Week 9 - Musculoskeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

What are common pathologies of bone?

A
  • fractures
  • osteoporosis
  • arthritis
  • osteomyelitis
  • tumours
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2
Q

How does a fracture heal?

A
  1. Rupture of blood vessels causes a haematoma which fills the fracture gap
  2. Provides a fibrin meshwork to allow formation of granulation tissue
  3. Inflammatory cells release cytokines to activate osteoblasts and osteoclasts
  4. Development of cartilage cap (callous) by 1 week
  5. Bone deposition begins to strengthen callous
  6. Repair tissue reaches maximum girth - 2-3 weeks - remodelling
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3
Q

What are the obstacles of fracture healing?

A
  • if bones aren’t aligned
  • if area isn’t immobilised
  • if fracture side contains dead bone
  • infection
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4
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A
  • decrease in bone mass and density
  • can lead to fractures
  • very common
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5
Q

What causes osteoporosis?

A
  • imbalance between bone reabsorption and bone production
  • inadequate peak bone mass
  • excess bone resorption
  • inadequate bone production
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6
Q

What influences/causes the risk of developing osteoporosis?

A

Hormonal influences
-lack of oestrogen (e.g. post-menopausal), increases bone resorption and decreases new bone formation

Calcium metabolism and vitamin D deficiency
-deficiency can also hider bone formation

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7
Q

How can osteoporosis be treated?

A

Alendronic acid - bisphosphate that prevents osteoclast activity

(Osteoclasts - bone resorption)

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8
Q

What does arthritis mean?

A

Inflammation of a joint

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9
Q

What is arthritis characterised by?

A

Pain, swelling, stiffness

May be redness (erythema) and warmth over joint

Restricted movement

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10
Q

What is the most common type of arthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis

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11
Q

How does osteoarthritis deteriorate and what joints does it effect?

A
  • progressive deterioration

- usually in weight bearing joints

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12
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary osteoarthritis?

A

Primary:
- no initiating cause

Secondary:
-at any age with previous joint trauma or congenital abnormality

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13
Q

What are the risk factors of osteoarthritis?

A
  • increasing age
  • female sex - menopause
  • obesity
  • pre-existing joint deformity
  • excess mechanical stress e.g. professional sports people, miners, farmers
  • genetic susceptibility/ family history
  • hyper mobility
  • other diseases (secondary OA)
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14
Q

What is the pathogenesis of osteoarthritis?

A
  • wear and tear
  • breakdown of articular cartilage
  • underlying bone exposed
  • fragments of cartilage can fall in to joint
  • bony thickening and outgrowths (osteophytes) develop
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15
Q

What are the symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A
  • morning stiffness
  • pain, worse with movement
  • reduced range of movement
  • progressive reduction in mobility
  • joint effusions (fluid)
  • crepitus
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16
Q

Who is affected by rheumatoid arthritis more?

A
  • women affected three times more than men

- familial association

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17
Q

Which antigen has rheumatoid arthritis got a link with?

A

HLA - human leukocyte antigen

18
Q

What is the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • rheumatoid factors help form immune complexes in the circulation
  • generates inflammation in the synovium
  • membranes thicken
  • chronic inflammation leads to cartilage and joint destruction
  • other tissues involved e.g. in lungs and vessels
19
Q

What are the features of arthritis?

A
  • usually affects small joints of hands and feet
  • pain
  • swelling and deformity
  • fever, fatigue, generalised pain
  • joints often stiff without prior activity
  • most have fluctuating disease
20
Q

What deformities can late stage rheumatoid arthritis cause?

A

Swan neck deformity (finger ends)

Boutonnière deformity (middle knuckles)

Severe foot deformity

21
Q

How is rheumatoid arthritis diagnosed?

A

Need 4 of:

  • morning stiffness for >1 hours
  • arthritis in 3 or more joints
  • arthritis of typical hand joints
  • symmetric arthritis
  • rheumatoid nodules
  • serum rheumatoid factor
  • typical radiographic changes
22
Q

What are crystal arthropathies?

A

Associated with intra-articular crystal formation

  • gout
  • pseudogout
23
Q

What is gout?

A
  • raised uric acid
  • produced by breakdown of purine bases by the enzyme xanthine oxidase
  • usually excreted by kidneys
  • urate deposited as crystals in the joints
24
Q

What do repeated attacks of gout cause?

A

Chronic arthritis

25
Q

What are the causes of gout?

A
  • drugs (aspirin/diuretics)
  • alcohol
  • renal disease
  • hypothyroidism
  • dehydration
26
Q

What are the features/symptoms of gout?

A
  • sudden onset excruciating burning joint pain
  • redness, warmth, tenderness, stiffness
  • usually first attack involves big toe
  • subsequent attacks are less severe
27
Q

What is pseudogout?

A
  • precipitation of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in connective tissues
  • crystals in cartilage can enlarge and rupture causing “crystal shedding” in to joint cavity or soft tissues
  • causes an inflammatory response and synovitis
  • usually in knees and ankles
28
Q

What are the causes of pseudogout?

A
  • can be hereditary
  • associated with osteoarthritis
  • trauma or surgery
  • more common with increasing age
29
Q

What is septic arthritis?

A

Inflammation of a joint caused by bacterial infection

-commonly affects the knee

30
Q

What symptoms does septic arthritis cause?

A
  • severe pain, swelling, redness and heat in infected joints
  • tend to develop quickly over a few hours/days

-may also have difficulty moving the affected joint and some people have a high temperature

31
Q

How is septic arthritis treated?

A

Needs treatment with IV antibiotics

May require washout of the joint

Can be serious and cause sepsis

32
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A
  • bone infection usually caused by bacteria
  • trauma, surgery, presence of foreign bodies
  • diabetics at increased risk
  • haematogenous spread
33
Q

What is the most common bone tumour?

A

-metastatic disease from a distant cancer - e.g. prostate, kidney, breast

34
Q

What primary bone tumours can occur?

A

Relatively rare

  • benign - osteoid osteoma
  • malignant - sarcoma
35
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle in the body?

A
  • striated
  • smooth
  • cardiac
36
Q

What is striated muscle and what is it involved in?

A
  • skeletal muscle
  • visible striations on microscopy
  • involved in voluntary movements e.g. biceps, muscles of arms and legs etc.
37
Q

What is smooth muscle and what is it involved in?

A
  • forms muscle layer in walls of GIT, ducts, arteries and internal organs
  • involved in involuntary actions such as bowel peristalsis
  • controlled by autonomic nervous system
38
Q

What pathological issues occur with skeletal/striated muscle?

A
  • muscular dystrophies

- neuromuscular disorders

39
Q

What pathological issues occur with smooth muscle?

A

Leiomyomas

40
Q

What categories is the skeleton split up in to?

A

Axial (skull, sternum, ribs, vertebral column)

Appendicular (limbs, pelvis)