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its not over, until its over! > Pharma mosby > Flashcards

Pharma mosby Flashcards

1
Q

which drugs tend to concentrate in body compartments of high pH?

A

weak organic acids

*only weak acids and weak bases are greatly affected in their distribution by changes to pH.

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2
Q

drug antagonist having the same intrinsic activity also have the same?

A

maximal effect

  • drug agonist have intrinsict activity of greater than 0 and less than or equal to 1
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3
Q

what receptor or signaling pathway is linked most directly to A2 adrenoreceptor stimulation?

A

G1 and the reduction of cAMP

  • inhibition of adenylyl cyclase through G1 result ing to from stimulation of a2-adrenergic receptor leads to reduction of intracellular cAMP.
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4
Q

what tissue of organ has many muscarinic receptors but lacks innervation to those receptors?

A

blood vessels

*circulating muscarinic cholinergic receptor agonist stimulate these receptors on endothelial cells,leading to release of nitric oxide and vasodilation

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5
Q

which drug used in the therapy for parkinsonism does not cross the blood brain barrier?

A

carbidopa is used to inhibit dopa decarboxyalase.

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6
Q

after an injetion,which drug would be expected to have the longest duratin of action? (assume no vasoconstrictor was injected with the loal anesthetic)

A

bupivacaine

*has the highest lipid solubiliy of the drugs listed

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7
Q

a very low blood gas solubility coefficient (partition coefficient= 0.47) analgesic effect and a drug thst inhibits methionine synthase best describeswhich drug?

A

nitrous oxide

*oxidazes the cobalt in vitamin B12 resulting in the inhibition of methionine synthase.

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8
Q

levonordefrin is added to certain cartridges contaning mepivacaine. the desired effect of levonorderfrin is due to what pharmacological effect?

A

alpha adrenergic receptor stimulation
*
accounts fo the vasoconstrictor effect of levonordefrin

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9
Q

the analgesic effects of dextrometophan are due o what receptor effect?

A

GABA receptor antagonism

*the recently described mild analgesic effect of dextromethophan has been linked to N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonism in CNS

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10
Q

naloxone antagonizes the therapeutic and toxic effects of which drugs?

A

fentanyl

naloxone is a competitive antagonist at opiod receptors

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11
Q

what is the mechanism of the analgesic action of aspirin?

A

inhibit COX

  • cyclooxygenase (COX) is a key enzyme in the synthesis of prostaglandin
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12
Q

what is the clinical setting for the use of ketorolac by the oral route?

A

to continue therapy after of IV/IM dose of ketorolac

*the use of oral ketorolac (an NSAID) is limited to continue therapy after a parental dose.

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13
Q

the use of H2 histamine receptor blockers is most clinially useful at what cell types?

A

parietal cells

  • basophils and mast cells release histamine
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14
Q

which class of antihypertensive drug most effective reduces the release of renin from the kidney?

A

B-adrenergic receptor blockers

*renin release from the kidney is enhanced by stimlation of the B1-adrenergic receptors in the juxtaglumerular cells

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15
Q

the administration of which compound will give “epinephrine reversal” (drop in blod pressure from epinephrine) if given prior to adminstration of epinephrine?

A

phenoxybenzamine

*alpha adrenoceptor blockers like phenoxybenzamine inhibit the vasoconstrictor effect of epinephrine but not the vasodilator of epinephrine

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16
Q

what is the mechanism of action of enoxaparin?

A

activation of antithrombin 111 with resulting inhibition of clotting factor Xa

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17
Q

oropharyngeal candidiasis is an adverse effect mot likely with which drug?

A

inhaled beclomethasone

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18
Q

oral antacids re most likely to reduce the absorption of which drug when it is given orally?

A

tetracyclin

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19
Q

a decrease in glycogenolyis in the liver would be expected from which drug?

A

insulin

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20
Q

nitrates and nitrites have what effet on blood vessel smooth muscle?

A

increase in the level of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)

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21
Q

clavulanic acid offer an advantage therapeutically because it has what action?

A

it inhibits penicillinase

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22
Q

identify the enzyme whoe inhibition is most responsible for the cell wall synthesis inhibitory effect of penicillin G.

