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Its not over, Until its over! > wells 1 > Flashcards

wells 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following correlations is incorrect?

a. Superior – cephalic
b. Sagittal – median
c. Transverse – horizontal
d. Inferior – cephalic
e. Anterior - ventral

A

d. Inferior – cephalic

inferior – caudal

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2
Q

Synovial joints possess all of the following features except

a. Articular cartilage
b. A joint cavity
c. A joint capsule
d. A synovial membrane
e. An articular disk

A

e. An articular disk

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3
Q

The shoulder joint is a synovial joint which can be classified on the basis of the movements it permits as a

a. Syndesmosis
b. Uniaxial joint
c. Biaxial point
d. Multiaxial joint
e. Condyloid joint

A

d. Multiaxial joint

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4
Q

The range of a muscle is largely determined by the

a. Diameter and number of its component muscle fibers
b. Length of its component muscle fibers
c. Mitochondrial content
d. Length of its tendon
e. Mass, including tendon

A

b. Length of its component muscle fibers

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5
Q

Which of the following features are associated with the humerus?

a. Olecranon process, coronoid fossa, and styloid fossa
b. Greater tuberosity, olecranon fossa, coronoid fossa
c. Acromion, coracoid, and glenoid fossa
d. Tuberculum, capitulum, and angle
e. Greater trochanter, lesser trochanter, and intercondyloid fossa

A

b. Greater tuberosity, olecranon fossa, coronoid fossa

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6
Q

What is the relationship of the nipple to the umbilicus?

a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Inferior
d. Superior
e. Caudal

A

d. Superior

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7
Q

Long bones grow in length primarily by

a. Adding bone onto the ends of the articular cartilage
b. Mitosis of bone cells (osteocytes)
c. Laying down of bone in the periosteum
d. Replacement of epiphyseal plate cartilage with bone
e. Replacement of primitive connective tissue

A

d. Replacement of epiphyseal plate cartilage with bone

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8
Q

The fontanelles (soft spots) in the skull of an infant are examples of

a. Synovial joints
b. Syndesmoses
c. Synchondroses
d. Synostoses
e. Ossification centers

A

b. Syndesmoses

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9
Q

The most prominent bony landmarks on the posterior aspect of the neck is the

a. Spinous process of the axis
b. Transverse process of the atlas
c. Transverse process of the sixth cervical vertebra
d. Spinous process of the seventh cervical vertebra
e. The hyoid bone

A

d. Spinous process of the seventh cervical vertebra

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10
Q

Fibrocartilaginous menisci, (disks) are found in the

a. Elbow joint
b. Shoulder joint
c. Sternoclavicular joint
d. Acromioclavicular joint
e. Both b and c

A

c. Sternoclavicular joint

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11
Q

About a vertical axis through the sternoclavicular joint, the rhomboids would __________ the pectoral girdle

a. Elevate
b. Protract
c. Laterally rotate
d. Medially rotate
e. retract

A

e. retract

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12
Q

All of the muscles that attach to the coracoid process are supplied by

a. The musculocutaneous nerve
b. The subscapular nerves
c. Anterior division nerves from the brachial plexus
d. Posterior division nerves from the brachial plexus
e. None of the above

A

c. Anterior division nerves from the brachial plexus

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13
Q

The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the

a. Fibers
b. Fascicle
c. Fibril
d. Muscle belly
e. Motor unit

A

e.Motor unit

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14
Q

Which of the following muscle is named on the basis of its action only?

a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Levator scapulae
c. Teres major
d. Biceps brachii
e. Pectoralis major

A

b. Levator scapulae

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15
Q

Which muscle can perform all movements of the arm at the shoulder joint?

a. Deltoid
b. Supraspinatus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectoralis major
e. Teres major

A

a. Deltoid

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16
Q

Which group of muscles can all adduct the arm at the shoulder joint?

a. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and supraspinatus
b. Deltoid, teres minor, and subscapular
c. Teres major, latissimus dorsi, and pectoralis major
d. Infraspinatus, supraspinatus, and subscapularis
e. Both c and d

A

c. Teres major, latissimus dorsi, and pectoralis major

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17
Q

Which of the following would be the most powerful set of muscles or their parts for extending and medially rotating arm at the shoulder against resistance?

a. Latissimus dorsi, teres minor, and posterior deltoid
b. Latissimus dorsi, teres major, and subscapular
c. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapular
d. Teres major, middle deltoid, and infraspinatus
e. Pectoralis major, anterior deltoid, and teres major

A

c. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapular

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18
Q

At the ankle joint the tibia and fibula articulate with the

a. Calcaneus
b. Navicular
c. Talus
d. Cuboid
e. Cuneiform bones

A

c. Talus

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19
Q

Primarily and secondary ossification centers appears as early as ___________, respectively

a. 6 weeks and 9 months intrauterine
b. 12 weeks and 9 months intrauterine
c. Birth and 2 years of age
d. 9 months intrauterine and 12 years of age
e. 2weeks intrauterine and 2 months postnatally

A

a. 6 weeks and 9 months intrauterine

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20
Q

Growth in length of a long bone of the limbs is

a. Proportionately greater at the end in which the secondary ossification center appears first
b. Proportionately greater at the end in which the secondary ossification center appears later
c. Greater at the end which contains the greater number of secondary ossification
d. Dependent mainly on the mitotic activity of the articular cartilage at their end
e. Always greater at the proximal end

A

a. Proportionately greater at the end in which the secondary ossification center appears first

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21
Q

Unilateral contraction of the sternocleidomastoid

a. Extends the head at the atlantooccipital joint, bends the head to the same side, and rotates it to the opposite
b. Flexes the head at the atlantooccipital joint and rotates the head to the opposite side
c. Bends the head and neck to the same side
d. Extends the head and rotates it to the same side
e. Flexes the neck at the cervical intervertebral joints and rotates the head to the opposite side

A

a. Extends the head at the atlantooccipital joint, bends the head to the same side, and rotates it to the opposite

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22
Q

Which group of muscles all possess fibers that pass from origins on the axial skeleton to insertions on the pectoral girdle (scapula and/or clavicle))?

a. Pectoralis minor, subscapular, and serratus anterior
b. Levator scapulae, supraspinatus, and trapezius
c. Teres major, latissimus dorsi, and pectoralis major
d. Rhomboids, subclavius, and levator scapulae
e. Coracobrachialis, latissimus dorsi, and pectoralis minor

A

d. Rhomboids, subclavius, and levator scapulae

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23
Q

Which of the following correlations are correct?

a. epiphyseal plate-growth in length of a long bone
b. articular cartilage-hyaline cartilage
c. periosteum-intramembranous bone formation
d. traction epiphysis-secondary ossification center
e. marrow cavity-endosteum
1. a, b, and d
2. A, b, d, and e
3. B, c, and d
4. B, c, d, and e
5. All of the above

A
  1. All of the above
    a. epiphyseal plate-growth in length of a long bone
    b. articular cartilage-hyaline cartilage
    c. periosteum-intramembranous bone formation
    d. traction epiphysis-secondary ossification center
    e. marrow cavity-endosteum
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24
Q

In rotation of the pectoral girdle, the inferior angle of the scapula is used as the reference point. In moving this angle laterally, the best combination of muscles from the following is

a. trapezius
b. supraspinatus
c. levator scapulae
d. serratus anterior
e. rhomboids
1. A and b
2. B and c
3. A and c
4. C and d
5. A and d

A
  1. A and d
    a. trapezius
    d. serratus anterior
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25
Q

Which of the following statements are incorrect?

a. the sternum forms parts of the anterior chest wall
b. the occipital bone forms the lateral aspect of the arm
c. the carpal bones are proximal to the phalanges
d. the humerus is on the superficial aspect of the arm
e. the clavicle is superior to the thyroid cartilage
1. a, c, and e
2. A, b, and c
3. B, c, and d
4. B, d, and e
5. B, c, and e

A
  1. B, d, and e
    b. the occipital bone forms the lateral aspect of the arm
    d. the humerus is on the superficial aspect of the arm
    e. the clavicle is superior to the thyroid cartilage
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26
Q

The manubriosternal angle

a. indicates a site of a synovial type of cartilaginous joint
b. is subcutaneous
c. indicates the level at which the second rib joins the sternum
d. indicates the level at which the first joins the sternum
e. indicates an area of skin innervated by the fourth thoracic intercostal nerve
1. a, b, and d
2. B, c, and d
3. B, d, and e
4. A, c, and d
5. A, b, and c

A
  1. A, b, and c
    a. indicates a site of a synovial type of cartilaginous joint
    b. is subcutaneous
    c. indicates the level at which the second rib joins the sternum
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27
Q

At the shoulder, the

a. acromion, clavicle, and spine of scapula are subcutaneous
b. acromion is a part of the clavicle
c. acromion is a part of the scapula
d. coracoid process is part of the sternum
e. clavicle articulates medially with the sternum and laterally within the scapula
1. a, b, and c
2. A, c, and d
3. A, c, and e
4. B, c, and d
5. B, d, and e

A
  1. A, c, and e
    a. acromion, clavicle, and spine of scapula are subcutaneous
    c. acromion is a part of the scapula
    e. clavicle articulates medially with the sternum and laterally within the scapula
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28
Q

Concerning angular or circular movement at a joint, which of the following statements are true?

a. around a transverse axis, flexion-extension occurs
b. around a transverse axis, abduction-adduction occurs
c. around a vertical axis, pronation-supination occurs
d. around an anteroposterior axis, flexion-extension occurs
e. angular movement may not occur in some synovial joints
1. a, b, and c
2. A, c, and d
3. A, c, and e
4. B, c, and d
5. B, d, and e

