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CNA PRACTICE QUESTIONS > week 6 and 7 > Flashcards

week 6 and 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the smallest living unit of the body?

a) Tissue
b) Cell
c) Organ
d) Organism

A

b) Cell

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2
Q

Epithelial tissue is responsible for:

a) Connecting and supporting the structure of the body
b) Sending and receiving messages between the body and brain
c) Lining the inside and outside of the body
d) Making body parts move by contracting and relaxing

A

c) Lining the inside and outside of the body

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3
Q

Which of the following is a function of the integumentary system?

a) Produces red blood cells
b) Regulates body temperature
c) Aids in digestion
d) Pumps blood to the lungs

A

b) Regulates body temperature

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4
Q

Aging effects on the integumentary system include:

a) Increased elasticity
b) Increased sweat and oil gland production
c) Thinning of the skin
d) Increased temperature regulation

A

c) Thinning of the skin

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5
Q

The skeletal structure that includes the skull, spine, and rib cage is known as the:

a) Axial skeleton
b) Appendicular skeleton
c) Muscular skeleton
d) Central skeleton

A

a) Axial skeleton

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6
Q

Which of the following is a function of the muscular system?

a) Protects body from injury
b) Controls body elimination
c) Bears weight of the body
d) Produces red blood cells

A

b) Controls body elimination

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7
Q

Effects of aging on the musculoskeletal system include:

a) Increased bone mass
b) Decreased bone marrow
c) Faster muscle contraction
d) Increased muscle mass

A

b) Decreased bone marrow

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8
Q

The respiratory system includes which of the following structures?

a) Heart and blood vessels
b) Brain and spinal cord
c) Nose, nares, and sinuses
d) Stomach and intestines

A

c) Nose, nares, and sinuses

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9
Q

Which of the following is an effect of aging on the respiratory system?

a) Decreased muscle weakness of the diaphragm
b) Increased air exchange in the lungs
c) Decreased ability of lungs to expand and contract
d) Decreased risk of lung infections

A

c) Decreased ability of lungs to expand and contract

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10
Q

Which of the following structures is part of the cardiovascular system?

a) Kidneys
b) Lungs
c) Heart
d) Brain

A

c) Heart

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11
Q

Effects of aging on the cardiovascular system include:

a) Increased elasticity of heart and blood vessels
b) Decreased efficiency of valves in heart and vessels
c) Increased number of red and white blood cells
d) Increased circulation

A

b) Decreased efficiency of valves in heart and vessels

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12
Q

The central nervous system consists of:

a) Brain and spinal cord
b) Heart and lungs
c) Stomach and intestines
d) Kidneys and bladder

A

a) Brain and spinal cord

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13
Q

Which of the following is an effect of aging on the nervous system?

a) Increased number of neurons
b) Increased speed of the nervous system
c) Myelin sheath begins to waste away
d) Faster response and reaction time

A

c) Myelin sheath begins to waste away

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14
Q

The sensory organs include:

a) Kidneys and bladder
b) Stomach and intestines
c) Eyes, ears, tongue, skin, and nose
d) Heart and lungs

A

c) Eyes, ears, tongue, skin, and nose

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15
Q

Which gland is part of the endocrine system?

a) Kidneys
b) Thyroid
c) Lungs
d) Heart

A

Thyroid

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16
Q

Which of the following is a function of the endocrine system?

a) Each gland secretes a specific hormone
b) Digestion and absorption of nutrients
c) Removal of waste from the blood
d) Production of offspring

A

a) Each gland secretes a specific hormone

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17
Q

Which of the following is an effect of aging on the endocrine system?

a) Increased hormone levels
b) Slower metabolism
c) Increased risk of infection
d) Both b and c

A

d) Both b and c

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18
Q

The digestive system includes which of the following structures?

a) Heart and blood vessels
b) Kidneys and bladder
c) Mouth, stomach, intestines
d) Brain and spinal cord

A

c) Mouth, stomach, intestines

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19
Q

Which of the following is a function of the digestive system?

a) Regulates body temperature
b) Protects body against germs
c) Digestion, absorption of nutrients, and elimination of waste products
d) Produces red blood cells

