Unlit 1 Flashcards by Mariela Alvarez

A nursing assistant who works for an assisted-living facility can expect to

a) have different resident assignments daily.
b) take frequent vital signs.
c) spend most of the shift giving one-on-one care.
d) help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.

help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.

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Mr. Krieger has been able to take care of himself at home, but he has been forgetting to take his medications and occasionally wanders away and becomes lost. Because he lives alone, his family is concerned for him and wants to ensure that he is safe.
The BEST option for Mr. Krieger would be to
a) hire a nursing assistant from a hospice agency.
b) move into a community-based residential facility.
c) receive daily skilled nursing care.
d) have a home healthcare agency set up his medications for him.

move into a community-based residential facility.

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In the state of California, a nurse aide training course must include
a) 60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
b) 60 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical.
c) 75 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
d) 100 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical

60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.

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An example of battery might be
a) not repositioning a resident according to the care plan.
b) telling a resident that if she refuses her meal, you will call her daughter.
c) giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one.
d) leaving the facility before your relief arrives.

giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one.

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Negligence occurs when a caregiver
a) does not follow the standards of her job.
b) limits the resident’s ability to move throughout the facility.
c) does not provide care and the resident then suffers
harm.
d) physically touches the resident without permission.

does not follow the standards of her job.

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You notice that one of the residents has spilled her water onto the dining room floor. You are still clearing dishes from the room and documenting the residents’ oral intake. You should
a) mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables.
b) leave a towel on the floor to soak up the water.
c) mop up the floor after you have finished clearing tables.
d) ask housekeeping to take care of the spill.

mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables.

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Allergic contact dermatitis after contact with latex usually is seen within
a) 15-30 minutes.
b) 2-4 hours.
c) 6-48 hours.
d) 48-72 hours.

6-48 hours.

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You are caring for a resident who wears a hearing aid in his left ear and is deaf in his right ear. When caring for him, you should
a) raise your voice when you speak into his right ear.
b) turn the volume on the hearing aid all the way up.
c) use a picture board for communication.
d) ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

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You knock and enter Faith’s room to assist her to supper. You discover Faith and her daughter arguing about finances and the sale of Faith’s house. The argument becomes louder and Faith begins to cry. The first action you should take is to
a) assist Faith to a safe area.
b) ensure that you are safe.
c) alert the nurse.
d) ask the daughter to leave the room.

ensure that you are safe.

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When repositioning a resident in bed, have him place his hands
・）+）
a) above his head.
b) along his sides.
c) across his stomach or chest.
d) on his hips or thighs.

across his stomach or chest

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You care for a resident who needs oxygen because of a respiratory infection. The BEST position for the resident while she is in bed is
a) Fowler’s.
b) side-lying.
c) prone.
d) tripod.

Fowler’s

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Most staph infections occur

a) on the skin.
b) in the digestive tract.
c) in the nose and respiratory tract.
d) in the eyes.

On the skin

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Standard precautions should be practiced on
a) only people who look sick.
b) only people who request it.
c) every person you care for.
d) only people who have a bloodborne illness.

every person you care for.

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The nurse informs you that one of your residents has influenza. Before assisting the resident with her shower, you should put on a(n)
a) surgical mask before entering the room.
b) particulate respirator before entering the room.
c) isolation gown and gloves immediately after entering the room.
d) N95 mask after entering the room.

surgical mask before entering the room.

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Strategies to prevent falls can include
a) keeping the bed in the lowest position and locked.
b) encouraging visits from family members.
c) keeping the call light within the resident’s reach.
d) all of the above.

all of the above.

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Thomas has a wrist restraint to prevent him from pulling out his IV. He complains to you that his hand is tingling. You should
a) loosen the restraint and check him in 15 minutes.
b) report his complaint to the nurse immediately.
c) do range-of-motion exercises.
d) massage the hand to reduce discomfort.

report his complaint to the nurse immediately.

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Ensuring that a restraint is released every 2 hours is the responsibility of the
a) resident’s nurse.
b) charge nurse.
c) nursing assistant.
d) resident’s doctor.

nursing assistant.