A
  1. A, c, and e
    a. around a transverse axis, flexion- extension occurs
    c. around a vertical axis, pronation- supination occurs
    e. angular movement may not occur in some synovial joints
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29
Q

Synovial joints

a. always possess a cavity lined by synovial membranes
b. generally permit freer movement than nonsynovial joints
c. may or may not permit angular (circular) movement
d. are found only in the appendicular skeleton
e. occur only between two bones
1. a, b, and c
2. A, c, and d
3. A, d, and e
4. A, b, and d
5. B, d, and e

A
  1. a, b, and c
    a. always possess a cavity lined by synovial membranes
    b. generally permit freer movement than nonsynovial joints
    c. may or may not permit angular (circular) movement
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30
Q

The pectoral girdle consists of the

a. sternum
b. scapula
c. humerus
d. clavicle
e. ischium
1. A and b
2. A and c
3. B and c
4. B and d
5. B and e

A
  1. B and d
    b. scapula
    d. clavicle
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31
Q

The major function of the lymphatic channels is to

a. Fight infection
b. Return tissue fluid and plasma proteins to the veins
c. Absorbs substances from the digestive tract
d. Carry substances to the spleen
e. Absorb products from the endocrine glands

A

b. Return tissue fluid and plasma proteins to the veins

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32
Q

The foramen ovale in the fetal heart

a. Allows blood to enter the fetal lungs
b. Allows blood returning from the head to enter the left atrium
c. Allows blood returning from the placenta to enter the left atrium
d. Prevents blood in the right atrium from entering the left atrium
e. Allows blood in the right ventricle to enter the left ventricle

A

c. Allows blood returning from the placenta to enter the left atrium

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33
Q

The function of the atrioventricular (bicuspid and tricuspid) valves is to

a. Prevent blood in the ventricles from being pumped into the atria
b. Prevent blood in the aorta and pulmonary arteries from returning to the ventricles
c. Serves as attachment sites for the cardiac muscle
d. Convey the conducting fibers to the cardiac muscle
e. Prevent pooling of the blood in the two ventricles

A

a. Prevent blood in the ventricles from being pumped into the atria

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34
Q

The main arterial trunk that branches to supply the structures in the infratemporal fossa is the

a. Infratemporal artery
b. Deep temporal artery
c. Deep facial artery
d. Maxillary artery
e. Mandibular artery

A

d. Maxillary artery

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35
Q

The three usual primary branches of the celiac artery are the

a. Common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric
b. Common hepatic, splenic, and right gastric
c. Gastroduodenal, splenic, and left gastric
d. Right gastroepiploic, splenic, and left gastric
e. Common hepatic, right gastroepiploic, and left gastric

A

a. Common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric

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36
Q

The tendinous cords (chordae tendineae)

a. Open the atrioventricular valve leaflets during ventricular filling
b. Convey Purkinje fibers to the ventricular musculature
c. Attach to the pectinate muscles
d. Prevent eversion of the atrioventricular valve leaflets during ventricular systole
e. Attach to the fibrous skeleton of the heart

A

d. Prevent eversion of the atrioventricular valve leaflets during ventricular systole

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37
Q

Venous blood from the heart muscle can drain into

a. The right atrium only
b. Either atrium but not the ventricles
c. The right ventricle and both atria but not the left ventricle
d. All four chambers but the vast majority drains into the right atrium
e. All four chambers plus the superior vena cava

A

d. All four chambers but the vast majority drains into the right atrium

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38
Q

Lymph draining from the testis passes first into

a. Superficial inguinal nodes
b. Deep inguinal nodes
c. Internal iliac nodes
d. Lumbar nodes
e. Sacral nodes

A

d. Lumbar nodes

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39
Q

Blood passing to the left hand after leaving the aortic arch, normally would pass through, in order, the following vessels:

a. Left subclavian, brachial, axillary, radial or ulnar
b. Left subclavian, axillary, radial, brachial, ulnar
c. Left subclavian, axillary, brachial, radial or ulnar
d. Left subclavian, axillary, radial, ulnar
e. None of the above

A

c. Left subclavian, axillary, brachial, radial or ulnar

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40
Q

Which of the following are normally direct branches of the aortic arch?

a. right subclavian
b. left common carotid
c. left subclavian
d. right common carotid
e. right brachiocephalic
1. a, b, and c
2. A, d, and e
3. B, c, and d
4. B, d, and e
5. B, c, and e

A
  1. B, c, and e
    b. left common carotid
    c. left subclavian
    e. right brachiocephalic
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41
Q

The portal system anastomoses with the caval system at the

a. anterior abdominal wall
b. esophagus
c. posterior body wall
d. rectum
e. pelvis
1. a, b, c, and d
2. B, c, and d
3. C, d, and e
4. B, d, and e
5. All of the above

A
  1. a, b, c, and d
    a. anterior abdominal wall
    b. esophagus
    c. posterior body wall
    d. rectum
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42
Q

Which of the following statements are true?

a. lymph drainage from the breast is mainly to the axillary nodes
b. the breast is located in the subcutaneous tissue of the anterior chest wall, anterior to the pectoralis muscle
c. removal of a breast causes sterilization
d. the breast lie inferior to the clavicle and lateral to the sternum
e. production of milk by the breast is primarily under parasympathetic nervous control
1. a, b, and d
2. A, b, and c
3. A, c, and d
4. B, c, and d
5. B, d, and e

A
  1. a, b, and d
    a. lymph drainage from the breast is mainly to the axillary nodes
    b. the breast is located in the subcutaneous tissue of the anterior chest wall, anterior to the pectoralis muscle
    d. the breast lie inferior to the clavicle and lateral to the sternum
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43
Q

In the neck the esophagus is ___________ to the trachea

a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Lateral
d. Medial
e. superior

A

b. Posterior

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44
Q

The olfactory region of the nasal cavity is located on the

a. Lateral nasal walls
b. Posterior nasal walls
c. Cribriform plate
d. Nasal septum and lateral wall above the superior nasal concha
e. Nasal floor and lateral wall above the inferior nasal concha

A

d. Nasal septum and lateral wall above the superior nasal concha

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45
Q

Impulses representing taste from the tongue are carried back to the brain via _________, ____________, and __________ cranial nerves

a. facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus
b. Olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear
c. Trigeminal, facial, and spinal accessory
d. Oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent
e. Trigeminal, facial, and vagus

A

a. facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus

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46
Q

The spaces at either side of the anal canal that contain fat and areolar tissue are the

a. Superficial perineal spaces
b. Deep perineal spaces
c. Pudendal canals
d. Ischiorectal fossae

A

d. Ischiorectal fossae

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47
Q

Each lung relates to a closed lubricated bag called the

a. Peritoneal sac
b. Pleural sac
c. Pericardial sac
d. Atrium
e. scrotum

A

b. Pleural sac

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48
Q

The coelomic sacs pleural or peritoneal are formed of a continuous membrane whose outer layer is named

a. Parietal
b. Visceral
c. Arterial
d. By its manner of innervation

A

a. Parietal

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49
Q

Air that is suddenly introduced into a pleural sac related to a lung, produces a condition called pneumothorax that

a. Increases the efficiency of respiration
b. Causes no problem to that lung
c. Collapse that lung to some degree
d. Inflates that lung immediately
e. Happens normally at birth

A

c. Collapse that lung to some degree

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50
Q

During respiration

a. The visceral pleural stays next to the parietal pleural (which follows the body wall during inspiration) to allow the lungs to inflate
b. The visceral pleural and parietal pleural never are in contact
c. Air is pumped into the pleural sacs and from there filters into the lungs
d. The rib cage is fixed and incapable of expansion
e. The lungs can inflate independently of movement of the diaphragm and rib cage

A

a. The visceral pleural stays next to the parietal pleural (which follows the body wall during inspiration) to allow the lungs to inflate

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51
Q

The large peritoneal cavity in a normal person actually contains

a. All the abdominal viscera
b. Only the gut
c. Gastric juice
d. A little fluid and nothing else
e. A reservoir of blood for emergency use

A

d. A little fluid and nothing else

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52
Q

Although all adult coelomic sacs are considered closed as an exception

a. In males, the two pleural sacs are always fused into a single sac
b. In males, the pleural sacs lead to the outside for purposes of respiration
c. In females, the pleural sacs lead to the outside
d. In females, the peritoneal sac leads to the outside by way of normal openings in the uterine tubes
e. In both sexes, the sacs may open to the outside during estrus

A

d. In females, the peritoneal sac leads to the outside by way of normal openings in the uterine tubes

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53
Q

One reason that a mesentery has some clinical or surgical importance is because

a. A mesentery is always devoid of blood vessels and so can be safely cut
b. Blood vessels, nerves, and ducts of the gut all lie in a mesentery and can be identified there
c. The mesentery is very sensitive and has to be handled carefully for the patient’s comfort
d. The tissue dissolves on touch and in this way frees up the abdominal organs for easier surgical manipulation

A

b. Blood vessels, nerves, and ducts of the gut all lie in a mesentery and can be identified there

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54
Q

The diaphragm

a. Is totally involuntary in action
b. Lies between the right and left thorax and aids in respiration
c. Lies between the thorax and abdomen and aids in respiration
d. Lies between the thorax and abdomen and principally assists in digestion
e. Is actually a synonym for a mesentery

A

c. Lies between the thorax and abdomen and aids in respiration

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55
Q

The right lung

a. Is the lung less likely to collapse when a foreign body is inhaled
b. Is closely related to the inferior vena cava and esophagus
c. Has its mediastinal surface in direct contact with the wall of the right atrium
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b

