Pharma Rudman Flashcards
which of the ff componds after metabolizing to form acetaminophenis an ACTIVE analgesic and antipyretic agent?
a. propoxyphene
b. phenacetin
c. aminopyrine
d. phenylbutazone
e. acetylsalicylic acid
b
which of the ff statements concerning ethyl is TRUE?
a. produce a true stimulation of the central nervous system
b. protects individual against exposure to cold by preventing heat loss
c. is metabolized primarily by the lungs
d. is partially absorbed in the stomach
e. possesse teratogenic properties
d.
prolonged and continued use of which of the ff antibiotics will MOST likely results in damage to the VIII cranial nerve?
a. sttretomycin
b. auremycin
c. penicillin
d. tetracyne
a.
a side effect unique with erythromycin estolate (ilosome)
a. hypersensitivity response involving the liver
b. staphilicoccal enteritis
c. bone marrow depression
d. cranial nerve damage
e. renal damage
a.
the active metabolite of the biotransformation of phenacetin is?
a. aniline
b. gentisic acid
c. salicylic acid
d. acetaminophen
e. phenacetylurea
d
the MOST probable cause for serous toxic reaction to the local anesthetic is
a. psychogenic
b. deterioration of the anesthetic agen
c. hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor
d. hypersensitivity to the local anesthetic
e. excessive blood level of the local anesthetic
e.
the PRIMARY effect produced by digitalis at therapeutic dose levels is to
a. slow the cardiac rate
b. increase the force of myocardial contraction
c. derease the venous pressure
d. decrease cardiac enlargement
b.
the ONLY local anethetic which increase the pressure activity of both epinephrine and norephineprhrine is
a. cocaine
b. procaine
c. dibucaine
d. lidocaine
e. mepivacaine
a.
alkalization of tubular urine slows the rate of excretion of
a. water
b. chlorides
c. weak acids
d. weak bases
d.
local anesthetic agents ats PRIMARYLY
a. at a cortical level to decrease the patients awareness of pinimpulses
b. at the myoneural junction to decrease frequency of pain impulses reachin the CNS
c. on the axon membrane to prevent depolorizing potentials
d. at the ganglionic sites to decrease central pain input
e. none of the above
c.
Atropine is DESIRABLE for preanesthetic medication because it
a. prevents vomiting
b. obtunds the cough reflex
c. reduces glandular secretion in the airway
d. increase secretions of the GI tract
e. decrease the physiologic dead space of the airway
c.
which of the ff would be the drug of choice for the rapid relief of suspected coronary vasoconstriction (spasm) characterized by sharp chest pain, shortness of breath, and a history of previous attacks?
a. morphine
b. digitalis
c. quinidine
d. nitroglycerine
e. pentobarbital sodium
d.
a patient receiving pranolol has an acute asthmatic attack while undergoing dental treatment. the MOST useful agent for management of the conditions would be
a. orphine
b. epinephrine
c. phenolamine
d. aminophylline
e. norepinephrine
d
fo which of the ff conditions would steroidsbe used?
a. diabetes
b. acromegaly
c. tuberculosis
d. colagen ds
d.
iron will be absorbed from the duodenum when
a. pH in thee stomach is high
c. high concentrations of phosphate are present in the diet
d the level of ferritin in the mucosal cells is high
e. oxidizing agent are resent in the duodenum.
b.
action of the sympathetc nervous system may beblocked by ehich of th ff types of agents?
a. ganglionic blocks agents only
c. curariform agents only
c. adrenergicblock agents only
d. both ganglionic and adrenergic blocking agent
d.
an excess of which of the ff hormones may be asso. with increased sensitivity to epinephrine?
a. tstosterone
b. parathyroid
c. insuline
d. thyroid
d.
which of the ff would LIKELY appear with atropine overdosage?
a. dryness of mouth and throat
b. pallor of face and neck
c. constricted pupils
d. none of the above
a.
which is NOT an estrogenic substance?
a. premarin
b. theelin
c. estradiol
d. stilbesterol
e. follicle stimulating hormone
e.
hich of the ff statements describes in the part the cardiovascular effects of a pressor dose of epinephrine?
a. an increase in blood pressure is followed by a decrrease, a biphasic pressure response
b. total peripheral resistance is never decreased
c. the myocardium is istimulated by exognous epinephrine only at the sympathetic accelerator nerve endings
d. all blood vessels are constricted.
a.
a hypnotic LIKELY to be suitable for use in an individual allergic to secobarbital is?
a. thiopental
b. pentobarbital
c. chloral hydrate
d. phenobarbital
e. propoxyphene
c.