A

c) Digestion, absorption of nutrients, and elimination of waste products

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20
Q

Effects of aging on the digestive system include:

a) Increased peristalsis
b) Decreased digestion time
c) Increased liver function
d) Increased absorption of nutrients

A

b) Decreased digestion time

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21
Q

The urinary system includes which of the following structures?

a) Heart and blood vessels
b) Lungs and trachea
c) Kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra
d) Brain and spinal cord

A

c) Kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra

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22
Q

Which of the following is a function of the urinary system?

a) Pumps blood to the lungs
b) Regulates body temperature
c) Removes waste from blood
d) Produces red blood cells

A

c) Removes waste from blood

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23
Q

Effects of aging on the urinary system include:

a) Increased effectiveness in removing waste
b) Increased elasticity of the bladder
c) Increased control of the urethral sphincter
d) Decreased bladder elasticity and responsiveness

A

d) Decreased bladder elasticity and responsiveness

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24
Q

Which of the following structures is part of the male reproductive system?

a) Ovaries
b) Uterus
c) Testes
d) Fallopian tubes

A

c) Testes

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25
Q

Which of the following is a function of the reproductive system?

a) Regulation of blood pressure
b) Digestion of nutrients
c) Production of offspring
d) Protection against germs

A

c) Production of offspring

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26
Q

Effects of aging on the reproductive system include:

a) Increase in hormone levels
b) Decreased sex drive
c) Decrease in hormone levels
d) Both b and c

A

d) Both b and c

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27
Q

Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs addresses safety?

a) Physiological needs
b) Love and belonging
c) Esteem
d) Safety

A

d) Safety

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28
Q

Which of the following is a basic physiological need according to Maslow’s hierarchy?

a) Respect and admiration
b) Friendship and intimacy
c) Food and water
d) Social, creative, emotional, and spiritual potential

A

c) Food and water

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29
Q

Which of the following describes self-actualization in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

a) Respect and admiration for self and others
b) Establishing good relationships
c) Achieving one’s full potential
d) Meeting basic human needs

A

c) Achieving one’s full potential

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30
Q

Which stage of Erikson’s development focuses on trust?

a) Toddler
b) Preschooler
c) Infancy
d) Adolescence

A

c) Infancy

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31
Q

Which of the following changes in the integumentary system is commonly seen in elderly residents?

a) Increased oil gland production
b) Thickening of the skin
c) Loss of elasticity
d) Increased number of melanocytes

A

c) Loss of elasticity

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32
Q

What is the function of the respiratory system that CNAs should monitor closely in residents?

a) Circulating blood throughout the body
b) Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs
c) Producing red blood cells
d) Sending and receiving messages between the body and brain

A

b) Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs

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33
Q

Aging can affect the cardiovascular system by:

a) Increasing the elasticity of blood vessels
b) Increasing the number of red and white blood cells
c) Decreasing the efficiency of heart valves
d) Increasing heart muscle mass

A

c) Decreasing the efficiency of heart valves

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34
Q

When providing care for a resident with decreased muscle mass due to aging, the CNA should:

a) Encourage the resident to engage in weight-bearing exercises
b) Provide a high-calorie diet to increase muscle mass
c) Avoid any physical activity to prevent injury
d) Only perform passive range of motion exercises

A

a) Encourage the resident to engage in weight-bearing exercises

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35
Q

A resident with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may show which of the following symptoms?

a) Persistent cough and frothy phlegm
b) Increased appetite and weight gain
c) Rapid healing of wounds
d) High blood pressure

A

a) Persistent cough and frothy phlegm

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36
Q

Which of the following is a common effect of aging on the nervous system?

a) Increased number of neurons
b) Faster response and reaction time
c) Myelin sheath begins to waste away
d) Increased speed of the nervous system

A

c) Myelin sheath begins to waste away

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37
Q

A resident diagnosed with diabetes mellitus needs to have their blood sugar levels monitored. Symptoms of hyperglycemia include:

a) Cool, clammy skin and shakiness
b) Increased thirst and fruity breath
c) Decreased urination and weight gain
d) Increased energy and rapid heartbeat