A

b. Is closely related to the inferior vena cava and esophagus

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56
Q

The greater splanchnic nerves

a. Provide sympathetic innervation to abdominal viscera
b. Pierce the crura of the diaphragm
c. Contain both preganglionic and afferent fibers
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above
a. Provide sympathetic innervation to abdominal viscera
b. Pierce the crura of the diaphragm
c. Contain both preganglionic and afferent fibers

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57
Q

The internal thoracic artery

a. Is a branch of the first part of the subclavian artery
b. Is related to the anterior surface of the pleura
c. Divides into two terminal branches behind the sixth intercostal space
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above
a. Is a branch of the first part of the subclavian artery
b. Is related to the anterior surface of the pleura
c. Divides into two terminal branches behind the sixth intercostal space

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58
Q

In a portal system,

a. Blood always passes through the liver
b. The veins always contain valves
c. The arteries connect directly to the veins
d. Blood passes through two capillary beds before returning to the heart
e. Blood passes into the lymphatic channels

A

d. Blood passes through two capillary beds before returning to the heart

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59
Q

The left vein

a. Is longer than the renal vein
b. Receives the left testicular vein and the left suprarenal vein
c. Crosses anterior to the aorta below the origin of the superior mesenteric artery
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b

A

d. All of the above
a. Is longer than the renal vein
b. Receives the left testicular vein and the left suprarenal vein
c. Crosses anterior to the aorta below the origin of the superior mesenteric artery

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60
Q

The ejaculatory duct

a. Enters the urinary bladder
b. Enters the prostatic urethra
c. Enters the membranous urethra
d. Enters the penile urethra
e. Forms a common duct with the bulbourethral gland

A

b. Enters the prostatic urethra

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61
Q

The perineal body is

a. Also known as the central tendon of the perineum
b. At the junction of the anal and urogenital triangles in the midline
c. A fibrous mass to which both the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus attach
d. Also known as anococcygeal raphe
e. Both a and b

A

e. Both a and b
a. Also known as the central tendon of the perineum
b. At the junction of the anal and urogenital triangles in the midline

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62
Q

The broad ligament is a fold of peritoneum,

a. With the ovary suspended from its anterior side
b. With the ovary suspended from its posterior side
c. Enclosing the uterine tube but not any part of the round ligament of the uterus
d. Enclosing the uterine tube, uterine artery, and part of the round ligament of the uterus
e. Both b and d

A

e. Both b and d
b. With the ovary suspended from its posterior side
d. Enclosing the uterine tube, uterine artery, and part of the round ligament of the uterus

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63
Q

Concerning the pelvic viscera, which of the following statements are most applicable?

a. venous and lymphatic drainage from all the pelvic viscera passes into the iliac veins or nodes
b. the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries are intraperitoneal, while the bladder, vagina, and lower one- third of rectum are retroperitoneal
c. the parasympathetic nervous system controls defecation, urination, and ejaculation
d. the perineal body indicates the dividing line between the urogenital system anteriorly and the digestive system posteriorly
1. A and b
2. A and c
3. B and c
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. B and d
    b. the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries are intraperitoneal, while the bladder, vagina, and lower one- third of rectum are retroperitoneal
    d. the perineal body indicates the dividing line between the urogenital system anteriorly and the digestive system posteriorly
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64
Q

The adrenal gland, situated as a ―cap‖ on the cranial surface of the kidneys, consist of two parts, a cortex and a medulla;

a. The cortex is controlled by ACTH from the pituitary gland
b. Both are controlled by the autonomic nervous system
c. The control elements are not known for either part
d. The cortex has an endocrine function, and the medulla has an endocrine function
e. Both are controlled by ACTH

A

a. The cortex is controlled by ACTH from the pituitary gland

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65
Q

Lymph drainage from the scalp, anterior to the right ear, would most likely pass in order via

a. Occipital and parotid nodes to thoracic duct
b. Preauricular and mental nodes to thoracic duct
c. Mental and deep cervical nodes to thoracic duct
d. Preauricular and deep cervical nodes to right lymph duct
e. Occipital and deep cervical nodes to right lymph duct

A

d. Preauricular and deep cervical nodes to right lymph duct

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66
Q

The pituitary gland plays an essential role in the regulation of hormone production of a number of endocrine glands. Endocrine glands that are not influenced by the pituitary gland include the

a. Thyroid gland, testes, and adrenal medulla
b. Adrenal medulla, parathyroids, and the islets of Langerhans
c. Adrenal cortex, parathyroids, and ovaries
d. Pancreas, adrenal medulla, and thyroid gland
e. Ovaries and testes, and the adrenal cortex

A

b. Adrenal medulla, parathyroids, and the islets of Langerhans

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67
Q

Most of the movement of the scalp occurs between the

a. Skin and subcutaneous tissue
b. Galea aponeurotica and periosteum
c. Subcutaneous tissue and the galea aponeurotica
d. A and b about equally
e. A, b, and c about equally

A

b. Galea aponeurotica and periosteum

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68
Q

An individual is suffering from hyperthyroidism, and the decision is made to remove a lobe of the thyroid gland. Which of the following structures could be disrupted in this procedure?

a. vagus nerve
b. parathyroid glands
c. muscles of the larynx
d. recurrent laryngeal nerve
e. thyroid duct
1. A and c
2. B and d
3. A and e
4. C and e
5. B and e

A
  1. B and d
    b. parathyroid glands
    d. recurrent laryngeal nerve
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69
Q

Which of these elements are characteristic of the endocrine system of glands?

a. high degree of vascularization
b. elaborate duct system
c. no ducts
d. epithelial structures
e. independence from controlling factors
1. a, b, and d
2. A, c, and d
3. A, c, and e
4. B, d, and e
5. C, d, and e

A
  1. A, c, and d
    a. high degree of vascularization
    c. no ducts
    d. epithelial structures
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70
Q

Concerning the cerebellum, which of the following statements is (are) correct?

a. It is divided in two by the falx cerebri
b. It is a direct outgrowth of the cerebrum
c. It is concerned mainly with coordination and balance
d. It has incoming afferents and outgoing efferent connections
e. Both c and d

A

e. Both c and d
c. It is concerned mainly with coordination and balance
d. It has incoming afferents and outgoing efferent connections

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71
Q

The cerebellum

a. Lies deep to the occipital bone
b. Has a close relationship to the visual cortex
c. Is a purely motor region
d. Lies deep to the sphenoid bone
e. Both a and b

A

e. Both a and b
a. Lies deep to the occipital bone
b. Has a close relationship to the visual cortex

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72
Q

The medulla

a. Is a continuation of the spinal cord into the skull
b. Enters the skull via the jugular foramen
c. Enters the skull via the foramen magnum
d. Lies on the inner surface of the temporal bone
e. Both a and c

A

e. Both a and c
a. Is a continuation of the spinal cord into the skull
c. Enters the skull via the foramen magnum

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73
Q

The spinal cord

a. Is surrounded only by the pia mater, one of the meningeal layers
b. Ends opposite the second sacral vertebra
c. Ends opposite the tenth thoracic vertebra
d. In a very young child may be found lower than the second lumbar vertebra
e. None of the above

A

d. In a very young child may be found lower than the second lumbar vertebra

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74
Q

The dura mater is

a. Two layered in the cranium
b. Single layered in the vertebral column
c. Composed primarily of smooth muscle
d. Separated from the arachnoid by the pia
e. Both a and b

A

e. Both a and b
a. Two layered in the cranium
b. Single layered in the vertebral column

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75
Q

Ventricles of the brain

a. Are upward extensions of the central canal of the spinal cord
b. Contain cerebrospinal fluid
c. Contain only air
d. Are completely separate from the central canal
e. Both a and b

A

e. Both a and b
a. Are upward extensions of the central canal of the spinal cord
b. Contain cerebrospinal fluid

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76
Q

Damage to the occipital cortex would interfere directly with

a. Audition
b. Vision
c. Motor control of striated muscles
d. Motor control of smooth muscles
e. None of the above

A

b. Vision

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77
Q

Damage to the frontal lobe just anterior to the central sulcus, would affect nerve cells directly concerned with

a. Vision
b. Audition
c. General somatic sensory
d. Somatic motor
e. Visceral motor

A

d. Somatic motor

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78
Q

Damage to a typical spinal nerve, for example, C7, would

a. Denervate striated muscle fibers in the upper limb innervated by that nerve
b. Denervate striated muscle fibers on the anterior chest wall
c. Interfere with vascular supply to this region
d. Cause a loss of sensation in a part of the upper limb and anterior chest
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above
a. Denervate striated muscle fibers in the upper limb innervated by that nerve
b. Denervate striated muscle fibers on the anterior chest wall
c. Interfere with vascular supply to this region
d. Cause a loss of sensation in a part of the upper limb and anterior chest

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79
Q

Of the following groups of cranial nerves, which is purely sensory

a. I, II, and VII
b. I, II, and VI
c. I, VII, and VIII
d. I, II, and VIII
e. I, II, VIII, and XII

A

d. I, II, and VIII

olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear

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80
Q

Of the following groups of nerves, which is purely motor?

a. oculomotor, trigeminal, and trochlear
b. Trochlear, abducent, and accessory
c. Trochlear, accessory, and vagus
d. Facial, abducent, and hypoglossal
e. Trigeminal, accessory, and hypoglossal

A

b. Trochlear, abducent, and accessory

CN IV, VI, XI

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81
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the oculomotor nerve is correct?

a. It exists the skull via the stylomastoid foramen
b. It carries sensory impulses from the retina to the brain
c. It is motor to the lateral rectus
d. If it is damaged, the eyeball would point interiorly and laterally
e. None of the above