the outstanding advantage of diphenylhydrantoin over phenobarbital in the ttreatent of grandmal epilepsy is that diphenylhydrantoin
a. exerts less sedstion for a given degree of motor corte x depression
b. is effective in a greater percent of cases
c. needs to be given much less frequently
d. does not bring about addiction
a.
some antidepressant drgs are known to inhibit the enzyme
a. cholinesterase
b. choline- acetylase
c. monoamine oxidase
d. o-methyltransferase
c
if a patient requiring an extraction reports that he is on bishydroxycoumarin therapy, the laboratory test that would MOST valuable in evaluating the surgical risk is?
a. clotting time
b. bleeding time
c. sedimentation rate
d. CBC
e. plasma prothrombin time
e.
dilantin is the drug of choice for
a. jacksonian epilepsy
b. relief of visceral pain
c. relief of pheripheral pain
d. grandmal epilepsy
e. petitmal epilepsy
d.
which is not a general anesthetic?
a. benzylalcohol
b. cyclopropane
c. ethylene
d. vinyl ether
e. trichlorethylene
a.
which of the ff should NOT be adminitered to a patient with myasthenia gravis?
a. atropine
b. curare
c. insulin
d. digitlis
e. prsotagmine
b.
procaine may cause cardiovascular collapse because procaine blocks autonomic ganglia.
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
C.
in clinical testing of anew drug , the double blind design is not usually necessary because few drugs possess a true placebo effect
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
e.
dimercaprol (BAL) is effective in erly poisoning by mercuric salts because it successfully competes with essential sulfhydryl groups in the body for the binding and subsequent excretion of mercuric ions
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
a.
acid medium will increase the local anesthetic potency of procaine HCL bacause the undissociated form of procaine can penetrste easily the nerve membrane
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
d.
nitroglycerin can increase the coronary blood flow bacause it blocks the sympathetic nervous system
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
c.
epinephrine is contraindicated in asthmatic patients because epinephrine exerts a Beta Adrenergic effect on brochial smooth muscle
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
d.
the avialable evidence suggest that drugs penetrate or enter into cell membranes at the mostvrapid rate when they are in the unionized form because unionized drugs possess maximal water solubility
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
c.
the plasma level of weak organic acids may be reduced by sodium bicarbonate bacause this alkalizing agent promotesthe renalelimination of such acids.
a. both statements and reason are correct and related
b. both statements and reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statements are correct but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT corect but the reason is an accurate statement
e. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
a.
adminstration of which of teff drugs is MOST likely to PROLONG clotting time?
a. morphie
b. vitamin k
c. a barbiturate
d. acetaminophen
e. acetylsalicylic acid
e.
if a narcotic agent were chosen for intravenous sedation which of the ff drugs should be avaiable as the antagonist of choice?
a. naloxone
b. doxapram
c. pentazocine
d. fentanyl
e. diphenhydramine
a.
which ofthe ff is a frequent side effect of histmine therapy ?
a. anemia
b. anuria
c. diuretics
d. drowsines
e. autonomic nervous system overactivityy
d.
which of the ff is a local anesthetic subject to inactivation by plasma esterases?
a. procaine
b. lidocaine
c. prilocaine
d. mepivacaine
e. bupivacaine
a.
methoxylation of which of the ff compounds results in the formation of codein?
a. morphine
b. codeinone
c. oxycodone
d. methylmorphine
e. diacetylmorphine
a.
which of the ff drugs is used prinncipally for its diuretic action
a. aldosterone
b. angiotensin
c. meprobamate
d. vasopressin
e. . chlorothiazide
e.
which of the ff is a predictable result of a-adrenergic blockage?
a. mydriasis
b. xerostomia
c. bronchochonstricion
d. lowered blood pressure
e. dryness of nasal mucous membrane
d.
B1- adreneergic blocking agents will antagonize which of the ff actions of epinephrine?
a. glycogenolysis
b. cardiac acceleration
c. vasoconstriction in gatrointestinal vasculature
d. vasodilation of skeletal muscle vasculature
e. bronchodlation
b
which of the ff maybe useful as an infiltrative local anesthetic in a patient allergic to both amide and ester anesthetic derivatives?
a. N2O
b. bupivacaine
c. phenylephrine
d. diphendydramine
e. ethylaminobenzoate
d.
which of the ff is IRREVERSIBLE side effect resulting from long term administration of phenothiazine antipsychotics
a. sedation
b. xerstomia
c. infertility
d. parkinsonism
e. tardine dyskenisia
e.
withdraw of a patient from which of the ff drugs is attended by changes in the electroencephalogram and convulsions? a. heroin b . cocaine c. morphine d. secoarbital e. methamphetamine
d
which of the ff drugs is aplied topically would produce mydriasis of short duration with no cycloplega?