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Syncope is the same as
a) a seizure.
b) a heart attack.
c) fainting.
d) bleeding.

Fainting

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Annabelle is a resident with dementia who has been yelling and hitting staff when they try to help her get dressed. You are worried that she might hurt someone. To prevent an injury, you should
a) apply a wrist restraint while giving care.
b) work slowly and quietly.
c) provide care only when she asks.
d) put all the bed’s side rails up.

work slowly and quietly

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Restraints used while a resident is in bed should be fastened with a
a) quick-release knot to the side rails.
b) quick-release knot to the bed frame.
c) safety knot to the bed frame.
d) safety knot to the side rails.

quick-release knot to the bed frame.

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Assisting the resident with range-of-motion exercises can help
a) prevent contractures.
b) improve comfort.
c) reduce the risk of atrophy.
d) do all of the above.

Do all of the above

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The first step in a resident’s physical therapy is
a) an evaluation by the nurse.
b) the therapist determines the resident’s goals.
c) an evaluation by the physical therapist.
d) the therapist designs a plan of care.

an evaluation by the physical therapist.

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The physical therapist works mostly on
a) swallowing difficulties.
b) restorative efforts.
c) fine motor skills.
d) gross motor skills

Gross motor skills

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You notice that one of your residents is having difficulties at mealtime. She has trouble swallowing her fluids and coughs with each bite. The person who could BEST help her would be the
a) occupational therapist.
b) restorative aide.
c) speech language pathologist.
d) physical therapist.

Speech language pathologist

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Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a Certified Nurse Assistant (CNA) in California? A) Prescribing medication B) Developing care plans C) Monitoring vital signs D) Performing surgery

C) Monitoring vital signs

Which organization accredits and surveys acute care settings every three years? A) State Department of Health B) Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) C) Joint Commission D) American Nurses Association (ANA)

C) Joint Commission

Slide 4: Work Settings for the Nursing Assistant - Nursing Assistant Responsibilities Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a nursing assistant in an acute care setting? A) Measuring intake and output B) Assisting with ambulation C) Diagnosing illnesses D) Bathing and repositioning residents

C) Diagnosing illnesses

Which trait is preferred for nursing assistants working in acute care settings? A) Inflexibility B) Enjoying routine and predictable tasks C) Ability to work with changing technology D) Preference for solitary work

C) Ability to work with changing technology

Nursing assistant responsibilities in sub-acute care facilities include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Personal needs and ambulation B) Strengthening exercises C) Performing surgeries D) Supporting and encouraging resident rehabilitation

C) Performing surgeries

Long-term care facilities are governed by: A) Joint Commission B) OBRA of 1987 C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) D) American Medical Association (AMA)

B) OBRA of 1987

Which of the following is a responsibility of a nursing assistant in long-term care facilities? A) Conducting medical research B) Assisting with eating C) Performing diagnostic tests D) Prescribing medication

B) Assisting with eating

Assisted-living facilities primarily provide: A) 24-hour skilled nursing care B) Basic help with bathing, cooking, and cleaning C) Intensive medical treatments D) Hospice care

Answer: B) Basic help with bathing, cooking, and cleaning

Who is NOT typically considered a member of the healthcare team? A) Social workers B) Physicians C) Legal advisors D) Nutritionists

C) Legal advisors

The scope of practice for a nursing assistant includes: A) Developing and changing resident care plans B) Providing basic personal care and emotional support C) Delivering medications D) Inserting IVs

B) Providing basic personal care and emotional support

Why is it important for nursing assistants to follow the chain of command? A) It increases the workload of the supervisor B) It helps reduce medical errors and confusion C) It allows nursing assistants to delegate tasks D) It encourages personal decision-making without supervision

B) It helps reduce medical errors and confusion

What should a nursing assistant do if asked to perform a task outside their scope of practice? A) Ignore the request B) Accept the task to avoid conflict C) Refuse the task professionally and ask for remediation if necessary D) Complete the task without informing the supervisor