A

d. If it is damaged, the eyeball would point interiorly and laterally

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82
Q

If the seventh nerve is damaged on the right side of the face,

a. The muscles of mastication would be denervated
b. The muscles of facial expression would be denervated
c. Taste from the right anterior two-thirds of the tongue would be lost
d. Sympathetic fibers to salivary glands would be interrupted
e. Both b and c

A

e. Both b and c
b. The muscles of facial expression would be denervated
c. Taste from the right anterior two- thirds of the tongue would be lost

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83
Q

If the right accessory nerve is cut,

a. The deltoid is denervated
b. The head cannot be flexed on the spine
c. The right sternocleidomastoid and trapezius would be denervated
d. Extension of the head, causes displacement of the face upwards and to the right caused by contraction of the left sternocleidomastoid
e. Both c and d

A

e. Both c and d
c. The right sternocleidomastoid and trapezius would be denervated d. Extension of the head, causes displacement of the face upwards and to the right caused by contraction of the left sternocleidomastoid

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84
Q

Damage to the gray matter of the ventral horn at the level of T1 would result to

a. Vasomotor disturbances in the medial aspect of the upper limb
b. Sensory disturbances in the upper limb
c. Somatic motor disturbances to muscles of the upper limb
d. Somatic and visceral motor disturbances in the upper limb
e. None of the above

A

c. Somatic motor disturbances to muscles of the upper limb

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85
Q

If the ulnar nerve is not functioning,

a. Damage to the nerve roots C5, C6, and C7 might be the cause
b. Damage to C8 and T1 might be the cause
c. The lateral pectoral nerve might be involved
d. Muscles on the anterior aspect of the arm would be denervated
e. Muscles in the posterior aspect of the arm would be denervated

A

b. Damage to C8 and T1 might be the cause

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86
Q

If the musculocutaneous nerve is damaged,

a. Extension of the forearm would be impossible
b. Flexion of the forearm would be possible, but only against light resistance
c. C8 and T1 nerve roots could be involved
d. Cutaneous sensory supply to the inner or medial side of the forearm would be lost
e. Both b and d

A

b. Flexion of the forearm would be possible, but only against light resistance

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87
Q

If the suprascapular nerve does not function,

a. Adduction of the arm is not possible
b. Abduction of the arm is impossible
c. Unaided abduction of the arm from a normal standing position is impossible
d. C8 and T1 nerve roots could be involved
e. Medial rotation of the humerus would be affected

A

c. Unaided abduction of the arm from a normal standing position is impossible

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88
Q

The auditory (eustachian) tube,

a. Passes medially from the pinna (auricle) to the tympanic membrane (eardrum)
b. Connects the middle ear cavity to the upper part of the pharynx
c. Is necessary to maintain air in the middle ear
d. Is the same thing as the cochlea
e. Both b and c

A

e. Both b and c
a. Connects the middle ear cavity to the upper part of the pharynx
b. Is necessary to maintain air in the middle ear

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89
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are contained within nerve

a. VII
b. III
c. VI
d. V
e. Both a and b

A

e. Both a and b
a. VII (facial)
b. III (oculomotor)

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90
Q

Dorsal root ganglia

a. are collections of motor neurons
b. are collections of motor and sensory neurons serving somatic and visceral structures
c. subserve only visceral afferent supply
d. subserve only somatic afferent supply
e. are located outside the central nervous system
1. A and e
2. B and e
3. C and e
4. D and e
5. e

A
  1. E

e. are located outside the central nervous system

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91
Q

All typical spinal nerves (29 of 31)

a. are composed of efferent and afferent fibers
b. are formed by the union of dorsal and ventral roots
c. are connected to the sympathetic ganglia by white and gray rami communications
d. leave the vertebral column through intervertebral foramina
e. carry somatic and visceral fibers
1. a, b, and c
2. A, b, c, and d
3. A, b, d, and e
4. B, c, d, and e
5. All of the above

A
  1. A, b, d, and e
    a. are composed of efferent and afferent fibers
    b. are formed by the union of dorsal and ventral roots
    d. leave the vertebral column through intervertebral foramina
    e. carry somatic and visceral fibers
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92
Q

The subarachnoid space

a. is located between the arachnoid and dura
b. is located between the arachnoid and pia
c. contains large venous sinuses
d. contains cerebrospinal fluid
e. at the inferior end of the spinal cord contains the cauda equina
1. a, b, and c
2. A, c, and d
3. A, c, and e
4. B, c, and d
5. B, d, and e

A
  1. B, d, and e
    b. is located between the arachnoid and pia
    d. contains cerebrospinal fluid
    e. at the inferior end of the spinal cord contains the cauda equina
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93
Q

Choroid plexuses

a. supply nerve fibers to the facial region
b. supply nerve fibers to the cervical region
c. are located in the choroid, an area of the brain
d. are plexuses of blood vessels that produce cerebrospinal fluid
e. are located in the central canal of the spinal cord
1. A and c
2. A and e
3. B and c
4. C and d
5. d

A
  1. d

d. are plexuses of blood vessels that produce cerebrospinal fluid

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94
Q

Damage to a dorsal root of a spinal nerve would destroy

a. incoming somatic sensory fibers
b. outgoing somatic motor fibers
c. incoming visceral sensory fibers
d. outgoing visceral motor fibers
e. axons of cells located in dorsal root ganglia
1. a, c, and e
2. A, b, and c
3. A, c, and d
4. B, c, and d
5. C, d, and e

A
  1. a, c, and e
    a. incoming somatic sensory fibers
    c. incoming visceral sensory fibers
    e. axons of cells located in dorsal root ganglia
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95
Q

The mitochondria, as cell organelles, (are)

a. involved in cell respiration
b. constant in shape and size in different cells
c. more numerous in metabolically active cells
d. active in producing protein for export from the cell
e. contain internal shelflike cristae
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. a, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. a, c, and e
    a. involved in cell respiration
    c. more numerous in metabolically active cells
    e. contain internal shelflike cristae
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96
Q

The golgi apparatus is vital to cell function because it is responsible for production of

a. RNA for the cell
b. Protein for export from the cell
c. Protein for cell maintenance
d. Packing for protein export from the cell

A

d. Packing for protein export from the cell

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97
Q

Lysosomes are vital organelles in the cells; they

a. are membrane-bound
b. break down digested materials
c. function in conjunction with the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d. produce ATP
e. contain lytic enzymes
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, b, and e
    a. are membrane-bound
    b. break down digested materials
    e. contain lytic enzymes
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98
Q

The source of nuclear RNA is the

a. Enclosed chromatin material
b. Nucleolus
c. Nuclear membrane
d. centriole

A

b. Nucleolus

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99
Q

Bone contains cells and fibers embedded in ground substance. The fibers are

a. actually in the form of short reticular fibers
b. actually in the form of collagen fibrils
c. grouped into large strong bundles
d. masked by the ground substance
e. visible under the light microscope with strong illumination
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. B and d
    b. actually in the form of collagen fibrils
    d. masked by the ground substance
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100
Q

In endochondral ossification the weakened midshaft of the cartilage model is

a. Supported by new bone laid down on the spicules within the marrow cavity
b. Supported by a bony collar laid down around the midshaft by the periosteum
c. Compensated by proliferation of cartilage in the center of the cartilage model
d. Strengthened by the strong periosteum investing the model

A

b. Supported by a bony collar laid down around the midshaft by the periosteum
t cells- thymus
b cells- peripheral blood

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101
Q

A drumstick projection sometimes seen attached to the nuclei of neutrophils is indicated of

a. A pathologic condition
b. Imminent nuclear degeneration
c. The sex of the patient
d. The onset of mitotic division

A

c. The sex of the patient

102
Q

Cardiac muscle is

a. a cross-banded tissue
b. actually a syncytium
c. involuntary
d. voluntary
e. divided into cellular units
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, c, and e
    a. a cross-banded tissue
    c. involuntary
    e. divided into cellular units
103
Q

Medium-sized arteries can regulate blood flow because there

a. Are bundles of longitudinal muscle in the tunica adventitia
b. Is abundant circular muscle in the tunica media
c. Is no internal elastic membrane
d. Is typically a smooth tunica intima facing the lumen

A

b. Is abundant circular muscle in the tunica media

104
Q

Capillaries are thin-walled and very permeable because they lack the

a. Tunica media
b. Tunica media
c. Tunica adventitia
d. All three of the above

A

b. Tunica media

105
Q

Thick skin is differentiated, from thin skin by the thickness of the

a. Epidermis as a whole
b. Stratum corneum of the epidermis
c. Dermis underlying the epidermis
d. Tela subcutanea

A

b. Stratum corneum of the epidermis

106
Q

Fingerprints are actually impressions of the pattern created by the

a. Primary dermal ridges
b. Secondary dermal ridges
c. Spikes of the spinosum layer
d. Epidermal ridges

A

d. Epidermal ridges

107
Q

A characteristic feature of the mature parathyroid gland is the presence of

a. Oxyphil cells
b. Chromaffin cells
c. C cells
d. B cells

A

a.Oxyphil cells

108
Q

The suprarenal (adrenal) gland

a. derives its medulla from mesoderm
b. is responsible for the calcium metabolism of the body
c. derives its medulla from neutral crests
d. derives its cortex from mesoderm
e. is sometimes called ―the master gland‖
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. C and d
    c. derives its medulla from neutral crests
    d. derives its cortex from mesoderm
109
Q