a. atrophine
b. ephedrine
c. homatrophine
d. isoproterenol
e. diisopropylfluorophosphate
b.
it is a general rule in using antibiotic combination therapy to NEVER combine -_____ agents.
a. two bactericidal
b. two bacteriostatic
c. a bactericidal with a bacteriostatic
d. two analgesic
e. an analgesic with a bactericidal
c
admistration of which of the ff drugs INCREASES the likelihoof of toxic responses to digitalis?
a. reserpine
b. diazepam
c. lidocaine
d. spironolactone
e. chlorothiazine
e.
a 5 grain aspirin tablet contains approximately ____ milligramsof the drug
a. 75
b. 150
c. 325
d. 500
e. 700
c.
excitement and delirium are commonly present is tage of ether anesthesia a. I b. II c.III, plane 1 d III, plane 3 e. IV
b.
which of the ff drugs is safe to administer to a patient who suffers from atrial tachycardia, is allergic to quinine and has no evidence of congestive heart failue?
a. digitoxin
b. quinidine
c. epinephrine
d. procainamide
e. acetylcholine
d.
which of the ff types of drug response is LEAST predictale in occurence?
a. side effect
b. idiosyncrasy
c. tachyphylaxis
d. therapeutic action
e. overdosage toxicity
b.
which of the ff drugs has the leaset anti-inflammatory activity?
a. prednisone
b. aldosterone
c. prednisolone
d. hydrocortisone
e. triamcinolone
b.
which of the ff drugs ,when administered intravenously, is LEAST likely to produce respiratory depression?
a. fentanyl
b. diazepam
c. thiopental
d. meperidine
e. pentobarbital
b.
which of the ff is NOT a property of tetracycline antibiotics?
a. absorption is impaired when taken with milk
b. the predispose to monilial superinfection
c. they form a stable complex ith the developing tooth matrix
d. they have a low tendency for sensitization but a very high therapeutic index
e. they are effective substitutes for penicillin in subacute bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis
e.
which f the ff drugs is an analgesic and antipyretic but does NOT have significant anti-inflammatory properties?
a. indomethacin
b. phenylbutzone
c. acetaminophen
d. sodium salicylate
e. acetylsalicylic acid
c.
following administration of 1% lidocaine,the patient feels faint and light headed and begins to wheeze. the injection of 0.5cc of 1:1,000 epinephrine subcutaneously will produce all of the ff effects EXCEPT?
a. sedation
b. bronchodilation
c. cardiac acceleration
d. increased systolic blod pressure
e. none of the above
a.
the blood level of a drug reflects all of the ff EXCEPT
a. absorptio
b. protein binding
c. mechanism f action
d. amount of drug given
e. succinylcholine
b.
each of the ff drgs is subject to hydrolysis by esterases EXCEPT
a. procaine
b. epinephrine
c. tetracaine
d. acetylcholine
e. sicinylchooline
b
excessive dose of acetylsalicylic acid can produce each of the ff EXCEPT
a. tinitus
b. hyperventilation
c. metabolic acidosis
e. gastrointestinal irritation
b.
activity of the hepatic drug metabolizing enzymes may be enhanced by each of the ff except?
a. dicumarol
b. meprobamate
c. phenobarbital
d. acetycholine
e. cigarette smoking
d.
administrstion of tricyclic antidepressant may cause each of the ff ECEPT?
a. xerostomia
b. orthostatic hypotension
c. immediate releif of acute depression
d. side effects similar to those of the phenothiazines
e. inhibition of norepinephrine reuptak by specific central nervous sytem adrenergic neurons
c.
each of the ff is a naturally occuring local mediator in man EXCEPT?
a. endorphin
b. histmain
c. bradykinin
d. prostaglndin
e. tetrahydrocannabinol
e
propanolol is CONTRINDICATED in each of the ff clinicl condition EXCEPT?
a. hypoglycemia
b. bronchial asthma
c. atrial tachycardia
d. congestive heart failure
c.
each of the ff drugs may results in blood dyscrasias EXCEPT?
a. codein
b. phenytoin
c. indomethacin
d. phenylbutazone
e. chloramphenicol
a.
the prostagandins produce all of the ff pharmacologic actions EXCEPT?
a. pyrexia
b. uterine contraction
c. increased gastric secretion
d. incresed capilalry permiability
e. pain when injected intradermally
c.
which of the following is NOT characteristic of the thiazide diuretics? they
a. increased renal excretion of sodium and chloride
b. increased renal excretion potassium
c. exacerbate existing diabetes
d. cause hypokalemia
e. cause hypoglycemia
e.
