Why You’re Wrong Flashcards
When was HIPAA signed into public law?
August 21, 1996
This rule is defined as the minimum amount of PHI that is reasonably needed to achieve the purpose of a request.
The Minimum Necessary Rule
Appropriate Military Command Authorities include __
All commanders. Secretary of Homeland Security. Any official delegated authority by the Secretary of Homeland Security
What must the CG provide as an accounting of disclosures?
When. To whom. For all disclosures made for purposes other than treatment, payment, and healthcare operations
How many years is a patient entitled to when they submit a request an account of disclosures inquiry?
6 years
What tool is provided by DHA to comply with the requirements for disclosures?
PHIMT (Protected Health Information Management Tool)
How long does the clinic have to fulfill a request for an accounting of disclosures?
60 days. Can extend 30 days one time. Must notify the requestor as to the reason for the delay
How many exceptions are there to the definition of “breach” IRT unauthorized uses and disclosures of PHI?
3
Unintentional when acting under the authority of a covered entity
Inadvertent disclosure
In good faith the unauthorized individual would not have been able to retain the information
If a breach is reported, how long does the P/SO have to notify individuals whose PHI many have been compromised?
Within 10 business days of the conclusion of the investigation
This standard requires the use of standard precautions to protect healthcare workers
OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
To prevent needle stick injuries, personnel will not __
Recap needles. Bend or break needles. Remove needles from disposable syringes. Otherwise manipulate them
What is the CFU ceiling for non-surgical dental treatment water?
<500CFU/mL
How long should dental lines be flushed?
Beginning of the day - 2-3minutes
Between patients - 20-30seconds
End of the day - 3minutes
What is the Spaulding Classification?
Classification of med/surg instruments
Critical Instruments normally penetrate soft tissue, teeth or bone.
Semi-Critical, non-penetrating
Persons who cleanse instruments must wear
Rubber utility gloves
If using plastic or nylon sterilization tubing, the pack should be approximately __ larger than the largest instrument.
20%
This sterilization method is most practical, dependable, and preferable to chemical means.
Heat sterilization
What are the three common heat sterilization techniques?
Steam Vapor under Pressure (Autoclave)
Chemical Vapor under Pressure (Chemiclave)
Dry Heat Sterilizer
Chemiclaves use what chemicals?
Formaldehyde, alcohol, acetone, ketone, and water
What type of instruments should not be sterilized in dry heat sterilizers? Why?
Critical instruments. Some dry heat units are not able to sterilize large trays and require special wrapping and bagging materials.
Because sterility is destroyed as soon as items are touched or left open to the environment, do not place __ in dry heat sterilizers
Loose instruments
How must sterilization procedures be monitored and recorded for compliance?
In a log book
At what frequency must all chemical vapor, water vapor and dry heat sterilizers be tested for biological monitoring requirements?
Spore test either weekly or each cycle or whichever is less frequent
Chemical sterilization and High-Level Disinfection contain what chemical?
Glutaraldehyde 2%
How long should instruments be immersed to achieve sterilization?
7-10 hours uninterrupted
Uninterrupted immersion for __ will kill most pathogenic organisms but not spores.
10 minutes
Glutaraldehydes are not recommended for
Surface disinfection
What three chemicals are recommended for surface disinfection
Iodophor. Phenolics. Sodium Hypochlorite
__ to __ minutes of contact time with Iodophor will produce intermediate levels of disinfection.
10 - 30 minutes
Iodophores should be diluted __:__ with water
1:213
__to__minutes of contact time with phenolics produces disinfection
10 - 20 minutes
A 1:10 dilution of __ sodium hypochlorite in water produces a solution which disinfects at an intermediate level in 10 minutes
5.25%
What chemical disinfectants are not recommended for use?
Alcohol. Quaternary Ammonium Compounds.
Quaternary ammonium compounds (quats) are ineffective against__
Most spore formers, HepB, tubercle bacillus
An exposure to BBP occurs when a worker comes into contact with blood or other body fluids in one of these ways.
Parenteral - needle stick or cut
Mucous membrane - splash into the eye or mouth
Cutaneous contact - contact with large amounts of blood or prolonged contact with blood if the exposed skin is chapped, abraded, or afflicted with dermatitis
If a worker is exposed to BBP, an initial screening of the “source” should be performed within __ of the exposure
15minutes
The CDC recommends a __ period for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
4 week
After an exposure, a worker should wash or flush the area for __ then report the exposure immediately to their supervisor.
at least 5 minutes
What is SHSO?
Senior Health Services Officer
What are the types of concent?
Expressed consent
Oral consent
What conditions require written consent?
All surgical procedures, invasive tests and procedures, anesthesia including local dental anesthesia, all dental procedures, GU procedures
What is a risk assessment tool that considers the severity of an adverse event or near miss event together with the probability of the event’s occurance?
Safety Assessment Code
What program supports quality medical care by identifying, analyzing, and preventing actual and potential risks to patients and staff?
Patient Safety and Risk Management Tool
How soon after an event must the command submit copies of the SF-558 and/or SF-600 and/or CG-5214?
24 hours
What statement must be stamped or printed on the top of each document submitted for an adverse event?
“This is a medical quality assurance document. It is protected by Federal law”
HSWL SC has __ to forward all adverse event documents to CG-112
3 days of receipt
What are the four categories of severity in the Safety Assessment Code?
Catastrophic, Major, Moderate, Minor
What are the three categories of probability in the Safety Assessment Code?
High, Medium, Low
All adverse events with a SAC score of __ must have a Root Cause Analysis and Action Plan
SAC 3
A completed Root Cause Analysis will be sent from the __ to __ thru __ for review and appropriate action
The clinic to CG-112 thru HSWL SC
When will staff receive patient safety, risk management and teamwork education training?
Initial orientation, and on an as-needed basis
Effective this date, the NREMT became the certification standard for all new or recertifying CG EMS providers.
1 October 1990
Training requests must be received at CG-112 __ before the convening date
8 weeks
__ processes approved requests for training and issues orders
ETQC
Who coordinates “C” School training in courses longer than 20 weeks requiring PCS?
Personnel Service Center (PSC-epm-2)
HSs must possess current NREMT certification to be eligible for advancement to what ranks?
E4-E7