A

b) Increased thirst and fruity breath

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38
Q

In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the level that addresses safety includes:

a) Food and water
b) Respect and admiration
c) Establishing good relationships
d) Security of body, health, and resources

A

d) Security of body, health, and resources

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39
Q

When assisting a resident with osteoporosis, the CNA should:

a) Encourage high-impact exercises
b) Provide support during transfers to prevent falls
c) Avoid all physical activities
d) Restrict calcium intake

A

b) Provide support during transfers to prevent falls

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40
Q

Which of the following symptoms might indicate that a resident has a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

a) Clear urine with no odor
b) Cloudy urine with a strong odor
c) Increased energy and appetite
d) Lowered body temperature

A

b) Cloudy urine with a strong odor

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41
Q

Which of the following statements best describes holistic care for residents?

a) Focusing only on the physical health of the resident
b) Providing care that meets physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs
c) Administering medications as prescribed
d) Ensuring residents participate in all facility activities

A

b) Providing care that meets physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs

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42
Q

When a resident is experiencing symptoms of congestive heart failure, the CNA might observe:

a) Increased urine output
b) Lower extremity edema and dyspnea
c) Rapid weight loss
d) High energy levels

A

b) Lower extremity edema and dyspnea

43
Q

Effects of aging on the digestive system include:

a) Increased peristalsis
b) Faster digestion
c) Decreased liver function
d) Improved nutrient absorption

A

c) Decreased liver function

44
Q

When providing care for a resident with dementia, the CNA should:

a) Provide a structured and consistent routine
b) Allow the resident to make all decisions independently
c) Restrict social interactions
d) Focus only on physical care needs

A

a) Provide a structured and consistent routine

45
Q

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for heart disease?

a) Age
b) Family history
c) Smoking
d) Gender

A

c) Smoking

46
Q

Which developmental disorder involves problems with thinking, learning, and achieving developmental milestones?

a) Cerebral palsy
b) Epilepsy
c) Intellectual disability
d) Parkinson’s disease

A

c) Intellectual disability

47
Q

What condition is described as a movement disorder caused by brain damage during birth or pregnancy?

a) Parkinson’s disease
b) Epilepsy
c) Cerebral palsy
d) Alzheimer’s disease

A

c) Cerebral palsy

48
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of epilepsy?

a) Hallucinations
b) Seizures
c) Memory loss
d) Muscle rigidity

A

b) Seizures

49
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by the loss of cells that target which neurotransmitter?

a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Acetylcholine
d) GABA

A

b) Dopamine

50
Q

Which mental health condition involves concerns with mood, behavior, and/or thinking?

a) Intellectual disability
b) Cerebral palsy
c) Mental illness
d) Parkinson’s disease

A

c) Mental illness

51
Q

What type of dementia is characterized by plaques and tangles in the brain?

a) Vascular dementia
b) Lewy body dementia
c) Alzheimer’s dementia
d) Frontotemporal dementia

A

c) Alzheimer’s dementia

52
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing dementia?

a) Being under 65 years old
b) Low cholesterol levels
c) High blood pressure
d) No family history of dementia

A

c) High blood pressure

53
Q

What type of therapy involves using past experiences and memories to engage dementia patients?

a) Validation therapy
b) Behavioral therapy
c) Reminiscence therapy
d) Sensory stimulation therapy

A

c) Reminiscence therapy

54
Q

What stage of Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by difficulty in communication and need for around-the-clock care?

a) Mild (early stage)
b) Moderate (middle stage)
c) Severe (late stage)
d) None of the above

A

c) Severe (late stage)

55
Q

Which of the following is a common behavior associated with dementia?

a) Aggression
b) Improved memory
c) Decreased agitation
d) Enhanced problem-solving skills

A

a) Aggression

56
Q

Which of the following can help manage sundowning in dementia patients?

a) Increase sensory input
b) Limit fluid intake
c) Provide a sensory or engaging activity
d) Avoid naps

A

c) Provide a sensory or engaging activity

57
Q

What is the primary goal of therapeutic interventions like pet and music therapy for dementia patients?