C) Refuse the task professionally and ask for remediation if necessary

When repositioning a resident from a supine to a side-lying position, which action should you take first? A) Lower the head of the bed B) Raise the side rail on the opposite side C) Ask the resident to hold the side rail D) Place a pillow under the resident's head

B) Raise the side rail on the opposite side

When transferring a resident, you should: A) Lift the resident using your back muscles B) Keep your feet close together to maintain balance C) Use a gait belt if necessary D) Avoid communicating with the resident to keep them calm

C) Use a gait belt if necessary

What is the correct order to don (put on) personal protective equipment (PPE)? A) Gloves, mask, gown, goggles B) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles C) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves D) Goggles, gown, mask, gloves

C) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves

What is the correct order to don (put on) personal protective equipment (PPE) for droplet precautions? A) Gloves, gown, mask, goggles B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves C) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles D) Gown, goggles, mask, gloves

B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves

What is the correct order to don (put on) personal protective equipment (PPE) for contact precautions? A) Gloves, mask, gown, goggles B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves C) Gown, gloves D) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles

C) Gown, gloves

In a long-term care facility, who is primarily responsible for ensuring the resident's level of mobility is maintained and improved through consistent range of motion (ROM) exercises, and what is the primary goal of these exercises? A) The physical therapist; to develop a personalized exercise plan for each resident B) The certified nurse assistant (CNA); to prevent muscle atrophy and maintain joint flexibility C) The registered nurse (RN); to monitor overall health and implement care plans D) The resident's primary care physician; to prescribe physical therapy sessions

B) The certified nurse assistant (CNA); to prevent muscle atrophy and maintain joint flexibility

Following a fall, within the first 24-72 hours, what is the minimum frequency at which a resident’s vital signs should be monitored to promptly identify potential complications, and why is this frequency important? A) Once every 8 hours; to ensure gradual recovery without overwhelming the resident B) Once every 24 hours; to maintain a regular check without causing undue stress C) Once every 4 hours; to quickly detect any signs of internal injury or deterioration D) Once every 12 hours; to balance thorough monitoring with adequate rest periods for the resident

C) Once every 4 hours; to quickly detect any signs of internal injury or deterioration

Which of the following is an example of a subjective statement from a resident? A) "My temperature is 98.6 degrees." B) "I have a rash on my arm." C) "I feel dizzy and nauseous." D) "My blood pressure is 120/80."

C) "I feel dizzy and nauseous."

In the context of resident care, which of the following statements exemplifies a subjective observation that a CNA should document and report, and why is it crucial to consider subjective observations in resident care? A) "My blood pressure reading was 130/85 this morning." because it provides quantitative data. B) "I noticed a red spot on my skin today." because it helps in identifying potential skin conditions. C) "I feel an intense, sharp pain in my lower abdomen that gets worse after meals." because it provides insight into the resident’s personal experience and potential underlying conditions. D) "My heart rate is consistently at 70 beats per minute." because it indicates stable cardiovascular function.

C) "I feel an intense, sharp pain in my lower abdomen that gets worse after meals." because it provides insight into the resident’s personal experience and potential underlying conditions.

Which of the following best describes the primary goals and characteristics of an acute care setting for nursing assistants? A) Provides long-term care for chronic illnesses, aims to maintain resident stability over time, and is less costly than other care settings B) Provides short-term care for immediate illnesses or injuries, aims to address immediate healthcare needs and stabilize conditions, and is typically the most expensive care setting C) Offers end-of-life care, focuses on palliative treatment, and is funded primarily by hospice organizations D) Offers routine check-ups and preventive care, focuses on maintaining overall health, and is typically surveyed annually by the state health department

B) Provides short-term care for immediate illnesses or injuries, aims to address immediate healthcare needs and stabilize conditions, and is typically the most expensive care setting

Regarding the accreditation and surveying of acute care settings, which of the following statements is correct? A) Most acute care settings are accredited by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) and are surveyed annually B) Most acute care settings are accredited by the Joint Commission and are surveyed at least once every 3 years C) Acute care settings do not require accreditation but are surveyed every 5 years by state health departments D) Acute care settings are accredited by the American Medical Association (AMA) and are surveyed biennially