The muscularis externa of the esophagus is made up of

a. Skeletal muscle throughout
b. Smooth muscle throughout
c. Both smooth and skeletal muscle in the middle third
d. Both smooth and skeletal muscle in the lower third

A

c. Both smooth and skeletal muscle in the middle third

110
Q

The wall of the stomach differs from the rest of the gastrointestinal tract because it contains

a. brunner’s glands in the submucosa
b. three different layers in the muscularis externa
c. goblet cells seen for the first time in the esophagogastrointestinal tract
d. caps of mucous in the lining cell
e. a strong muscularis mucosae for churning the digested food
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. B and d
    b. three different layers in the muscularis externa
    d. caps of mucous in the lining cell
111
Q

The number of goblet cells in the intestinal tract varies by

a. Decreasing as the need decreases toward the anal outlet
b. Increasing toward the anal outlet
c. Increasing to the maximum in the villous part of the intestinal tract
d. Decreasing to the minimum in the lower colon

A

b. Increasing toward the anal outlet

112
Q

The afferent arteriole to the glomerulus is larger than the efferent because it

a. Supplies a larger area of tissue
b. Is under higher pressure
c. Carries a greater volume of fluid
d. Carries more of the formed elements of the blood

A

b. Is under higher pressure

113
Q

The visceral epithelial cells of the renal (Bowman’s) capsule are vital to the function of the kidney because they

a. Provide mesangial cells that regulate capillary size in the glomerular tuft
b. Have processes that create the ultimate filter of the capsule
c. Are pyramidal cells with an efficient brush border for absorption
d. Are responsible for the resorption of most of the water, salts, and amino acids from the provisional urine

A

b. Have processes that create the ultimate filter of the capsule

114
Q

The masticatory mucosa is most often covered with

a. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
b. Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
c. Parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
d. Keratinized simple stratified squamous epithelium

A

c. Parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

115
Q

Taste buds are found on the

a. Fungiform lingual papillae
b. Filiform lingual papillae
c. (circum) vallate lingual papillae
d. (circum) vallate papillae and the adjacent trench wall

A

d. (circum) vallate papillae and the adjacent trench wall

116
Q

The glands emptying into the (circum) vallate trench are

a. mucous glands
b. serous glands
c. mucous and serous mixed glands
d. called glands of von Ebner
e. called glands of Nuhn
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. B and d
    b. serous glands
    d. called glands of von Ebner
117
Q

The gingival sulcus (crevice) extends around the tooth bounded by the

a. Surface of the tooth and the epithelium over the attached gingiva
b. Free gingiva groove and the junction of mucosa and gingiva
c. Epithelial covering of free gingiva and attached gingiva
d. Epithelial covering over the free gingiva and the tooth surface

A

d. Epithelial covering over the free gingiva and the tooth surface

118
Q

Enamel well suited to withstand severe masticatory forces is

a. root enamel
b. crown enamel
c. cervical enamel
d. gnarled enamel
e. enamel lamellae
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. B and d
    b. crown enamel
    d. gnarled enamel
119
Q

The following are examples of poorly calcified enamel:

a. perikymata
b. gnarled enamel
c. enamel lamellae
d. incremental lines (of Retzius)
e. enamel prisms
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. C and d
    c. enamel lamellae
    d. incremental lines (of Retzius)
120
Q

Odontoblastic processes sometimes extend into the enamel as

a. Tufts
b. Spindles
c. Lamellae
d. perikymata

A

b. Spindles

121
Q

When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification of the dentin matrix

a. Irregular dentin results
b. Transparent dentin is formed
c. Interglobular dentin is formed
d. Dead tracts are found in the dentin formed

A

c. Interglobular dentin is formed

122
Q

Acellular cementum

a. overlaps the cervical enamel 60% of the time
b. forms more rapidly than cellular cementum
c. forms more slowly than cellular cementum
d. is found primarily over the apical tissue of the tooth
e. eventually covers the occlusal two-thirds of the root
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, c, and e
    a. overlaps the cervical enamel 60% of the time
    c. forms more slowly than cellular cementum
    e. eventually covers the occlusal two- thirds of the root
123
Q

Dental pulp functions

a. to protect the tooth via its phagocytic cells
b. to provide sensibility to heat, cold, and pressure
c. as a potential source of osteoblasts
d. as a source of cementoblasts
e. as a source of odontoblasts
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, b, and e
    a. to protect the tooth via its phagocytic cells
    b. to provide sensibility to heat, cold, and pressure
    e. as a source of odontoblasts
124
Q

The obliquely oriented fibers of the periodontal ligament are important in the function of the tooth because they

a. are the largest group of periodontal fibers
b. prevent the tooth being forced into the socket under pressure
c. prevent rotation of the tooth
d. cross the ligament from alveolar bone occlusally to cementum to prevent displacement
e. cross the ligament from cementum occlusally to alveolar bone to prevent displacement
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, b, and e
    a. are the largest group of periodontal fibers
    b. prevent the tooth being forced into the socket under pressure
    e. cross the ligament from cementum occlusally to alveolar bone to prevent displacement
125
Q

The apical group of periodontal fibers radiates out from the

a. Cervical portion of the tooth
b. Pivotal point of the roots at their midregion
c. Crest of the alveolar bone
d. Ends of the roots

A

d. Ends of the roots

126
Q

Bundle bone is the type of bone that

a. lines the socket in teeth that have been subjected to stress
b. has been formed by endochondral ossification
c. anchors the Sharpey’s fibers of the periodontal ligament
d. is the first formed around the developing tooth
e. contains fewer matrix collagen fibrils than typical bone
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, c, and e
    a. lines the socket in teeth that have been subjected to stress
    c. anchors the Sharpey’s fibers of the periodontal ligament
    e. contains fewer matrix collagen fibrils than typical bone
127
Q

The alveolar bone

a. Is distinctly demarcated from the bone of the jaw per se
b. Consists of a compact layer and a cancellous layer
c. Is typically known as the periodontal plate
d. Increases in size to compensate for loss of permanent teeth

A

b. Consists of a compact layer and a cancellous layer

128
Q

New bone is induced to form on the existing alveolar bone by

a. Pressure from periodontal ligament of the side involved
b. Cessation of pressure from the root cementum
c. Pressure on the bundle bone lining the alveolar bone
d. Tension of the periodontal fibers attached to the bone

A

d. Tension of the periodontal fibers attached to the bone

129
Q

The bone of the mandible

a. is formed by the endochondral ossification of Meckel’s cartilage
b. is formed by the endochondral ossification of Reichert’s cartilage
c. is formed primarily by intramembranous ossification
d. is influenced in its growth by the pull of attached muscles
e. retains Meckel’s cartilage within the mandibular canal
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. C and d
    c. is formed primarily by intramembranous ossification
    d. is influenced in its growth by the pull of attached muscles
130
Q

The definitive human palate is derived from the

a. deep portion of the intermaxillary segment
b. median nasal septum
c. lateral palatine processes
d. mandibular processes
e. merging of the lateral halves of the uvula
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, c, and e
    a. deep portion of the intermaxillary segment
    c. lateral palatine processes
    e. merging of the lateral halves of the uvula
131
Q

The ala of the nose is derived from the

a. Frontonasal elevation
b. Mandibular process
c. Medial nasal elevation
d. Lateral nasal elevation

A

d. Lateral nasal elevation

132
Q

Unilateral cleft lip results from failure to merge of the

a. Maxillary process and the medial nasal elevation
b. Two medial nasal elevation
c. Medial and lateral nasal elevations
d. Intermaxillary segment and the lateral nasal elevation

A

a.Maxillary process and the medial nasal elevation

133
Q

The nasal cavity is formed by

a. enlargement of the chonae
b. expansion of the maxillary sinus
c. enlargement of the olfactory pits
d. formation of the palate
e. merging of the originally bifid uvula
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. C and d
    c. enlargement of the olfactory pits
    d. formation of the palate
134
Q

The skeletal muscle of the tongue is derived from the mesoderm of the

a. First branchial arch
b. Second branchial arch
c. Occipital myotomes
d. Preotic myotomes

A

c. Occipital myotomes

135
Q

The middle ear cavity is derived from the expanded

a. First pharyngeal pouch termination
b. Second pharyngeal pouch termination
c. Cervical sinus from the second branchial groove
d. Depth of the first branchial groove

A

a. First pharyngeal pouch termination

136
Q

Calcified tissues of the tooth are derived from

a. Ectoderm only
b. Mesoderm only
c. Entoderm and ectoderm
d. Mesoderm and ectoderm

A

d. Mesoderm and ectoderm

137
Q

The odontoblasts are cells

a. derived from mesenchyma cells
b. derived from invaginated oral epithelial cells
c. that persist throughout the life of the tooth
d. that induce ameloblasts to form enamel matrix
e. that pay out a process that persists within a tubule
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, c, and e
    a. derived from mesenchyma cells
    c. that persist throughout the life of the tooth
    e. that pay out a process that persists within a tubule
138
Q

Enamel matrix is laid down by ameloblasts and

a. finally becomes about 80% inorganic matter
b. finally becomes about 96% inorganic matter
c. includes organic matter that is primarily collagen
d. includes inorganic matter that is primarily hydroxyapatite
e. persists as a vital tissue throughout the life of the tooth
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. B and d
    b. finally becomes about 96% inorganic matter
    d. includes inorganic matter that is primarily hydroxyapatite
139
Q

Each tooth bud consists of

a. an epithelial enamel organ
b. a dental follicle
c. A periodontal ligament
d. a dental lamina
e. a dental papilla
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, b, and e
    a. an epithelial enamel organ
    b. a dental follicle
    e. a dental papilla
140
Q