a) Cure dementia
b) Improve memory function
c) Enhance quality of life
d) Reduce medication use

A

c) Enhance quality of life

58
Q

When assisting a resident with dementia during mealtime, you should:

a) Offer sweets last
b) Use a large metal spoon
c) Maintain a calm demeanor
d) Rush the resident to eat quickly

A

c) Maintain a calm demeanor

59
Q

What is a nonverbal cue that may indicate a resident with dementia is in pain?

a) Increased verbal communication
b) Smiling frequently
c) Facial grimacing
d) Singing

A

c) Facial grimacing

60
Q

To prevent pressure injuries in immobile residents, a CNA should:

a) Turn the resident every 4 hours
b) Position the resident with the head of bed elevated more than 30 degrees
c) Use pillows to keep pressure off bony prominences
d) Avoid using positioning devices

A

c) Use pillows to keep pressure off bony prominences

61
Q

Stage II pressure injuries involve damage to:

a) Epidermis and possibly dermis
b) Subcutaneous tissue
c) Muscle and bone
d) Only the epidermis

A

a) Epidermis and possibly dermis

62
Q

Which of the following residents is at the greatest risk for developing pressure injuries?

a) A resident who is immobile
b) A resident who is ambulatory
c) A resident with a healthy diet
d) A resident with high activity levels

A

a) A resident who is immobile

63
Q

What should a CNA do first when noticing a red, rashy area with white exudate under a resident’s breast?

a) Ignore it
b) Report findings to the nurse
c) Apply lotion
d) Cover it with a bandage

A

b) Report findings to the nurse

64
Q

How often should a resident’s skin be inspected to prevent breakdown?

a) Once a week
b) Once a month
c) Twice daily
d) Every other day

A

c) Twice daily

65
Q

Which of the following interventions can help reduce the microclimate for a resident at risk of skin breakdown?

a) Covering the resident with multiple blankets
b) Repositioning residents frequently
c) Using high-air-loss mattresses only occasionally
d) Avoiding reporting fevers

A

b) Repositioning residents frequently

66
Q

When providing foot care for a diabetic resident, a CNA should:

a) Trim toenails
b) Apply lotion between the toes
c) Monitor skin closely
d) Use hot water

A

c) Monitor skin closely

67
Q

When assisting with nail care, a CNA should:

a) Trim the nails of diabetic residents
b) File nails in multiple directions
c) Soak and wash hands in a basin
d) Ignore cognitive disabilities

A

c) Soak and wash hands in a basin

68
Q

What type of catheter remains in the bladder for an extended period and is held in place by an inflated balloon?

a) Straight catheter
b) Intermittent catheter
c) Indwelling catheter
d) Suprapubic catheter

A

c) Indwelling catheter

69
Q

A catheter inserted into the bladder through an opening in the abdomen is called a:

a) Straight catheter
b) Suprapubic catheter
c) Urostomy
d) Intermittent catheter

A

b) Suprapubic catheter

70
Q

The CNA’s responsibilities when caring for a resident on oxygen therapy include:

a) Ensuring the oxygen flow rate is correct
b) Checking skin integrity behind the ears
c) Making sure the resident has enough oxygen for activities
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

71
Q

When washing a resident’s hair during a tub bath, a CNA should:

a) Use cold water
b) Cover the resident’s eyes with a washcloth
c) Ignore the resident’s preferences
d) Use a trough or rinseless system

A

b) Cover the resident’s eyes with a washcloth

72
Q

How often should incontinence care be performed to prevent skin breakdown?

a) Every 4 hours
b) Every 6 hours
c) At least every 2 hours
d) Once a shift

A

c) At least every 2 hours

73
Q

When providing nail care, which tool is used to clean underneath the nail?

a) Emery board
b) Nail clipper
c) Orange stick
d) Razor

A

c) Orange stick

74
Q

What should a CNA do if the humidification bottle on a resident’s oxygen setup is not bubbling?

a) Turn off the oxygen
b) Increase the oxygen flow rate
c) Report to the nurse that the oxygen is not flowing properly
d) Ignore it and continue with other tasks