B) Most acute care settings are accredited by the Joint Commission and are surveyed at least once every 3 years

Which combination of responsibilities is crucial for a nursing assistant working in an acute care setting to ensure both immediate and ongoing patient needs are met, and why? A) Administering medications, diagnosing illnesses, and performing surgeries; because these tasks address critical health interventions. B) Measuring intake and output, bathing and repositioning residents, and caring for residents before and after surgery; because these tasks ensure comprehensive care and patient comfort. C) Scheduling follow-up appointments, providing nutritional advice, and conducting physical therapy; because these tasks are essential for long-term recovery and rehabilitation. D) Vital signs monitoring, ambulation assistance, and bathing and repositioning residents; because these tasks are foundational to patient safety, hygiene, and mobility in an acute care setting.

D) Vital signs monitoring, ambulation assistance, and bathing and repositioning residents; because these tasks are foundational to patient safety, hygiene, and mobility in an acute care setting.

When caring for a resident before and after surgery in an acute care setting, which combination of tasks should a nursing assistant prioritize to prevent complications and promote recovery, and why? A) Ambulation, measuring intake and output, and repositioning; because these tasks help prevent postoperative complications such as blood clots, dehydration, and pressure ulcers. B) Administering medications, providing emotional support, and diagnosing conditions; because these tasks address the resident's immediate medical and psychological needs. C) Performing diagnostic tests, preparing meals, and scheduling physical therapy sessions; because these tasks ensure comprehensive postoperative care. D) Scheduling follow-up appointments, providing discharge instructions, and offering financial advice; because these tasks help prepare the resident for a smooth transition home.

A) Ambulation, measuring intake and output, and repositioning; because these tasks help prevent postoperative complications such as blood clots, dehydration, and pressure ulcers.

Why is it essential for a nursing assistant to accurately measure and document a resident's intake and output in an acute care setting, and what could be the consequences of errors in this documentation? A) It is essential to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance; errors could lead to inaccurate treatment plans and potential worsening of the resident's condition. B) It helps track the resident's nutritional status; errors could lead to malnutrition and weight loss. C) It assists in monitoring the resident's recovery progress; errors could result in delayed discharge and increased hospital stay. D) It is necessary for billing purposes; errors could lead to financial discrepancies and insurance issues.

A) It is essential to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance; errors could lead to inaccurate treatment plans and potential worsening of the resident's condition.

What distinguishes sub-acute care facilities from acute care facilities, and what is their primary focus? A) Sub-acute care facilities provide end-of-life care and are less regulated; their primary focus is on palliative treatment. B) Sub-acute care facilities offer outpatient services and short-term care; their primary focus is on emergency interventions. C) Sub-acute care facilities treat residents requiring 24-hour skilled nursing care but are more medically stable; their primary focus is on patient education to prevent future hospitalizations and return to prior function. D) Sub-acute care facilities provide chronic disease management and are more expensive; their primary focus is on long-term stabilization and continuous treatment.

C) Sub-acute care facilities treat residents requiring 24-hour skilled nursing care but are more medically stable; their primary focus is on patient education to prevent future hospitalizations and return to prior function.

Which regulatory bodies govern sub-acute care facilities, and how does the location of the unit affect this governance? A) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) regardless of location. B) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the Joint Commission if the unit is located in a hospital and by state regulators if the unit is housed within a long-term care (LTC) facility. C) Sub-acute care facilities are governed exclusively by state regulators, irrespective of their location. D) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the American Medical Association (AMA) if located in a hospital and by federal regulators if within an LTC facility.

B) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the Joint Commission if the unit is located in a hospital and by state regulators if the unit is housed within a long-term care (LTC) facility.

What is the key goal of patient education in sub-acute care facilities, and why is this important for residents? A) To ensure residents understand their billing statements; this prevents financial disputes and ensures timely payments. B) To provide residents with knowledge about their medications; this ensures compliance and proper medication administration. C) To prevent future hospitalizations and help residents return to their prior level of function; this reduces healthcare costs and promotes independence. D) To educate residents about the facility’s policies and procedures; this enhances their understanding of the care environment.