which of the ff is NOT true about acetaminophen?
a. is a non-prescription drug
b. cross-allergic with aspirin
c. possess both analgesic and antipyretic effects
d. may iduce methymoglobinemai at high doses
e. may be the pharmacologically active form of acetophenetidin (phenacetin)
b.
which of the ff antibiotics is cross allergic with penicillin and should NOT be admisnisered to the penicillin sensitive patient?
a. ampicillin
b. erythromycin
c. clindamycin
d. lincomycin
e. tetracycline
a.
which of the ff is NOT true regarding siccinylcholine?
a. it is structurally related to acetylcholine
b. it is generally adminstered intravenously
c. it is metabolized by pseudocholinesterase
d. its most serious toxic effect is apnea
e. it is antagonized by anticholinesterases.
e
the sulfonylurea hypoglycemic drugs are usually NOT iseful in childhood diabees because
a. they are antagonized by ACTH
b. they have low therapeutic indices
c. few pancreatic islet cells are active
d. they inhibit the physiologic production of insulin
e. none of the above
c.
adrenal steroids are used succesfully to treat all of the ff conditions EXCEPT ?
a. gastric ulcers
b. addisons disease
c. lupus erythematosus
d. rheumatoid arthritis
e. apthous stomatitis
a.
the germicidal action of benzalknium chloride is rpidly REDUCED in the presence of
a. soap
b. water
c. fluorides
d. inorganic matter
e. cationic detergents
a.
amide typesloca anesthetics are metabolized in the
a. serum
b. liver
c. spleen
d. kidneys
e. axoplasm
b.
the MOST probable causefor a serous toxic reaction to local anesthetic is
a. pychogenic
b. deterioration of the anesthetic agent
c. hypersensitivity to the vasoconstrictor
d. hypersensitivity to thelocal anesthetic
e. excessive blood level of the local anesthetic
e.
in angina pectoris, the MOST rapid and depedable relief will be provided by
a. oral glyceryl trinitrate
b. oral isosorbide dinitrate
c. oral erythrityl tetranitrate
e. ora pentaerythritol tetranitrate
d.
the PROBABLE mechanism of the bacteriostatic ction of sulfonamides involves
a. disruption of the cell membranes
b. coagulation of intracelllar proteins
c. reduction in oxygen utilization by the cells
d. inhibition of metabolism by binding acetyl groups
e. competition with para -aminobenzoic acin in folic acid synthesis
e.
nitroglycerin dilates the coronary arteries in angina pectoris by
a. decreasing the heart rate reflexly
b. increasing the metabolic work of the myocardium
c. direct action in smooth muscle in the vessel walls
d. increasg the effective refractory period in the atrium
e. blocking beta- adrenergic receptors
c.
a patient with grandmal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with
a. meprobamate
b. pentobarbital
c. trimethadione
d. ethosiximide
e. phenytoin
e.
phenothiazines are used to
a. produce muscle relaxation
b. alter psychotic behavior
c. suppress coughing
d. produce analgesia
e. produce hypophysis
b.
cardiovascular collapse elicited by a high circulating dose of a local anesthetic may be caused by
a. syncope
b. vagal stimulation
c. histamin realease
d. myocardial depression
e. medullary stimulation
d.
the PRINCIPAL centrl action of caffeine is in the a. cerebral cortex b. corpus callosum c,. hypothalamus d. spinal cord e. medulla
a.
quinidine is used to treat
a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. atrial fibrillation
d. ventricular fibrillation
e. cingestive heart failure
atrial fibrillation
diazepam is prefered to barbituates as an antianxiety agent because diazepam
a. produces no sedation
b. is a very short acting drug
c. is substantially less expensive
d. does not potentialte CNS depressanrs
e. has less addiction potential
e.
the general anesthesia,the last part of the CNS to be depressed is the
a. medulla
b. cerebrum
c. midbrain
d. cerebellum
e. spinal cord
a.
the ONLY local anesthetic which increases the pressor acrivity of both epinepgrine and norepinephrine is
a. cocaine
b. procaine
c. dibucaine
d. lidocaine
e. mepivacaine
a
the lenetration of a local anesthetic into venous tissue is a function of the
a. length of the central alkyl chain
b. lilid solunility of thd unionized form
c. lipid solubility of the unionized form
d. ester linkages between the aromatic nucleus and the alkyl chain
e. amide linkage between the aromatic nucleus and the alkyl chain
c.
the antagonist of choice in the treatment of opiod overdosage is
a. naloxone
b. nalorphine
c. pentazocine
d. levallorphan
e. propoxyphene
a.