A

c) Report to the nurse that the oxygen is not flowing properly

75
Q

Which type of therapy involves acknowledging and validating the feelings and emotions of residents with dementia?

a) Reminiscence therapy
b) Validation therapy
c) Sensory stimulation therapy
d) Behavioral therapy

A

b) Validation therapy

76
Q

The most common type of dementia is:

A) Vascular dementia
B) Lewy body dementia
C) Frontotemporal dementia
D) Alzheimer’s disease

A

Answer: D) Alzheimer’s disease

77
Q

The number one risk factor for developing dementia is:

A) Genetics
B) Lifestyle
C) Age
D) Diet

A

Answer: C) Age

78
Q

.How can a nursing assistant help prevent skin breakdown in residents?

A) Encouraging fluid intake, repositioning every 2 hours, and providing protein-rich foods to promote healing.
B) Limiting fluid intake, keeping residents in the same position, and avoiding protein-rich foods.
C) Encouraging bed rest, reducing food intake, and increasing sugar consumption.
D) Providing only carbohydrate-rich foods and repositioning residents once a day.

A

Answer: A) Encouraging fluid intake, repositioning every 2 hours, and providing protein-rich foods to promote healing.

79
Q

What does a Stage One pressure injury look like?

A) Open wound with exposed muscle.
B) Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
C) Blister filled with clear fluid.
D) Deep crater extending into muscle and bone.

A

Answer: B) Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.

80
Q

What does a Stage Two pressure injury look like?

A) Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
B) Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis, presenting as a shallow open ulcer or a blister filled with clear fluid.
C) Open wound with exposed muscle.
D) Deep crater extending into muscle and bone.

A

Answer: B) Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis, presenting as a shallow open ulcer or a blister filled with clear fluid.

81
Q

What does a Stage Three pressure injury look like?

A) Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
B) Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis.
C) Full-thickness skin loss, exposing fat tissue, possibly with some slough or eschar, but not muscle, tendon, or bone.
D) Deep crater extending into muscle and bone.

A

Answer: C) Full-thickness skin loss, exposing fat tissue, possibly with some slough or eschar, but not muscle, tendon, or bone.

82
Q

What does a Stage Four pressure injury look like?

A) Intact skin with non-blanchable redness.
B) Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis.
C) Full-thickness skin loss, exposing fat tissue, possibly with some slough or eschar, but not muscle, tendon, or bone.
D) Full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed bone, muscle, or tendon, often with slough or eschar.

A

Answer: D) Full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed bone, muscle, or tendon, often with slough or eschar.

83
Q

When assisting a patient with foot care, how long should you allow the feet to soak?

A) 1-2 minutes
B) 2-5 minutes
C) 5-10 minutes
D) 10-15 minutes

A

Answer: B) 2-5 minutes

84
Q

When you see a red, rashy area with red-white exudate under the breast, you should:

A) Ignore it and continue with your duties.
B) Clean the area and report your findings to the nurse.
C) Apply lotion to the area.
D) Cover the area with a bandage and wait to see if it improves.

A

Answer: B) Clean the area and report your findings to the nurse.

85
Q

It’s time to bathe a resident with Alzheimer’s who has visitors over. What is the appropriate action?

A) Bathe the resident with the visitors present.
B) Postpone the bath until the visitors leave.
C) Ask the visitors to step outside while you complete the task.
D) Allow the visitors to assist with the bath.

A

Answer: C) Ask the visitors to step outside while you complete the task.

86
Q

A newly admitted resident has dirty fingernails. What should you do first?

A) Cut the nails immediately.
B) Soak the nails.
C) Apply lotion to the nails.
D) Use a nail file to clean the nails.

A

Answer: B) Soak the nails.

87
Q

What is the first sign a pressure injury is developing?

A) Skin feels hot to the touch.
B) Change of color or discoloration.
C) Presence of an open sore.
D) Blister formation.

A

Answer: B) Change of color or discoloration.

88
Q

As a CNA, what does the term “battery” refer to?

A) Failing to provide necessary care to a resident.
B) Physically touching a resident without their consent.
C) Verbally threatening a resident.
D) Neglecting a resident’s emotional needs.