The dental follicle plays an important role in the formation of

a. the bone of the alveolar socket
b. cementum over the root of the tooth
c. enamel over the crown of the tooth
d. root dentin in the developing tooth
e. the fibrous periodontal ligament
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. A, b, and e
    a. the bone of the alveolar socket
    b. cementum over the root of the tooth
    e. the fibrous periodontal ligament
141
Q

The site of the original dental lamina is sometimes marked by the presence of

a. Free denticles along its path
b. Whorls of epithelial cells called epithelial pearls
c. Groups of cells called epithelial rests of Malassez
d. Enamel pearls beside the cervical region of the mature tooth

A

b. Whorls of epithelial cells called epithelial pearls

142
Q

Active eruption of the tooth

a. begins as soon as the roots have begun to develop
b. begins as the occlusal tip starts moving toward the occlusal plane
c. begins when the apical cementum is deposited on the roots of the tooth
d. continues until occlusal contact has been made
e. continues until exposure of the cementum has occurred
1. A
2. A, b, and e
3. A, c, and e
4. B and d
5. C and d

A
  1. B and d
    b. begins as the occlusal tip starts moving toward the occlusal plane
    d. continues until occlusal contact has been made
143
Q

Eruption time for central incisors is

a. 5-8 months
b. 7-10 months
c. 12-16 months
d. 20-32 months

A

a.5-8 months

144
Q

The root growth theory of eruption proposes that eruption is due to the push of the

a. Proliferating periodontal ligament
b. Elongation roots against the hammock ligament
c. Elongating roots against the base of the alveolar crypt
d. Expanding pulp in the root canals against the alveolar crypt

A

c. Elongating roots against the base of the alveolar crypt

145
Q

a. A neutral solution
b. An isotonic solution
c. A molar solution
d. A buffer solution

A

d. A buffer solution

pH 7 above-basic and pH 7 below-acidic

146
Q

Compounds that have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas are called

a. Isomers
b. Isotopes
c. Homologs
d. cofactors

A

a.Isomers

147
Q

When the pH of a solution is changed from pH 7 to pH 5, the hydrogen ion concentration varies by a factor of

a. 1
b. 10
c. 100
d. 1000

A

c. 100

148
Q

The concentration of physiologic saline is 0.85% or

a. 85 g/liter
b. 85 mg/liter
c. 850 g/100 ml
d. 850 mg/100 ml

A

d. 850 mg/100 ml

149
Q

Products resulting from the hydrolysis of sucrose are

a. Glucose and mannose
b. Glucose and fructose
c. Fructose and galactose
d. Glucose only

A

b. Glucose and fructose

150
Q

A carbohydrate polymer which is produced by oral microorganisms and consists of fructose is

a. Dextran
b. Amylose
c. Amylopectin
d. levan

A

d. levan

151
Q

Phosphofructokinase is regulated in its activity by an elevated concentration o

a. ATP
b. Phosphoenolpyruvate
c. Citrate
d. Glucose-6-phosphate
e. Both a and c

A

e. Both a and c
a. ATP
c. Citrate

152
Q

NADH may be oxidized to NAD+ under anaerobic conditions during glycolysis by

a. Conversion of lactic acid to pyruvic acid
b. Conversion of malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
c. The glycerol phosphate/dihydroxyacetone phosphate shuttle
d. Conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid

A

d. Conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid

153
Q

One of the major functions of the hexose monophosphate shunt is to provide

a. CO2 for fatty acid synthesis
b. Glucuronic for mucopolysaccharide synthesis
c. NADPH for fatty acid synthesis
d. An alternate pathway for energy production

A

c. NADPH for fatty acid synthesis

154
Q

Which of the following enzymes enables gluconeogenesis to occur, since the phosphofructokinase reaction is irreversible?

a. Phosphohexose isomerase
b. Aldolase
c. Fructose diphosphatase
d. Pyruvate kinase

A

c. Fructose diphosphatase

155
Q

Muscle glycogen cannot be converted directly to blood glucose because

a. Hexokinase is not present in muscle
b. Muscle cells are impermeable to glucose
c. Glucose phosphatase is not present in muscle
d. Phosphorylase is not present in muscle

A

c. Glucose phosphatase is not present in muscle

156
Q

The carrier which transfers glucose-1-phosphate to glycogen is a derivative of the high-energy compound

a. ATP
b. CTP
c. GTP
d. UTP

A

d. UTP

Glucagon is a HUNGER hormone and its target organ is the LIVER

157
Q

During hormonal control of glycogenolysis, both epinephrine and glucagon exert their effect through cyclic AMP. These hormones differ in that

a. Glucagon has a greater effect on the muscle than on the liver
b. Epinephrine has less of an effect on the liver than on muscle
c. Both hormones have the same effect on muscle and liver
d. Glucagon has no effect on liver but does affect muscle

A

b. Epinephrine has less of an effect on the liver than on muscle

158
Q

Which of the reactions in the tricarboxyclic acid cycle is similar to conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl COA?

a. Conversion of succinate to the next product
b. Conversion of ketoglutarate to the next product
c. Utilization of oxaloacetate
d. Utilization of oxalosuccinate

A

b. Conversion of ketoglutarate to the next product

159
Q

The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex converts pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA prior to entry of the latter into the tricarboxyclic acid cycle. The reaction occurs in the

a. Cytoplasm and requires choline
b. Mitochondria and requires folic acid
c. Mitochondria and requires GTP
d. Mitochondria and requires thiamine pyrophosphate

A

d. Mitochondria and requires thiamine pyrophosphate

160
Q

Continued operation of the tricarboxyclic acid cycle requires the repeated regeneration of

a. Oxaloacetate
b. Glutamic acid
c. Lactic acid
d. Acetic acid

A

a.Oxaloacetate

161
Q

Phospholipids are important components of cell membranes because the

a. Fatty acids of phospholipids are saturated
b. Phospholipids are nonpolar molecules
c. Phospholipids are polar molecules
d. Phospholipids exist in more than one configuration

A

c. Phospholipids are polar molecules

162
Q

In addition to lecithin, choline is a component of

a. Cholesterol
b. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
c. Spingomyelin
d. diacylglycerol

A

c. Spingomyelin

163
Q

Which of the following is produced when phospholipase A reacts with lecithin?

a. Lysolecithin and free fatty acid
b. Phosphatidic acid and choline
c. Glycerol phosphorylcholine and two fatty acids
d. Diglyceride and phosphorylcholine

A

a.Lysolecithin and free fatty acid

164
Q

Because of low glycerol kinase activity, which of the following is dependent upon carbohydrate metabolism as a glycerol source during lipid synthesis?

a. Skin
b. Adipose tissue
c. Liver
d. Heart

A

b. Adipose tissue

165
Q

Which of the following does not synthesize cholesterol from acetate?

a. Liver
b. Adrenal gland
c. Heart
d. All cells synthesize cholesterol

A

d. All cells synthesize cholesterol

166
Q

Cholesterol, or one of its derivatives, serves as precursor for

a. Vitamin D
b. Steroid hormones
c. Bile acids
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above
a. Vitamin
b. Steroid hormones
c. Bile acids

167
Q

Increased sulfur excretion in the urine expected when the organism is on high dietary intake o

a. Glycine
b. Methionine
c. Arginine
d. tryptophan

A

b. Methionine

168
Q

One of the following is an essential amino acid

a. Lysine
b. Citrulline
c. Glutamic acid
d. Hydroxyproline

A

a. Lysine

169
Q

Certain amino acids are termed essential to the organism in that

a. They are not transaminated to the respective α-keto acid
b. Proteins which contain these amino acids are not digested in the gastrointestinal tract
c. They are synthesized only in the kidney
d. They are not synthesized at a rate adequate to meet metabolic requirements

A

d. They are not synthesized at a rate adequate to meet metabolic requirements

170
Q

One of the following elements is not present in all proteins

a. Carbon
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen
d. Hydrogen
e. Phosphorus

A

e. Phosphorus

171
Q

a. Glycine
b. Hydroxyproline
c. Glutamic acid
d. Choline

A

d. Choline

172
Q

During electrophoresis, when the pH of the buffer is above the protein isoelectric point,

a. The protein does not migrate
b. The protein forms a zwitterion
c. The protein migrates to the positive pole
d. The protein migrates to the negative pole

A

c. The protein migrates to the positive pole

173
Q

Melanin is a pigment derived from which of the following amino acids?

a. Tryptophan
b. Phenylalanine
c. Histidine
d. Arginine

A

b. Phenylalanine

174
Q

Which of the following enzymes directly catalyzes formation of urea?

a. Glutaminase
b. Aspartate transcarbamoylase
c. Arginase
d. Urease

A

c. Arginase

175
Q

Phenylketonuria is due to the absence of an enzyme which

a. Hydroxylates phenylalanine
b. Converts tyrosine to dopamine
c. Deaminates tyrosine
d. Oxidizes homogentisic acid

A

a.Hydroxylates phenylalanine

176
Q

While urea is produced mainly in the liver, ammonia is produces throughout the entire body. To prevent toxic build-up of ammonia

a. The cell utilizes ammonia in transamination reactions
b. Ammonia is excreted through the skin
c. Ammoniase converts ammonia to amino groups
d. Glutamine synthetase converts glutamic acid to glutamine

A

d. Glutamine synthetase converts glutamic acid to glutamine

177
Q

Which of the following statements about collagen is incorrect?

a. It has a trihelical structure
b. It is destroyed in tissues by collagenase
c. It contains both hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine
d. Hydroxyproline is incorporated into collagen by messenger RNA

