the injectable needle.

Question 910

How long should the EpiPen be held in place after injection?

Answer 910

About ten seconds

This ensures the medication is administered effectively.

Question 911

When might a second dose of epinephrine be necessary?

Answer 911

Within 5-20 minutes if symptoms do not improve

Symptoms include wheezing and respiratory difficulties.

Question 912

What additional medications can be administered after epinephrine for anaphylactic reactions?

Answer 912

Antihistamines, corticosteroids, and inhaled beta2 agonists

Examples include Benadryl, Zantac, prednisone, and albuterol.

Question 913

True or False: Antihistamines and corticosteroids alone can effectively treat anaphylaxis.

Answer 913

False

Only the EpiPen is effective for serious body-wide complications and airway closure.

Question 914

Fill in the blank: The EpiPen should ideally be available in both _______ and _______ forms.

Answer 914

pediatric, adult

This ensures proper dosing for individuals of different ages.

Question 915

What should be done immediately after administering an Epi Pen for anaphylaxis?

Answer 915

Transport the patient to a medical center as quickly as possible

This is crucial because symptoms may return even if they initially disappear.

Question 916

What is a biphasic reaction in the context of anaphylaxis?

Answer 916

A second wave of anaphylaxis that can occur after initial symptoms have been treated

It emphasizes the need for continued medical observation.

Question 917

What is the legal protection provided by Good Samaritan Laws?

Answer 917

Protection against civil damages for individuals rendering emergency care

This applies as long as the assistance is given in good faith and without compensation.

Question 918

Can a bystander be sued for administering an Epi Pen?

Answer 918

In most cases, no

Good Samaritan Laws generally protect such actions.

Question 919

What must an individual do to be protected under Good Samaritan Laws?

Answer 919

Offer assistance in good faith and without compensation

This is crucial for legal protection.

Question 920

What should outdoor programs and recreational businesses obtain regarding Epi Pen administration?

Answer 920

Medical and legal guidance

This is essential for compliance with varying state and county laws.

Question 921

Fill in the blank: Anaphylaxis can return in a second wave known as a _______.

Answer 921

biphasic reaction

Question 922

True or False: Epi Pens can fully resolve anaphylaxis without further medical attention.

Answer 922

False

Even if symptoms improve, emergency medical care is still necessary.

Question 923

What types of laws vary between jurisdictions concerning Epi Pen administration?

Answer 923

Good Samaritan Laws

These laws affect both laypersons and caregivers differently.

Question 924

What do Good Samaritan Laws provide?

Answer 924

Widespread legal protection for providing care at the scene of an emergency

Protection is granted as long as the caregiver acts in good faith, without compensation, and without reckless action.

Question 925

What should you do if you suspect a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis?

Answer 925

Administer the Epi Pen

A single dose poses little danger even if the patient is not truly experiencing anaphylaxis.

Question 926

What are common side effects of administering epinephrine?

Answer 926

Tachycardia, anxiety, weakness, shaking

These side effects are usually mild and last only a few minutes.

Question 927

What is the legal requirement under Good Samaritan Law to administer an Epi Pen?

Answer 927

Have reason to believe the individual is suffering or about to suffer a life-threatening reaction

This legal protection applies in most cases.

Question 928

What is the conclusion regarding the benefits of giving an Epi Pen?

Answer 928

The benefits outweigh the risks if there is any suspicion of anaphylaxis.

Question 929

Do you need to be certified to administer an Epi Pen?

Answer 929

No, certification is not required for lay person administration

This applies in the case of a suspected severe allergic reaction.

Question 930

What should outdoor industry workers check regarding Epi Pen administration?

Answer 930

Workplace specific guidelines for staff training.

Question 931

What should EMTs, paramedics, and nurses do regarding Epi Pen administration?

Answer 931

Defer to their medical director, county, and hospital regulations.

Question 932

Do Good Samaritan Laws apply to paid medical services during emergencies?

Answer 932

No, they do not specifically apply to those being paid for their services.

Question 933

Do I need a parent’s permission to inject epinephrine into a child?

Answer 933

No, if you believe the child is having an anaphylactic reaction

The Good Samaritan Law allows for this under emergency circumstances.

Question 934

What should you do if parents are nearby when administering epinephrine?

Answer 934

Include them in the discussion and decision

It’s important to involve parents if they are able to assist.

Question 935

Are volunteers protected under the Good Samaritan Law when administering epinephrine?

Answer 935

Yes, if certain conditions are met

Conditions include being employed by an organization, having doctor authorization, being trained, and believing in good faith that an allergic reaction is occurring.

Question 936

What are the conditions that protect a volunteer administering epinephrine?

Answer 936

• Employed by an organization
• Doctor’s authorization
• Trained to administer
• Good faith belief of allergic reaction

Protection may not apply if gross negligence or misconduct occurs.

Question 937

What happens if epinephrine is accidentally injected into the hands or feet?

Answer 937

May result in loss of blood flow and requires immediate medical attention

Go to the nearest emergency room for treatment.

Question 938

True or False: You can be sued for administering epinephrine if you are a paid employee.

Answer 938

True, unless you meet specific criteria for protection

The Good Samaritan Law typically does not protect paid individuals.

Question 939

If you accidentally inject an Epi Pen into your hand or foot, what should you do?

Answer 939

Go to the nearest emergency room immediately

Prompt medical treatment is crucial to address potential complications.

Question 940

Can an adult-strength EpiPen be given to a child if it’s the only medication available?

Answer 940

Yes, a larger than prescribed dose of epinephrine can be given if that is the only medication available

It is unlikely to cause serious harm at the larger dose, and it could save the child’s life.

Question 941

What is the dosage of adrenaline in an EpiPen®?

Answer 941

0.3mg adrenaline

EpiPen® contains 0.3mg of adrenaline.

Question 942

What is the dosage of adrenaline in an EpiPen® Jr?

Answer 942

0.15mg adrenaline

EpiPen® Jr contains half the dose of the adult version.

Question 943

Who is recommended to use EpiPen® 0.3mg?

Answer 943

Anyone weighing over 25kg

EpiPen® 0.3mg is recommended for individuals weighing over this threshold.

Question 944

What is the recommended use of EpiPen® Jr?

Answer 944

Children weighing between 7.5 – 25kg

EpiPen® Jr. 0.15mg is specifically for this weight range.

Question 945

Can an adult EpiPen be used on a child?

Answer 945

Yes, if an EpiPen Jr. is not available

An adult EpiPen can be administered to a child in emergency situations.

Question 946

Is it safe to use an expired EpiPen?

Answer 946

There is no guarantee it will work, but it is better than nothing

It may still be effective, especially if it is recently expired.

Question 947

What determines the expiration date of a medication like EpiPen?

Answer 947

A series of tests conducted by the medication’s manufacturer

The expiration date ensures the medication works as expected until that date under proper storage conditions.

Question 948

Do liquid medications, like EpiPens, have a higher chance of failing after expiration?

Answer 948

Yes, they break down faster than solid dosage forms

Liquid medications are more susceptible to degradation post-expiration.

Question 949

What should you do if a recently expired EpiPen is all you have?

Answer 949

You should use it

It can be the only out-of-hospital intervention available for an anaphylactic reaction.

Question 950

True or False: It is safest to always use an EpiPen before it expires.

Answer 950

True

The guarantee of effectiveness only applies up to the expiration date.