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Pathology Unit 2 > White blood Cells > Flashcards

White blood Cells Flashcards

1
Q

What CD distinguishes a hematopoietic stem cell?

A

CD34

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2
Q

What type of cell is the most sensitive to radiation?

A

lymphocytes –> lymphopenia

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3
Q

What is the effect of cortisol on white blood cells?

A

leukocytosis - release of marginated pool

bats in a cave - no not boogers in your nose

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4
Q

In which type of cancer are eosinophils strangely very high?

A

hodkins lymphoma

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5
Q

Which neoplasm inc basophils?

A

CML

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6
Q

What is a type of bacteria that produces lymphocytosis?

A

bortadella pertussis

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7
Q

what are in mast cell granules?

A

histamine, heparin, eosinophil and neutrophil chemotactic factors

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8
Q

What are lymphoblasts specifically positive for that are not present in myeloid blasts, and mature lymphocytes?

A

Tdt - DNA polymerase

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9
Q

What is the most common type of ALL and what population is it frequent in?

A

B-ALL

-children younger than 6

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10
Q

Is CD10 present in cells of B-ALL or T-ALL?

A

B-ALL ONLY

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11
Q

What is the most common presentation in Tacute lymphoblastic lymphoma?

A

mediastinal thymic mass in a teenager

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12
Q

Myeloblasts are characteristic for staining for what?

A

MPO - auerer rods

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13
Q

What are some common myeloid antigens?

A

CD13, CD15, CD33, CD117 (Ckit)

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14
Q

What population is acute myeloid leukemia most common in ?

A

adults 50-60

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15
Q

APL:

  • translocation
  • treatment
A

T(15,17)

all trans retinoic acid

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16
Q

What two types of chemo inc the risk for AML?

A
  • alkylating agents

- topo II inhibitors

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17
Q

B-CLL and SLL are indistinguishable phenotypically, genotypically, morphologically, so what the hell is the difference?

A

B-CLL - found in blood and BM
SLL - solid tumor mass of LNs

-malignant proliferation of naive B cells

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18
Q

What are some complications of B-CLL/SLL?

A
  • hypogammaglobulinemia - infection = most common cause of death
  • autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • transformation to DLBL (Richter)
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19
Q

Hairy cell leukemia is associated with activation of what ?

A

BRAF serine/threonine kinase

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20
Q

What does hairy cell leukemia stain positive for?

A

TRAP

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21
Q

What chemo drug is effective for hairy cell leukemia?

A

2 CDA - adenosine deaminase inhibitor

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22
Q

What leukemia is HTLV1 associated with?

A

ATL

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23
Q

How is ATL distinguished from multiple myeloma?

A

presence of a rash

lytic bone lesions are seen in both

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24
Q

What is mycoides fungoides?

A

neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T cells - form pautrier microabscesses, which look like fungus

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25
Q

What is called with mycoides fungoides spreads to the blood?

A

sezary sydrome

26
Q

What are five examples of myeloproliferative disorders?

A
  1. CML
  2. polycythemia vera
  3. essential thrombocythemia
  4. myelofibrosis
  5. mastocytosis
27
Q

What are three complications of myeloproliferative disorders?

A
  1. hyperuricemia and gout
  2. progression to marrow fibrosis - spent phase
  3. transformation to acute leukemia

-except essential thrombocytopenia!w

28
Q

What are the two most common acute leukemias that CML progresses to?

A
  1. AML -2/3

2. ALL - 1/3

29
Q

How do you distinguish CML from a leukomoid reaction?

A
  1. CML granulocytes lack leukocyte analine phosphatase
  2. CML - inc basophils
  3. philadelphia chromosome in CML
30
Q

What is mutated in polycythemia vera , essential thrombocytopenia, and myelofibrosis?

A

JAK2 Kinase

31
Q

In PV are the SaO2 and EPO inc, dec, or neither?

A

SaO2 - normal

EPO - decreased (negative feedback)

32
Q

In reactive polycythemia due to lung disease are the SaO2 and EPO inc, dec, or neither?

