Well Child Flashcards

1
Q

Age appropriate developmental achievement of the child 5

A

i. Physical
ii. Motor
iii. Cognitive
iv. Emotional
v. Social

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2
Q

i. periodic assessment of medical & oral health

A

a. Health Supervision Visit

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3
Q

what timeline are the growth curves based on

A

gestational age

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4
Q

what do the growth curves include 4

A

height
weight
BMI
head circumfrence until 3

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5
Q

overweight %

A

85-95%

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6
Q

obese %

A

95+%

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7
Q

underweight %

A

< 5%

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8
Q

microcephaly

A

<3%

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9
Q

macrocephaly

A

> 97%

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10
Q

gestational preterm

A

< 37 weeks

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11
Q

gestational term

A

37-42 weeks

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12
Q

gestational post term

A

> 42 weeks

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13
Q

normal birth-weight

A

> 2,500

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14
Q

low birth weight

A

< 2500

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15
Q

very low birth weight

A

< 1,500

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16
Q

extremely low birth weight

A

<1,000

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17
Q

what does the term infant mean

A

1st year

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18
Q

the team neo natal

A

1-28 days

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19
Q

postnatal

A

29 days - 1 year

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20
Q

when to check apgar score

A

0-5 main

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21
Q

what is the apgar score

A

0-10

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22
Q

what is a normal apgar score

A

> 7

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23
Q

components of apgar (5)

A

i. Heart rate
ii. Respiratory
iii. Muscle tone
iv. Nostril stimuli
v. Color

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24
Q
  1. Newborn screen
A

a. Population wide testing for metabolic diseases

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25
Q

a. Vernix Caseosa

A

i. Cheesy white covering

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26
Q

i. Causes by blocked Sebaceous glands

A

a. Milia

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27
Q

i. Congenital dermal melanocytes

ii. Common in the lumbarspine

A

a. Mongolian Spot

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28
Q

i. Yellow Eosinophic papules

A

a. Erythema Toxicum

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29
Q

A raised boney ridge at a suture line suggest

A

crainiosynopstosis

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30
Q

i. Separate bones from one another

A

a. Sutures

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31
Q

i. Where major sutures intersect

A

a. Fontanells

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32
Q

i. Suken Fontanells

may indicate

A

dehydration

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33
Q

Large fontanels can be the first sign of hypo

A

thyroids

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34
Q

when do the posterior fontelels close

A

1-2 momths

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35
Q

when do the anterior fontels close

A

18 months

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36
Q

Caput succedaneum

A
  1. Swelling (Can cross suture lines)
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37
Q

i. Cephlohematoma

A
  1. Swelling / blood (cannot cross suture lines)
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38
Q

Hypetelorism

A

wide eyes

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39
Q

Infants < 1 month are (breathers)

A

nose

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40
Q

how to look in a kids ears

A

down and back

41
Q

i. Small white benign inclusion cysts

A

a. Epsteins Perls

42
Q

Small white benign inclusion cysts On the gingival ridge

A

a. Bohn nodes

43
Q

Ankyloglossia

A

i. Congenital short lingual frenulum

44
Q

you want to examine the neck of an infant in what position

A

supine

45
Q

a. Congenital torticollis

A

i. Bleeding into the SCM
ii. Appears in 2-3 weeks post birth
iii. Disappears over months

46
Q

fracture that may happen during birth

A

a. Clavicle fracture

47
Q

Most common dysthymia

A

PSVT

48
Q

i. Diminished femoral pulse

A

a. Coarctation of the aorta

49
Q

a. Urethrial opening

Hypospadis

A
  1. Below (ventral)

2. Check BEFORE circumcision

50
Q
  1. Abnormal dorsal placement
A

i. Epispadias

51
Q

first poop

A

Meconium:

52
Q

Single palmer crease AKA: simian crease associated

A

downs

53
Q

4 risks for disloacted peds hip

A

a. Premature
b. Breech
c. White
d. 1st born female

54
Q
  1. Tests for an unstable hip
A

i. Baelow test

55
Q

Tests for a posterior dislocated hip

A

i. Ontolani

56
Q

palmer grasp

A

birth - 4 months

57
Q

plantra grasp

A

birth - 8 months

58
Q

i. Asymmetry could indicate BP injury

A

moro reflex

59
Q

moro reflex AKA

A

startle reflex

60
Q

moro reflex timeline

A

birth - 4 months

61
Q

ATNR timeline

A

birth - 2 months

62
Q

posstive support describe

A

push to stand up

63
Q

i. Absence suggests transverse spinal cord lesion

A

a. Galant Reflex

64
Q

i. Baby goes into lateral flexion towards the stimuli

A

a. Galant Reflex

65
Q

stepping reflex timelne

A

4 days- 1 month

66
Q

a. Always check for the red reflex

A

yes

67
Q

when to start annual vision screen

A

between the ages of 1-3

68
Q

when do you do a universal hearing screen

A

prior to leaving the hospital

69
Q

the most common cause of childhood blindness

A

Amblyopia

70
Q

when do you check a kids BP

A

3 years old unless they have risk factors

71
Q

when do they screen for hemoglobin

A

9 and 12 months

72
Q

when do you do do the MCHAT screen for atusim

A

18 and 24 monsths

73
Q

1st dentist visit

A

between 1 and 2

74
Q

rear racing carseat until when

A

2

75
Q

booster seat until when

A

4’ 9”

76
Q

when can you sit in the front

A

> 13 years old

77
Q

i. fixes on objects
ii. responds to sound
iii. spontaneous smile

A

1 month

78
Q

i.Lifts head when prone

follows to midline

A

2 months

79
Q

follows past midline

A

4 months

80
Q

sits with support separation anxiety

A

6 months

81
Q

cawls
pincer grasp
pulls to stand

A

9 months

82
Q

walks

slef feeds

A

1 year

83
Q

3-6 words
climbs stairs
immates

A

15 months

84
Q

run, walk

5-15 words

A

18 months

85
Q

50 words

kicks ball

A

24 months

86
Q

i. Contraindications

1. Severe yeast allergy

A

Hep B

87
Q

a. Leading cause of GI deaths in infants

A

rotavirus

88
Q

DTAP has what

A

Diphtheria,
tetanus
Pertussis

89
Q

what can cause

i. Pericarditis
ii. Coma
iii. Paralysis

A

Diphtheria

90
Q

what bacteria is associated with broken bones

A

tetanus

91
Q

what are the contraindications for HIB vaccine

A

6 months

92
Q

i. Meningitis
ii. Epiglottitis
complications to what vaccine

A

HIB

93
Q

a. risk for febrile seizure if administered with influenza vaccine

A
  1. PVC 13 (pneumococcal)
94
Q

i. pregnancy

is a contraindication to what vaccines

A

polio
varicilla
Hep A

95
Q

if someone is wanting to get pregnant within 28 days whar vaccine should they NOT take

A

MMR

96
Q

GBS is a complication to what vaccine

A

MMR

97
Q

HPV vaccine protects against what strains

A

6, 11

16, 18

98
Q

a. Peripheral cyanosis may be normal for 1-2 days post birth

A

truth