A

d. Hydroxyproline is incorporated into collagen by messenger RNA

178
Q

Histones are proteins which are rich in

a. proline, hydroxyproline, and glycine
b. Tyrosine, and phenylalanine
c. Aspartic acid, and glutamic acid
d. Arginine, lysine, and histidine

A

d. Arginine, lysine, and histidine

179
Q

TCGTACT is the base sequence of a product resulting from partial hydrolysis of

a. DNA
b. Messenger RNA
c. Ribosomal RNA
d. Transfer RNA

A

a. DNA

180
Q

Messenger RNA, with regard to its base sequence, is a complementary copy of

a. Ribosomal RNA
b. Mitochondrial DNA
c. A single strand of DNA
d. Both strands of DNA

A

c. A single strand of DNA

181
Q

An important peptide hormone which is released to the blood when serum calcium levels fall below normal is

a. Growth hormone
b. Thyroxin
c. Calcitonin
d. Parathyroid hormone
e. secretin

A

d. Parathyroid hormone

182
Q

The active form of vitamin D with regard to stimulation of calcium absorption from the gut is

a. Cholecalciferol
b. 1-hydroxycholecalciferol
c. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
d. 1,25-dihyroxycalciferol

A

d. 1,25-dihyroxycalciferol

183
Q

The organic component of bone and dentin which is present in highest concentrations is

a. Fibrin
b. Elastin
c. Collagen
d. Glycosaminoglycans
e. Phosphatidyl serine

A

c. Collagen

184
Q

Minor decrements in serum calcium levels are best compensated for by

a. Alterations of Vitamin D metabolism
b. Increased calcium absorption from the gut
c. Increased calcitonin synthesis
d. Increased osteocytic osteolysis

A

d. Increased osteocytic osteolysis

185
Q

Hypoglycemia results from removal of which of the following glands?

a. Adrenal cortex
b. Thyroid
c. Pituitary
d. Parathyroids
e. thymus

A

d. Parathyroids

186
Q

Approximately what percentage of body fluoride is found in hard tissues?

a. 2%
b. 20%
c. 60%
d. 95%

A

d. 95%

187
Q

Gastric juice has a pH of

a. pH 7
b. pH 2
c. pH 10
d. pH 6

A

b. pH 2

188
Q

An enzyme which hydrolyzes proteins during digestion is

a. Amylase
b. Trypsin
c. Secretin
d. gastrin

A

b. Trypsin

189
Q

One of the following is responsible for activating the zymogen trypsinogen to trypsin

a. Secretin
b. Enterokinase
c. Pepsin
d. Gastrin

A

b. Enterokinase

190
Q

One of the following reactions is catalyzed by pancreatic amylase

a. Glycogen to glucose
b. Amylose to glucose
c. Starch to maltose
d. Lactose to glucose and galactose

A

c. Starch to maltose

191
Q

Gallbladder contraction is stimulated by the hormone

a. Secretin
b. Gastrin
c. Cholecystokinin
d. amylopsin

A

c. Cholecystokinin

192
Q

Gastric juice of human adults contains which of the following proteolytic enzymes?

a. Rennin
b. Trypsin
c. Chymotrypsin
d. Pepsin

A

d. Pepsin

193
Q

Which of the following compounds promotes digestion of lipids in the small intestine by emulsification?

a. Pancreatic lipase
b. Chylomicrons
c. Bile pigments
d. Bile salts and acids

A

d. Bile salts and acids

194
Q

A deficient alkaline tide might be expected during a severe zinc deficiency because

a. Zinc is required by carbonic anhydrase
b. Zinc is necessary as an allosteric activator of bicarbonate transport
c. Zinc is required for HCl production in the stomach
d. Zinc is required for H+ reabsorption in the kidney

A

d. Zinc is required for H+ reabsorption in the kidney

195
Q

The initial hydroxylation of vitamin D3 occurs in

a. Liver microsomes
b. Kidney mitochondria
c. Liver mitochondria
d. Kidney microsomes
e. Parathyroid hormone

A

a.Liver microsomes

196
Q

Improper rhodopsin synthesis is most likely related to a dietary deficiency is

a. Tryptophan
b. Riboflavin
c. Vitamin A
d. adenine

A

c. Vitamin A

197
Q

A protein-bound vitamin which transports carboxyl groups during fatty acid synthesis is

a. Ascorbic acid
b. Niacin
c. Vitamin E
d. biotin

A

a.biotin

198
Q

Vitamin K is essential to the hepatic synthesis of a blood component which regulates the conversion of

a. Fibrinogen to fibrin
b. Prothrombin to thrombin
c. Water plus CO2 to carbonic acid
d. Proinsulin to insulin

A

a. Fibrinogen to fibrin

199
Q

Vitamin D is metabolized in the body to a biologically active form which

a. Promotes synthesis of calcium-dependent ATPase in the kidney
b. Results in the appearance of calcium-binding protein in the intestine
c. Lowers serum calcium concentrations
d. Inhibits bone resorption

A

b. Results in the appearance of calcium-binding protein in the intestine

200
Q

Enzymes which require a riboflavin containing coenzyme for their activity are involved in

a. Transmethylation
b. Transamination
c. Decarboxylation
d. Transfer to electrons

A

d. Transfer to electrons

201
Q

Poor healing due to improper collagen formation is related generally to a deficiency of vitamin

a. A
b. K
c. C
d. D

A

c

202
Q

A vitamin whose derivative functions as a coenzyme for transfer of single carbon units is

a. Vitamin K
b. Folic acid
c. Pantothenic acid
d. Vitamin B12

A

b. Folic acid

203
Q

The blood volume is approximately what percentage of the total body weight?

a. 40%
b. 20%
c. 8%
d. 4%
e. None of the above

A

c. 8%

204
Q

The extracellular fluid volume is approximately what percentage of the total body weight?

a. 60%
b. 40%
c. 20%
d. 8%

A

c. 20%

205
Q

Select the ion which is present in highest concentration in the intracellular fluid

a. Na+
b. HCO-3
c. Cl-
d. K+
e. Ca++

A

d. K+

206
Q

Select the anion which is present in highest concentration in the extracellular fluid

a. HCO-3
b. Cl-
c. PO3-4
d. SO2-4

A

b. Cl-

207
Q

Which electrolyte is required for the molecular interaction of myosin and actin in contracted muscle?

a. Ca2+
b. K+
c. PO3-4
d. Cl-
e. Na+

A

a. Ca2+

208
Q

Total body water can be estimated by measuring the dilution of

a. Evans blue
b. Albumin
c. Sucrose
d. Antipyrine
e. None of the above

A

d. Antipyrine

209
Q

The osmolarity of plasma is about twice as high as saliva; therefore, if an erythrocyte is suspended in saliva,

a. Na+ would move rapidly into the cell
b. H2O would move rapidly into the cell
c. Na+ and H2O would rapidly diffuse out of the cell
d. H2O only would move out of the cell
e. The cell would remain normal in volume and shape in the salivary fluid

A

b. H2O would move rapidly into the cell

210
Q

Which of the following solute particles are considered noneffective osmotic particles when in a solution bathing the tissue cells?

a. NaCl
b. Glucose
c. urea
d. xylocaine HCl
e. albumin
1. A and b
2. A and c
3. B and c
4. C and d
5. C and e

A
  1. C and d
    c. urea
    d. xylocaine HCl
211
Q

All of the following statements concerning the theory of active transport are correct except one

a. Glucose is actively transported into muscle and adipose tissue
b. Na+ efflux is coupled to K+ influx through the cell membrane of nerves and muscle
c. Certain inhibitors or drugs can block this system
d. Active transport of inorganic ions utilizes ATP
e. Substances are transported from low to high concentrations through membranes

A

a. Glucose is actively transported into muscle and adipose tissue

212
Q

In a myelinated axon the depolarization wave moves from one node of Ranvier to the next. This form of conduction is called

a. Antidromic conduction
b. Orthodromic conduction
c. Saltatory conduction
d. Hyperpolarized conduction

A

c. Saltatory conduction

213
Q

The absolute refractory period refers to that time when a muscle or nerve

a. Responds maximally to a supramaximal stimulus
b. Exhibits a minimal response to a threshold stimulus
c. Responds to any stimulus regardless of its strength or frequency
d. Does not respond to any stimulus regardless of its strength or frequency

A

Does not respond to any stimulus regardless of its strength or frequency

214
Q

The α motor neurons of the muscles which elevate the mandible are located primarily in the

a. Anterior horn of the cervical spinal cord
b. Basal ganglia
c. Precentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex
d. Trigeminal motor nucleus
e. Postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex

A

d. Trigeminal motor nucleus

215
Q

Select the postural reflex which is a monosynaptic reflex

a. Crossed extensor reflex
b. Vomiting reflex
c. Stretch reflex
d. Grasp reflex
e. Labyrinthine righting reflex

A

c. Stretch reflex

216
Q

Sectioning the afferent nerves of the temporalis muscle or any skeletal muscle would

a. Result in hypertrophy of that muscle
b. Cause that muscle to become spastic and hyperactive
c. Abolish the stretch reflex
d. None of the above

A

c. Abolish the stretch reflex

217
Q

Voluntary contraction of a skeletal muscle will produce which sensory responses?

a. increase firing of the muscle spindle receptor
b. decrease firing of the muscle spindle receptor
c. increase firing of the tendon organ receptor
d. decrease firing of the tendon organ receptor
1. A and c
2. A and d
3. B and c
4. B and d

A
  1. B and c
    b. decrease firing of the muscle spindle receptor
    c. increase firing of the tendon organ receptor
218
Q

The more load placed on muscle the greater will be the force of contraction up to a maximum tension (Starling’s Law). This is a property of which types of muscle?