C) To prevent future hospitalizations and help residents return to their prior level of function; this reduces healthcare costs and promotes independence.

Why might a resident be transferred from an acute care facility to a sub-acute care facility, and what are the expected outcomes of such a transfer? A) A resident might be transferred for specialized surgical procedures; the expected outcome is immediate recovery and discharge. B) A resident might be transferred to receive long-term palliative care; the expected outcome is enhanced comfort and end-of-life care. C) A resident might be transferred because they require less intensive monitoring and more focused rehabilitation; the expected outcome is improved function and reduced risk of rehospitalization. D) A resident might be transferred for outpatient diagnostic testing; the expected outcome is quick results and a return to the acute care facility.

C) A resident might be transferred because they require less intensive monitoring and more focused rehabilitation; the expected outcome is improved function and reduced risk of rehospitalization.

Which of the following best describes the primary goal and regulatory framework of long-term care facilities, commonly known as nursing homes or skilled nursing facilities (SNFs)? A) To provide emergency care and acute treatment; governed by the Joint Commission and funded primarily by private insurance. B) To offer short-term rehabilitation and outpatient services; regulated exclusively by state health departments and funded by Medicare. C) To provide skilled nursing care for an extended period of time; governed by the federal legislation OBRA of 1987 and regulated by the state. D) To ensure palliative care and end-of-life support; surveyed biannually and funded by private donations and state grants.

C) To provide skilled nursing care for an extended period of time; governed by the federal legislation OBRA of 1987 and regulated by the state.

Which of the following is a key requirement for long-term care facilities under the federal legislation OBRA of 1987, and why is this requirement important? A) Facilities must conduct daily health assessments; this ensures continuous monitoring of resident health. B) Facilities must be surveyed at least every year; this ensures compliance with federal and state regulations. C) Facilities must employ only board-certified physicians; this ensures high medical standards. D) Facilities must provide transportation services; this ensures residents can attend external medical appointments.

B) Facilities must be surveyed at least every year; this ensures compliance with federal and state regulations.

What are the primary funding sources for long-term care facilities, and how do these sources impact the availability and quality of care provided? A) State grants and private donations; these ensure a limited but consistent funding stream. B) Medicaid, Medicare, insurance, and private funds; these provide a diverse funding base, enabling comprehensive and sustained care. C) Out-of-pocket payments and charitable contributions; these restrict the facility's ability to provide extensive care. D) Federal subsidies and local taxes; these ensure funding but may limit the variety of services offered.

B) Medicaid, Medicare, insurance, and private funds; these provide a diverse funding base, enabling comprehensive and sustained care.

How do state regulations complement federal laws in the governance of long-term care facilities, and what is the outcome of this regulatory structure? A) State regulations often replace federal laws, leading to varied standards of care. B) State regulations enhance federal laws by enforcing them and addressing specific local needs, leading to consistent and high-quality care. C) State regulations are less stringent than federal laws, resulting in lower compliance rates. D) State regulations primarily focus on administrative tasks, with minimal impact on resident care quality.

B) State regulations enhance federal laws by enforcing them and addressing specific local needs, leading to consistent and high-quality care.

Which of the following tasks falls within the scope of practice for a nursing assistant and why is it critical for the assistant to adhere to these guidelines? A) Developing a resident's care plan; because it ensures personalized care. B) Providing basic personal care; because it directly impacts the resident’s daily comfort and hygiene. C) Delivering medications; because it ensures timely treatment. D) Teaching residents new medical procedures; because it empowers residents with knowledge.

B) Providing basic personal care; because it directly impacts the resident’s daily comfort and hygiene.

Which of the following tasks is outside the scope of practice for a nursing assistant, and what could be the consequence of performing such a task? A) Assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs); this could lead to improved resident independence. B) Providing emotional support to residents; this helps in reducing resident anxiety. C) Inserting IVs or catheters; this could result in serious medical complications and legal consequences. D) Offering dementia care; this enhances the quality of life for residents with cognitive impairments.