A

Sao2 - decreased

EPO - inc (positive feedback)

33
Q

In reactive polycythemia due to Renal cell carcinoma are the SaO2 and EPO inc, dec, or neither?

A

sao2 = normal

EPO - high (lack of neg feedback)

34
Q

What is the common visual appearance of mastocytosis?

A

urticaria pigmentosa - multiple tan brown nodules on skin of trunk

  • most often in children
35
Q

What is the usual diagnosis when the following lymph nodes are swollen:

  1. posterior auricular
  2. occipital
  3. posterior cervical
  4. axillary
  5. inguinal
A
  1. rubella
  2. scalp infection
  3. toxoplasmosis
  4. infection of chest wall
  5. legs or venereal infection
36
Q

What is the usual cause of follicular hyperplasia?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

early stage HIV

37
Q

What is the most common type of lymphoma?

A

Nonhodkins specifically - DLBCL

38
Q

Nonhodkins lymphomas typically present in males, except for which type that is more common in women?

A

follicular lymphoma

39
Q

What is the transformation in follicular lymphoma?

A

T(14, 18) - persistent activation of Bcl2

40
Q

What type of lymphoma can follicular lymphoma progress to?

A

DLBCL

41
Q

What is the translocation in mantle cell lymphoma?

A

T (11,14) - activation of cyclin D1 (bcl1)

-G1 –> S progression

42
Q

What three conditions are marginal zone lymphomas associated with?

A
  1. hashimotos
  2. sjogren
  3. H pylori
43
Q

How would you distinguish burkitt’s lymphoma from B-ALL?

A

burkitts - no expression of Tdt

44
Q

What is the translocation in burkitts?

A

T(8,14) - activation of c-myc

45
Q

What is the classic histological appearance of burkitts?

A

starry sky - lots of blue active cells with dead white cells

46
Q

Where is the most common site of disease in DLBCL?

A

GI

47
Q

What ages is hodkins lymphoma most common in?

A

between 10 and 30

48
Q

What are the class cells of hodkins lymphoma and what markers are present on them?

A

-Reed sternberg cells - multilobed nuclei with prominent nucleoli

CD15+, CD30+

49
Q

What is the most common subclass of hodkins lymphoma and describe it

A

nodular sclerosis

  • cervical or mediastinal LN
  • fibrosis forms nodules
  • reed sternberg cells in wide open spaces - lacunar cells
50
Q

Which subytype of hodkins lymphoma has the worst prognosis? best?

A

lymphocyte depleted - worst

lymphocyte rich - best

51
Q

Which subtype of hodkins lymphoma has abundant eosinophils?

A

mixed cellularity

52
Q

What is the most common primary malignancy in bone?

A

multiple myeloma

53
Q

What are the clinical features of mult myeloma?

A

CRAB

  1. hypercalcemia
  2. renal - bence jones proteins - free light chain depositis
  3. anemia
  4. bone loss - lytic lesions

also:

  • primary AL amiloidosis - free light chain
  • inc risk of infection
  • rouleaux formation
54
Q

What is the classic finding on serum protein electrophoresis in mult myeloma?

A

M spike - usually IgG or IgA

55
Q

What are two other causes of an M spike besides multiple myeloma?

A
  1. monoglonal gammopathy - old people
  2. waldenstrom macroglobulinemia - IgM
    - no lytic bone lesions in either
56
Q

What are the complications of waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?

A

Hyperviscosity—>retinal hemorrhage, stroke

57
Q

What is the classic histiologic finding in langerhans histiocytosis?

A

birbeck granules

58
Q

If an adolescent presents with an unlikely bone fracture with no apparent reason what should you expect -besides abuse obvi ?

A

eosinophilic granuloma

59
Q

What are the classic findings in a spleen in RA and SLE

A

RA - germinal centers
SLE - fibrinoid necrosis of capsular and trabecular collagen
(onion thickening of central arterioles in white pulp)

60
Q

What are gamna gandy bodies and when are they found?

A

foci of old hemorrhages

-spleen in sickle cell anemia

Pathology Unit 2 (6 decks)

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