A

transpeptidase

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23
Q

which drug is often combined with sulfamethoxazole for the treatment of respiratory tract and urinary tract infections?

A

trimethoprin

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24
Q

which of the ff orgaism is usually sensitive to clindamycin?

A

strep. viridans

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25
Q

dihydrofolate reductase is an enzyme inhibited by which anticancer drug?

A

methotrexate

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26
Q

AZOSIN

A

alpha 1 selective ANTAGONIST

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27
Q

OLOL

A

Beta-blocker

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28
Q

THIAZIDE

A

diuretic

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29
Q

PRIL

A

ACE inhibitor

30
Q

SARTAN

A

angiotension 11 receptor bloker

31
Q

DIPINE

A

vasoselective calcium channel blocker

32
Q

LUKAST

A

leukotriene receptor blocker -asthma treatment

33
Q

PRAZOLE

A

photon pump inhibitor- reduces gastric acid production

34
Q

TIDINE

A

h2 bloker- reduces gastric acid production

35
Q

PROFEN, OLAC, XICAM

A

NSAID- non selective COX inhibitor

36
Q

COXIB

A

NSAID- COX2 selective inhibitor

37
Q

AZINE

A

Phenothiazine- TYPICAL anti psychotics

38
Q

L.A.B.A.S

A 
Levodopa
Anticholinergic agent
Bromocriptine
Amantadine
Selegiline- drugs for parkinsonism
39
Q

PRAMINE, TRIPTYLINE

A

tricyclic antidepressant

40
Q

ZEPAM, ZOLAM

A

benzodiazepine- sedative/hypnotic

41
Q

MORPHONE, FENTANYL

A

full opiod agonist- analgesic

42
Q

protein synthesis inhibitors

A

“AT30MCC50s” blocks 30/50 ribosomal unit
Aminoglycoside
Tetracycline Fmily

Macrolides
Clindamycin
Chloramphenicol

43
Q

CILLIN

A

cell wall synthesis inhibitor- penicillin

44
Q

CEPH, CEF

A

cell wall synthesis inhibitor- cephalosphorin

45
Q

PENEM

A

cell wall synthesis inhibitor- carbaenem

46
Q

MYCIN, MICIN

A

protein synthesis inhibitor- aminoglycoside

47
Q

CYCLINE

A

protein synthesis inhibitor- tetracycline

48
Q

FLOXACIN

A

DNA synthesis inhibitor- fluroquinolone

49
Q

SULFA

A

DNA synthesis inhibitor- sulfonamide

50
Q

GLI, GLY

A

second generations sulfonylureas- oral hypoglycemic agent

51
Q

RELIX

A

gonadotropin releasing hormone antagonist

52
Q

PRED, METHASONE

A

coticosteroid- anti inflammatory

53
Q

AZOLE

A

type of anti-fungal drug

54
Q

DIPINE

A

calcium channel blockers- nifedipine

55
Q

ONIUM, URIUM

A

quaternary ammonium compunds, peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxers

56
Q

OSIN

A

alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blockers

57
Q

MAB

A

monoclonal antibodies

58
Q

PRIL, PRILAT

A

ACE Inhibitors

59
Q

SARTAN

A

angiotensin 2 receptor blockers

60
Q

STATIN

A

inhibitor ntilipid drugs

61
Q

TRIPTAN

A

antimigraine drugs

62
Q

bacteriostatic

A

“STECC TIC”

Sulfonamide
Tetracycline
Erythromycine
Clindamycine
Chloramphenicol

T
I
C (MACE)

63
Q

bactericidal

A

those who are not belong in bacteriostatic

64
Q

anti- seizure drug, anti- arrythmic

A

phenytoin

65
Q

antiarrythmic drug, diuretic, glycoside

A

digitalis

66
Q

xanthine stimulant, diuretic

A

theophylline

67
Q

beta blocker, anti arrythmic drug, antihyertensive drug

A

propanolol

68
Q

tight capillary cell junction resulting in an added barried to the entry of drugs is most characteristic of which organ or tissue?

A

h

69
Q

a prescription for which of the ff drugs requires a valid DEA number on the prescription?

A

h

70
Q

how many human drug testing phases are carried out before a

A

h

its not over, until its over! (19 decks)

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