C) Inserting IVs or catheters; this could result in serious medical complications and legal consequences.

Why is it important for a nursing assistant to understand their scope of practice, and how does this knowledge affect their professional conduct? A) It allows them to take on additional medical tasks; this leads to faster resident recovery. B) It ensures they perform only approved duties; this reduces the risk of harm and enhances patient safety. C) It gives them the authority to delegate tasks to other staff; this improves workflow efficiency. D) It permits them to make independent medical decisions; this ensures timely interventions.

B) It ensures they perform only approved duties; this reduces the risk of harm and enhances patient safety.

Which of the following is a responsibility included in the scope of practice for a nursing assistant, and what is its significance in resident care? A) Teaching new medical techniques; it helps in resident education. B) Offering emotional support to residents and families; it helps in building trust and providing holistic care. C) Developing and changing care plans; it ensures the care plan remains updated. D) Delivering medications; it ensures proper medication administration.

B) Offering emotional support to residents and families; it helps in building trust and providing holistic care.

Which activity should a nursing assistant avoid to remain within their scope of practice, and what is the correct course of action if asked to perform such a task? A) Assisting with personal hygiene; they should perform this task as it is within their scope. B) Providing restorative care; they should perform this task as it is within their scope. C) Delegating tasks to other staff; they should refuse and explain that delegation is outside their scope. D) Assisting with ambulation; they should perform this task as it is within their scope.

C) Delegating tasks to other staff; they should refuse and explain that delegation is outside their scope.

Scope of Practice for the Nursing Assistant INCLUDES

INCLUDES – Providing basic personal care – Offering emotional support to residents and families – Providing dementia care – Assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs) – Providing restorative care

Scope of Practice for the Nursing Assistant DOES NOT INCLUDE

DOES NOT INCLUDE – Delivering medications – Putting in catheters or IVs – Developing or changing a resident’s care plan – Teaching – Delegation

What is the correct order of the chain of command in a healthcare facility, starting from the highest level of authority? A) Nursing Assistant, Staff Nurse, Unit Manager, Director of Nursing, Administration B) Administration, Director of Nursing, Unit Manager, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant C) Director of Nursing, Administration, Unit Manager, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant D) Administration, Unit Manager, Director of Nursing, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant

B) Administration, Director of Nursing, Unit Manager, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant

In the event of a medical emergency, to whom should a Nursing Assistant report the situation first according to the chain of command? A) Administration B) Director of Nursing C) Unit Manager D) Staff Nurse

D) Staff Nurse

What is Title 22, and what areas does it govern within the healthcare system? A) A federal regulation that oversees hospital funding; it governs healthcare facilities and nurse practitioner programs. B) A set of state laws that govern healthcare facilities, nurse aide training programs, and minimum standards of care for long-term care residents. C) An international treaty on healthcare practices; it governs global health initiatives and international nurse exchanges. D) A state law focused on emergency medical services; it governs ambulance services and emergency care protocols.

B) A set of state laws that govern healthcare facilities, nurse aide training programs, and minimum standards of care for long-term care residents.

Which of the following is a requirement for nursing assistant candidates under Title 22? A) Completing a minimum of 40 hours of community service. B) Passing both a written and skill exam to be certified. C) Obtaining a bachelor's degree in nursing. D) Completing an international internship program.

B) Passing both a written and skill exam to be certified.

Why must nursing assistant candidates have a criminal record clearance at the time of certification and every two years thereafter under Title 22? A) To ensure they are eligible for higher wages. B) To comply with federal guidelines for workplace safety. C) To maintain the safety and well-being of long-term care residents by ensuring that individuals with a criminal background are not in caregiving roles. D) To allow for transferability of their certification to other states

C) To maintain the safety and well-being of long-term care residents by ensuring that individuals with a criminal background are not in caregiving roles.

What is the significance of Title 22 in setting minimum standards of care for long-term care residents, and how does it impact the quality of care provided? A) It provides guidelines for nurse salaries; it ensures competitive compensation. B) It establishes the minimum standards of care that must be met, thereby ensuring a consistent and high level of care for long-term care residents. C) It offers financial incentives to long-term care facilities; it improves their profitability. D) It dictates the architectural design of care facilities; it ensures a comfortable living environment.