a. skeletal
b. cardiac
c. smooth
1. A and b
2. A and c
3. B and c
4. All of the above

A
  1. A and b
    a. skeletal
    b. cardiac
    (star-kc)
219
Q

An unstable membrane potential that will spontaneously depolarized is a property of which types of muscle?

a. skeletal
b. cardiac
c. smooth
1. A and b
2. A and c
3. B and c
4. All of the above

A
  1. B and c
    b. cardiac
    c. smooth
220
Q

Summation of muscle twitches is a property of which types of muscle?

a. skeletal
b. cardiac
c. smooth
1. A and b
2. A and c
3. B and c
4. All of the above

A
  1. A and c
    a. skeletal
    c. smooth
    (twitch-km)
221
Q

Conscious perception of pain in the tongue is dependent upon which two areas in the central nervous system?

a. limbic system
b. parietal lobes of cerebral cortex
c. postcentral gyrus of cerebral cortex
d. frontal lobes of cerebral cortex
e. cerebellum
1. D and e
2. A and e
3. B and c
4. A and d
5. B and e

A
  1. B and c
    b. parietal lobes of cerebral cortex
    c. postcentral gyrus of cerebral cortex
222
Q

Which of the following anatomic parts is most sensitive to touch discrimination?

a. Head
b. Mammary glands
c. Wrist
d. Elbow
e. lips

A

e. lips

223
Q

Which of the following experimental procedures in animals results in rigidity of the extensor and flexor skeletal muscles?

a. Transection of the spinal cord
b. Removal of the cerebral cortex
c. Transection of brain stem at the superior border of the pons
d. Removal of cerebellum

A

c. Transection of brain stem at the superior border of the pons

224
Q

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at all of the following except the

a. Motor end plate of the masseter muscle
b. Sympathetic preganglionic fibers to the cardiac muscle
c. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to the submaxillary glands
d. Sympathetic postganglionic fibers to the cardiac muscle
e. Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers to the submaxillary glands

A

d. Sympathetic postganglionic fibers to the cardiac muscle

225
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters has been useful in the treatment of a disease of the basal ganglia (Parkinson’s disease)?

a. Norepinephrine
b. Serotonin
c. Histamine
d. Acetylcholine
e. L-dopa

A

e. L-dopa

226
Q

Which of the following responses is not an action of the circulating catecholamines?

a. Dilatation of the pupil of the eye
b. Dilatation of bronchial muscles
c. Increased heart rate
d. Constriction of blood vessels in skin and mucosa
e. Liver glycogenesis

A

e. Liver glycogenesis

227
Q

The major neural center for the control of the autonomic nervous system is located in the

a. Cerebral cortex
b. Pons
c. Thalamus
d. Limbic system
e. hypothalamus

A

e. hypothalamus

228
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system acts on the salivary glands to

a. decrease blood flow
b. increase blood flow
c. decrease salivary flow
d. increase salivary flow
1. A and c
2. B and c
3. A and d
4. B and d

A
  1. B and d
    b. increase blood flow
    d. increase salivary flow
229
Q

Which one of the following parameters is not medicated by the vagus nerve?

a. Blood pressure
b. Heart rate
c. Salivary flow
d. Gastric acidity
e. Intestinal motility

A

c. Salivary flow

230
Q

Which of the following dissolved proteins is present in the highest amount in normal blood plasma?

a. Albumin
b. γ-globulins
c. Hemoglobin
d. Fibrinogen
e. α-globulins

A

a.Albumin

231
Q

Select the correct physiologic functions for the plasma proteins from the following statements. The plasma proteins

a. exert osmotic pressure
b. bind the steroid and thyroid hormones
c. transports O2
d. serve as blood buffers
1. a, b, and c
2. A, b, and d
3. B, c, and d
4. a, c, and d

A
  1. A, b, and d
    a. exert osmotic pressure
    b. bind the steroid and thyroid hormones
    c. transports O2
    d. serve as blood buffers
232
Q

Which of the following is not found in normal circulating blood?

a. Platelets
b. Prothrombin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Thrombin
e. Antihemophilic factor VIII

A

d. Thrombin

233
Q

Serotonin and adenosine diphosphate are released from which of the following substances during the process of hemostasis?

a. Prothrombin
b. Fibrinogen
c. Factor VIII
d. Thrombin
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above (coagulation)

234
Q

Which chemical agent will delay the clotting of blood?

a. Aspirin
b. Heparin
c. Sodium oxalate
d. Dicumarol
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above
a. Aspirin
b. Heparin
c. Sodium oxalate (Ca chelating agent)
d. Dicumarol

235
Q

Which of the following two factors act together to form the prothrombin activator which in the presence of Ca2+ converts prothrombin to thrombin?

a. Activated X and V
b. Activated XII and VIII
c. Activated X and VIII
d. Activated IX and X

A

a.Activated X and V
Factor I-Fibrinogen
II-Prothrombin
III-Thromboplastin
IV-Ionized calcium/Tissue extract
V-Proaccelerin, Owen’s Factor, Labile Factor
VI-No longer used
VII-Proconvertin, Prothrombin Accelerator or stable factor
VIII-Antihemophilic Globulin Factor (AHG)
IX-Plasma Thromboplastin Component/Christmas Factor (PTC)
X-Stuart/Power factor
XI-Plasma-Thromplastin-Antecedent (PTA)
XII-Hageman Factor, Contact factor, Glass factor

236
Q

Which of the following clotting factors is deficient in the child with classical hemophilia?

a. Factor V
b. Factor VII
c. Factor II (Prothrombin)
d. Factor X
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above (factor VIII)

237
Q

The formation and maturation of red blood cells requires all of the except

a. Iron
b. Vitamin B12
c. Erythropoietin
d. Folic acid
e. serotonin

A

e. serotonin

238
Q

Which of the following formed elements in blood has the longest life span?

a. Red blood cells
b. Platelets
c. Lymphocytes
d. neutrophils

A

a.Red blood cells

239
Q

When a sample of blood is mixed with anti-A agglutinins (antisera) and anti-B agglutinins, the cells agglutinate with anti-B antisera but not anti-A; therefore this patient’s blood type is

a. AB
b. O
c. B
d. A

A

c. B

240
Q

Which one of the blood types listed below contains A and B agglutinogens on the red blood cell, but the serum does not contain anti-A or B agglutinins?

a. AB
b. B
c. A
d. O

A

a.AB

241
Q

Which one of the following tests would be significantly affected by severe dehydration?

a. Total plasma protein
b. Platelet count
c. Hematocrit
d. Hemoglobin
e. None of the above

A

c. Hematocrit

242
Q

Given: arterial hydrostatic pressure = 38 mm Hg; venous hydrostatic pressure = 15 mm; plasma oncotic pressure = 25 mm Hg; tissue hydrostatic pressure = 4 mm Hg; and tissue oncotic pressure = 3 mm Hg. Select the net pressure returning H2O and solutes back into the venous end of the capillary.

a. 12 mm Hg
b. 11 mm Hg
c. 10 mm Hg
d. 0 mm Hg

A

b. 11 mm Hg
Net pressure in = (PCP+THP)-(VHP+TOP)
Net pressure in = (25+4)-(15+3)
29-18=11 mm Hg

243
Q

Using the date given in question above, select the net pressure filtering H2O and solutes out of the capillary at the arterial end.

a. 12 mm Hg
b. 11 mm Hg
c. 10 mm Hg
d. 0 mm Hg

A

a.12 mm Hg
Net pressure out =(AHP+TOP)-(POP+THP)
Net pressure out = (38+3)-(25+4)
41-29= 12 mm Hg

244
Q

Assume a person stands for 3 hours. In an ankle capillary bed, which one of the following pressures would have the greatest increase due to the action of gravity?

a. Arterial hydrostatic pressure
b. Venous hydrostatic pressure
c. Plasma oncotic pressure
d. Tissue oncotic pressure

A

b. Venous hydrostatic pressure

245
Q

Assume a capillary bed is damaged by excessive heat, and excessive albumin is lost into the interstitial space. Which of the following pressures increases first?

a. Arterial hydrostatic pressure
b. Venous hydrostatic pressure
c. Plasma oncotic pressure
d. Tissue hydrostatic pressure
e. Tissue oncotic pressure

A

e. Tissue oncotic pressure

246
Q

An increase in filtration of H2O and solutes out of the capillary occurs when there is a

a. decrease in arterial hydrostatic pressure
b. increase in arterial hydrostatic pressure
c. vasoconstriction (increase in arterial resistance)
d. vasodilation (decrease in arterial resistance)
1. A and c
2. A and d
3. B and c
4. B and d

A
  1. B and d
    b. increase in arterial hydrostatic pressure
    d. vasodilation (decrease in arterial resistance
247
Q

Which of the following factors results in tissue edema?

a. Decreased capillary permeability
b. Lymphatic obstruction
c. Increased plasma oncotic pressure
d. Decreased arterial hydrostatic pressure

A

e. Decreased arterial hydrostatic pressure

248
Q

The total cross-sectional area of the circulatory system is greatest in the

a. Aorta
b. Vena cava
c. Arterioles
d. Venules
e. capillaries

A

e. capillaries

249
Q

The hydrostatic pressure is the least in this area but the velocity of blood flow is high in the

a. Aorta
b. Capillaries
c. Venules
d. Vena cava
e. arterioles

A

d.Vena cava

250
Q

Velocity of the blood in the circulatory system is least in the

a. Capillaries
b. Large arteries
c. Large veins
d. Venules
e. Large veins

A

a. Capillaries

251
Q

649

A

649

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