inhilation general anesthetics ppsses relatively LOW therspeutic indices, but their clinical safety is greatly INCREASED by
a. rapid renal excreation
b. rapid liver metabolism
c. extreme esse in reversing tissue concsntrstion
d. ready reversal of effects by antsgonist
e. none of the above
c.
therapy with nonendocrine antineoplastic agents is asso. with
a. mutagenicity
b. bone marrow depression
c. decreased immume response
d. gastrointestinal and orsl ulcerstions
e. all of th above
e.
cardiac arrythmias MOST commonly seen during administration of
a. thiopentsl
b. halothane
c. ethyl ether
d. nitrous oxide
e. none of the above
b
the drug of choice for initial therspy for mild hylertension is
a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. phenobarbital
d. chlorothiazide
e. alpha- methyldopa
d.
the inorganic ion which is Primarily implicated in hypertension is
a. sodium
b. fluoride
c. potassium
d. magnesium
e. ammonium
a.
the MOST common clinical cause of bacterial resistance is
a. improper antibiotic selection
b. faulty gastrointestinal absorption of antibiotics
c. use of antibiotics when they are not indicsted
d. fsilure to use culture and zensitivity test
e. none of the above
c.
neostigmine can stimulate denervatted skeletalmuscle because it
a. is a congener of acetylcholine
b. is a competitive blocking agemt
c. has no effect on acetylcholinesterase
d. is more potent that diisopropylfluorophosphate
e. is capable of acting directly on the end plate
e.
propanolol is a value in treating angina pectoris becaise it
a. has a direct action on vascular smooth muscle
b. blocks autoregulatory mechanism in the heart
c. inhibits oxygen metabolism in cardiac cells
d. provides relief wothin seconds of an avute anginal attack
e. prevents chronotropic responses to endogenous epinephrine emotions and exercise
e.
the signature portion of the prescriptuon contains
a. the full personal signature of the doctor
b. the drug name plus the unit dosage
c. instructions to the pharmacisr concerning dispensing the drug
d. instructions to the patient regarding tsking the medication
e. age, sex and address of the pstient
d.
the oral contraceptives exert their primary effect by
a. inhibiting ovulation
b. spermatocidal action
c. blocking implantation
d. decreasing uterine motility
e. stimulating FSH release from the pituitsry
a.
amphetaminesacts by
a. promoting storage of the mediator
b. causing rapid release of the mediator
c. causing low depletion of the mediator
d. combining with a receptor substance on the effector cell
e. interfering with the response of the receptor to the mediator
b.
the drug MOST commonly used to treat severe mentsl depression is
a. sodium
b. imilramine
c. chlorpromazine
d. tranylcypromine
e. dextroamphetsmine
b.
idiosuncracies to drugs are telated to
a. species
b. genetic factors
c. age of the patient
d. allergies
e. all of the above
e.
gastric acid secretion has been shown to be MOST effectively reduced with the use of
a. adrenal stenosis
b. anticholinergicdrugs
c. serotonin antagonisr
d. H1 histsmine receptor antagonists
e. H2 histsmine receptor antsgonist
e.
theratioof the median lethal dose ( LD50) to the mediameffective dose (ED50 ) is the
a. morbidity index
b. mortslity index
c. anesthetic ratio
d. therapeutic index
e. none of the above
d.
the sole therapeutic advantage of lenicillin V over penicillin G is
a. greater resistance to penicillinase
b. broader antibacterial spectrum
c. more reliableoral absorption
d. slower renal excrerion
e. none of the above
c.
the use of vasocnstrictors in combinations with local anesthetics is CONTRAINDICATED in a dental patient
a. with angina pectoris
b. who is hypertensive
c. who had rheumatic fever
d. who has had a myocardial infarction
e. with parkinson ds whk is on levodopa therapy
e.
a distinct advantage that tetracycline have over penicillins is that tetracyclines
a. have no side effects
b. do not cause superinfections
c. are safer to use during pregnancy
d. have a wider range of antibacterial activoty
e. produce higher blood levels faster after oral administrarion
d.
the most frequent cause of fainting asso. with local anesthetic used in dental practice is
a. psychic factors
b. hylersensitivuty reactions
c. excessive alkalinity of the injected solutiom
d. excessive acidity of the anesrhetic solutiom
e. deterioration of the anesthetic zolution
a.
lidocaine is more widely used than procainein routine dentla practice because lidocaine
a. is a vasoconstrictor
b. does not cause CNS stimulation
c. cause fewer allergic reactuons
d. is less likely to cause cardiovascular collapse
e. is 50 times more potentas a local anesthetic
c.