A

Answer: B) Physically touching a resident without their consent.

89
Q

You have called the nurse to your resident’s room because he is complaining of chest pain, is diaphoretic, anxious, and holding his left arm. He is probably experiencing:

A) A stroke
B) A panic attack
C) Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
D) Heartburn

A

Answer: C) Myocardial infarction (heart attack)

90
Q

What is a cerebral vascular accident (CVA)?

A) A heart attack.
B) A severe allergic reaction.
C) A stroke, caused by a disruption of blood flow to the brain.
D) A respiratory infection.

A

Answer: C) A stroke, caused by a disruption of blood flow to the brain.

91
Q

What does diaphoretic mean?

A) Experiencing chest pain.
B) Excessive sweating, often associated with a medical condition or symptom.
C) Feeling dizzy or lightheaded.
D) Having difficulty breathing.

A

Answer: B) Excessive sweating, often associated with a medical condition or symptom.

92
Q

What is a common sign of a cerebral vascular accident (CVA or stroke)?

A) Bilateral leg pain.
B) One-sided weakness.
C) Sudden weight loss.
D) Persistent cough.

A

Answer: B) One-sided weakness.

93
Q

Morris is one of your residents you are taking care of today. You notice that he is shaking, his skin is cool to the touch, and he appears anxious and confused when you ask him if he’s doing okay. He may be experiencing:

A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Dehydration

A

Answer: C) Hypoglycemia

94
Q

jack is one of your residents you are taking care of today. You notice that he is excessively thirsty, frequently urinating, has a fruity breath odor, and appears drowsy. He may be experiencing:

A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Dehydration

A

Answer: C) Hyperglycemia

95
Q

one of your residents you are taking care of today. You notice that he has a severe headache, blurred vision, and feels dizzy. When you take his blood pressure, it is significantly higher than normal. He may be experiencing:

A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Dehydration

A

Answer: B) Hypertension

96
Q

Erik Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development
1: Trust vs. Mistrust
Age: Infancy (0-1 year)

A

Key Concept: Establishing trust in caregivers and the world.
Success: Trust and security.
Failure: Mistrust and fear.

97
Q

Erik Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development
2: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
Age: Early Childhood (1-3 years)

A

Key Concept: Developing a sense of personal control over physical skills and a sense of independence.
Success: Autonomy and confidence.
Failure: Shame and doubt.

98
Q

Flashcard 3: Initiative vs. Guilt
Age: Preschool (3-6 years)

A

Key Concept: Beginning to assert control and power over the environment.
Success: Initiative and leadership.
Failure: Guilt and inhibition.

99
Q

Erik Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development
Flashcard 4: Industry vs. Inferiority
Age: School Age (6-12 years)

A

Key Concept: Coping with new social and academic demands.
Success: Industry and competence.
Failure: Inferiority and lack of confidence.

100
Q

Erik Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development
Flashcard 5: Identity vs. Role Confusion
Age: Adolescence (12-18 years)

A

Key Concept: Developing a sense of self and personal identity.
Success: Strong sense of identity.
Failure: Role confusion and weak sense of self.

101
Q

Erik Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development
Flashcard 6: Intimacy vs. Isolation
Age: Young Adulthood (18-40 years)

A

Key Concept: Forming intimate, loving relationships with other people.
Success: Strong relationships.
Failure: Loneliness and isolation.

102
Q

Erik Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development
Flashcard 7: Generativity vs. Stagnation
Age: Middle Adulthood (40-65 years)

A

Key Concept: Contributing to society and helping to guide future generations.
Success: Generativity and accomplishment.
Failure: Stagnation and self-absorption.

103
Q

Erik Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development
Flashcard 8: Integrity vs. Despair
Age: Late Adulthood (65 years and older)

A

Key Concept: Reflecting on life and feeling a sense of fulfillment.
Success: Integrity and wisdom.
Failure: Despair and regret.

104
Q

Edema is related to:

A) Diabetes
B) Hypertension
C) Heart failure
D) Asthma

A

Answer: C) Heart failure

CNA PRACTICE QUESTIONS (7 decks)

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