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Fish Tails and Wafer Paper > Why You’re Wrong > Flashcards

Why You’re Wrong Flashcards

1
Q

When was HIPAA signed into public law?

A

August 21, 1996

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2
Q

This rule is defined as the minimum amount of PHI that is reasonably needed to achieve the purpose of a request.

A

The Minimum Necessary Rule

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3
Q

Appropriate Military Command Authorities include __

A

All commanders. Secretary of Homeland Security. Any official delegated authority by the Secretary of Homeland Security

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4
Q

What must the CG provide as an accounting of disclosures?

A

When. To whom. For all disclosures made for purposes other than treatment, payment, and healthcare operations

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5
Q

How many years is a patient entitled to when they submit a request an account of disclosures inquiry?

A

6 years

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6
Q

What tool is provided by DHA to comply with the requirements for disclosures?

A

PHIMT (Protected Health Information Management Tool)

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7
Q

How long does the clinic have to fulfill a request for an accounting of disclosures?

A

60 days. Can extend 30 days one time. Must notify the requestor as to the reason for the delay

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8
Q

How many exceptions are there to the definition of “breach” IRT unauthorized uses and disclosures of PHI?

A

3
Unintentional when acting under the authority of a covered entity
Inadvertent disclosure
In good faith the unauthorized individual would not have been able to retain the information

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9
Q

If a breach is reported, how long does the P/SO have to notify individuals whose PHI many have been compromised?

A

Within 10 business days of the conclusion of the investigation

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10
Q

This standard requires the use of standard precautions to protect healthcare workers

A

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard

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11
Q

To prevent needle stick injuries, personnel will not __

A

Recap needles. Bend or break needles. Remove needles from disposable syringes. Otherwise manipulate them

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12
Q

What is the CFU ceiling for non-surgical dental treatment water?

A

<500CFU/mL

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13
Q

How long should dental lines be flushed?

A

Beginning of the day - 2-3minutes
Between patients - 20-30seconds
End of the day - 3minutes

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14
Q

What is the Spaulding Classification?

A

Classification of med/surg instruments
Critical Instruments normally penetrate soft tissue, teeth or bone.
Semi-Critical, non-penetrating

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15
Q

Persons who cleanse instruments must wear

A

Rubber utility gloves

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16
Q

If using plastic or nylon sterilization tubing, the pack should be approximately __ larger than the largest instrument.

A

20%

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17
Q

This sterilization method is most practical, dependable, and preferable to chemical means.

A

Heat sterilization

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18
Q

What are the three common heat sterilization techniques?

A

Steam Vapor under Pressure (Autoclave)
Chemical Vapor under Pressure (Chemiclave)
Dry Heat Sterilizer

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19
Q

Chemiclaves use what chemicals?

A

Formaldehyde, alcohol, acetone, ketone, and water

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20
Q

What type of instruments should not be sterilized in dry heat sterilizers? Why?

A

Critical instruments. Some dry heat units are not able to sterilize large trays and require special wrapping and bagging materials.

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21
Q

Because sterility is destroyed as soon as items are touched or left open to the environment, do not place __ in dry heat sterilizers

A

Loose instruments

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22
Q

How must sterilization procedures be monitored and recorded for compliance?

A

In a log book

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23
Q

At what frequency must all chemical vapor, water vapor and dry heat sterilizers be tested for biological monitoring requirements?

A

Spore test either weekly or each cycle or whichever is less frequent

24
Q

Chemical sterilization and High-Level Disinfection contain what chemical?

A

Glutaraldehyde 2%

25
Q

How long should instruments be immersed to achieve sterilization?

A

7-10 hours uninterrupted

26
Q

Uninterrupted immersion for __ will kill most pathogenic organisms but not spores.

A

10 minutes

27
Q

Glutaraldehydes are not recommended for

A

Surface disinfection

28
Q

What three chemicals are recommended for surface disinfection

A

Iodophor. Phenolics. Sodium Hypochlorite

29
Q

__ to __ minutes of contact time with Iodophor will produce intermediate levels of disinfection.

A

10 - 30 minutes

30
Q

Iodophores should be diluted __:__ with water

A

1:213

31
Q

__to__minutes of contact time with phenolics produces disinfection

A

10 - 20 minutes

32
Q

A 1:10 dilution of __ sodium hypochlorite in water produces a solution which disinfects at an intermediate level in 10 minutes

A

5.25%

33
Q

What chemical disinfectants are not recommended for use?

A

Alcohol. Quaternary Ammonium Compounds.

34
Q

Quaternary ammonium compounds (quats) are ineffective against__

A

Most spore formers, HepB, tubercle bacillus

35
Q

An exposure to BBP occurs when a worker comes into contact with blood or other body fluids in one of these ways.

A

Parenteral - needle stick or cut
Mucous membrane - splash into the eye or mouth
Cutaneous contact - contact with large amounts of blood or prolonged contact with blood if the exposed skin is chapped, abraded, or afflicted with dermatitis

36
Q

If a worker is exposed to BBP, an initial screening of the “source” should be performed within __ of the exposure

A

15minutes

37
Q

The CDC recommends a __ period for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

A

4 week

38
Q

After an exposure, a worker should wash or flush the area for __ then report the exposure immediately to their supervisor.

A

at least 5 minutes

39
Q

What is SHSO?

A

Senior Health Services Officer

40
Q

What are the types of concent?

A

Expressed consent

Oral consent

41
Q

What conditions require written consent?

A

All surgical procedures, invasive tests and procedures, anesthesia including local dental anesthesia, all dental procedures, GU procedures

42
Q

What is a risk assessment tool that considers the severity of an adverse event or near miss event together with the probability of the event’s occurance?

A

Safety Assessment Code

43
Q

What program supports quality medical care by identifying, analyzing, and preventing actual and potential risks to patients and staff?

A

Patient Safety and Risk Management Tool

44
Q

How soon after an event must the command submit copies of the SF-558 and/or SF-600 and/or CG-5214?

A

24 hours

45
Q

What statement must be stamped or printed on the top of each document submitted for an adverse event?

A

“This is a medical quality assurance document. It is protected by Federal law”

46
Q

HSWL SC has __ to forward all adverse event documents to CG-112

A

3 days of receipt

47
Q

What are the four categories of severity in the Safety Assessment Code?

A

Catastrophic, Major, Moderate, Minor

48
Q

What are the three categories of probability in the Safety Assessment Code?

A

High, Medium, Low

49
Q

All adverse events with a SAC score of __ must have a Root Cause Analysis and Action Plan

A

SAC 3

50
Q

A completed Root Cause Analysis will be sent from the __ to __ thru __ for review and appropriate action

A

The clinic to CG-112 thru HSWL SC

51
Q

When will staff receive patient safety, risk management and teamwork education training?

A

Initial orientation, and on an as-needed basis

52
Q

Effective this date, the NREMT became the certification standard for all new or recertifying CG EMS providers.

A

1 October 1990

53
Q

Training requests must be received at CG-112 __ before the convening date

A

8 weeks

54
Q

__ processes approved requests for training and issues orders

A

ETQC

55
Q

Who coordinates “C” School training in courses longer than 20 weeks requiring PCS?

A

Personnel Service Center (PSC-epm-2)

56
Q

HSs must possess current NREMT certification to be eligible for advancement to what ranks?

A

E4-E7

Fish Tails and Wafer Paper (14 decks)

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