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Pharmacology > Week 6 tests > Flashcards

Week 6 tests Flashcards

1
Q

rapid acting insuling contraindications

A

if person has asthma or COPD

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2
Q

rapid onset insulin: adverse effects

A

hypoglycemia, hypokalemia, Afrezza can cause acute bronchospasm

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3
Q

short acting insulin: administration considerations

A

only insulin that can be given IV (monitor K+ closely); given with meals based on carbohydrate intake and pre-meal glucose levels

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4
Q

short acting insulin: adverse effects

A

hypoglycemia, hypokalemia

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5
Q

intermediate insulin: administration considerations

A

a. Cloudy liquid
b. roll vial/pen gently to resuspend before drawing up insulin
c. unopened vials in refrigerator until expiration date
d. open vials, unrefrigerated 28 days

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6
Q

intermediate insulin: adverse effects

A

hypoglycemia, hypokalemia

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7
Q

combination insulin (intermediate acting and rapid acting): administration considerations

A

administered 30 minutes before meals

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8
Q

intermediate insuling adverse side effects

A

hypoglycemia, hypokalemia

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9
Q

long acting insulin: administration considerations

A

no peak - constant concentration over 24 hours

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10
Q

long acting insulin: adverse side effects

A

hypoglycemia, hypokalemia

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11
Q

glucagon adverse reaction

A

can cause hyperglycemia

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12
Q

general administration considerations for insulin

A

a. pen count to 5 before removing
b. always read label and know concentration
c. sliding scale

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13
Q

hypothyroidism: neonatal (cretinism)

A

cognitive defects, short stature, maybe deaf/mute

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14
Q

hypothyroidism: classic s/s

A

low metabolic rate, weight gain, cold extremities, constipation, reduced libido, menstrual irregularities, reduced mental acitivites

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15
Q

hypothyroidism requires what

A

long term thyroid replacement

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16
Q

hyperthyroidism: cause

A

often caused by pituitary or thyroid tumor

Grave’s Disease (autoimmune)

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17
Q

hyperthyroidism: classic s/s

A

increase metabolic rate, excessive body heat, sweating, diarrhea, weight loss, tremors, increase HR, exophthalmos

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18
Q

Thyroid hormones: T3 and T4

A

responsible for metabolism

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19
Q

Thyroid hormones: calcitonin

A

Calcium regulation; released when serum Ca+ is high

    • inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts
    • decreasing Ca+ absorption in intestines

— increase calcium lost in urine

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20
Q

thyroid hormone: PTH secretion

A
  • release of Ca+ from bones

- released when serum Ca+ is low

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21
Q

inhaled corticosteriods can cause what

A

oral candidias and dry mouth – wash mouth to avoid thrush and wash mouth piece to avoid bacteria buildup

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22
Q

cough suppressants are contraindicated in who?

A

people who have COPD

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23
Q

When should ppl with emphysema use albuterol

A

when symptoms worsen

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24
Q

for GI meds, what should we do with patients who have unexplained n/v

A

fluid electrolytes

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25
Q

lactulose: what

A

laxative, used to eliminate ammonia in liver failure

26
Q

lactulose adverse fx

A

patient loses fluid electrolytes and water

27
Q

lactulose, how does it work

A

causes diarrhea, prevents ammonia absoption

28
Q

metamucil downsides

A

fiber can get too thick and worse constipation – must drink fluids

29
Q

magnesium medications for GI: who is contraindicated

A

patients with renal failure

30
Q

magnesium medications, what should we monitor for?

A

BUN, Creatinine, serum magnesium levels

31
Q

what are examples of magnesium medications

A

milk of magnesia, antacids

32
Q

immodium can cause what?

A

lethargy and respiratory depression because it has opioids.

33
Q

meds that change pH of stomach do what?

A

decrease absorption

34
Q

meds for constipation do what to the GI tract

A

decrease absorption and increase GI motility

35
Q

anticholinergic drug CI

A

patients with glaucoma or prostate problems

36
Q

why should we not give anticholinergics to patients with glaucoma

A

increased intra-occular pressure (dilates pupils) and blocks the exit of aqeus humor from draining

37
Q

citropine

A

cardiac resesitation stimulant, increased CO, causes pupil dilation

38
Q

citropine is what class of drug

A

anticholinergic

39
Q

sulfonurea does what

A

stimulates beta cells to produce insulin

40
Q

do not take sulfourea with that

A

thiazide diuretics or sulfa drugs

41
Q

how does metformin work

A

stimulates cells to “like” insulin by increasing cells sensitivity to it

42
Q

what can be used for PCOD

A

metformin

43
Q

does metforming cause hyperglycemia

A

NO

44
Q

metformin FX

A

lactic acidosis, nephrotoxic

45
Q

what do you do if you are taking metformin and you have to get a radiologic procedure done

A

stop taking 24-48 hours before you have to take contrast dye or else you can get lactic acidosis.

push fluid if you need a diagnostic test

46
Q

glypizide can cause what

A

hyperglycemia if taken with sulfa antibiotics

47
Q

do not take HCTZ with what

A

ANY SULFA DRUGS

48
Q

hemoglobin A1C should be what

A

less than 7%

49
Q

fasting blood glucose should be what

A

less than 100

50
Q

random blood glucose level should be

A

less than 130 (taken anytime after eating)

51
Q

NSAID fx on BG

A

decrease BG

(decreases inflammation, decreases BG) because inflammation increased BG

52
Q

what can increase BG

A

inflammation and stress

53
Q

Syntharide (?) can cause what

A

increased metabolism, increase HR, cardiac arrythmias

54
Q

what should you monitor with syntharide?

A

pulse

55
Q

What is the only insulin that can be given IV

A

regular insulin (short acting) i think

56
Q

how do glucocorticoids fx BG

A

increase blood glucose

57
Q

changes in CSF due to ICP

A

pinkish due to erythrocytes, cloudy yellowish due to WBC

58
Q

transtentorial herniation

A

cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain are displaced downward resulting in pressure that affects blood flow and CFS, RAS and respiration

59
Q

uncal herniation

A

uncus of temporal lobe is displaced downward. creates pressure on CN III, posterior cerebral artery and RAS

60
Q

infratentorial (cerebellar or tonsillar) herniation

A

cerebral tonsils are pushed downward through the foramen magnum. this compresses the brainstem and vital centers leading to infarction and death

61
Q

largest category of primary malignant tumors

A

gliomas

62
Q

Pathophysiology of primary malignant brain tumors:

A

Usually no well-defined margins. Projections into adjacent tissue. Inflammation around tumor

Pharmacology (10 decks)

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