B) It establishes the minimum standards of care that must be met, thereby ensuring a consistent and high level of care for long-term care residents.

How does Title 22 ensure the competency of nursing assistants entering the workforce? A) By requiring ongoing education and annual exams. B) By mandating that nursing assistants participate in research studies. C) By requiring completion of an approved training program and successful passage of both written and skill exams. D) By setting a minimum age requirement for nursing assistant candidates.

C) By requiring completion of an approved training program and successful passage of both written and skill exams.

What is the minimum number of training hours required by federal law for nursing assistant training programs? A) 50 hours B) 75 hours C) 100 hours D) 125 hours

Answer: B) 75 hours

How does the state of California's requirement for nursing assistant training hours compare to the federal minimum? A) California requires the same minimum number of hours as the federal law. B) California requires more hours than the federal minimum, with at least 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training. C) California requires fewer hours than the federal minimum. D) California has no specific requirements beyond the federal minimum.

B) California requires more hours than the federal minimum, with at least 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training.

Why is it significant that certification allows nurse aides to work in federally funded facilities? A) It provides nurse aides with higher salaries. B) It ensures that nurse aides can work in a broader range of healthcare settings, including those that receive federal funding, which often have stringent quality and compliance standards. C) It guarantees job placement upon certification. D) It allows nurse aides to bypass state regulations.

B) It ensures that nurse aides can work in a broader range of healthcare settings, including those that receive federal funding, which often have stringent quality and compliance standards.

Which of the following statements about nursing assistant training programs is true? A) All states require exactly 75 hours of training as mandated by federal law. B) Some states require more than the federally mandated 75 hours of training. C) No state requires more than the federal minimum of 75 hours. D) States cannot set their own training requirements and must adhere strictly to federal guidelines.

B) Some states require more than the federally mandated 75 hours of training.

What are the components of the state of California's nursing assistant training program, and how do they contribute to the preparedness of the nurse aide? A) 60 hours of online coursework and 100 hours of internship; these components provide theoretical knowledge and practical experience. B) 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training; these components ensure a solid foundation of knowledge and hands-on experience necessary for competent care. C) 75 hours of self-study modules; these components allow for flexible learning schedules. D) 50 hours of classroom instruction and 50 hours of online training; these components balance theoretical and practical learning.

B) 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training; these components ensure a solid foundation of knowledge and hands-on experience necessary for competent care.

What are the continuing education requirements for nursing assistants in the state of California to maintain their certification? A) 24 hours of in-service training every year. B) 48 hours of in-service training every 24 months, with a minimum of 12 hours each year. C) 60 hours of continuing education every 24 months. D) 36 hours of in-service training every year

B) 48 hours of in-service training every 24 months, with a minimum of 12 hours each year.

What is the maximum number of in-service training hours that can be completed online during the 24-month certification period in California? A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 36 hours D) 48 hours

B) 24 hours

If a nursing assistant in California completes only 10 hours of in-service training in the first year of their 2-year certification period, what must they do in the second year to meet the state requirements? A) Complete 38 hours of in-service training in the second year. B) Complete 12 hours of in-service training in the second year. C) Complete 24 hours of in-service training in the second year. D) Complete 48 hours of in-service training in the second year.

A) Complete 38 hours of in-service training in the second year.

Why does the state of California limit the number of continuing education hours that can be completed online for nursing assistants? A) To ensure that nursing assistants do not become too reliant on digital resources. B) To promote hands-on training and interaction, which are crucial for practical skills and real-life scenarios. C) To encourage nursing assistants to attend more conferences and seminars. D) To ensure that training providers can charge more for in-person sessions.

B) To promote hands-on training and interaction, which are crucial for practical skills and real-life scenarios.

What could be a consequence for a nursing assistant in California if they fail to complete the required 48 hours of in-service training within the 24-month period? A) They may have to retake their certification exams. B) They will automatically receive an extension to complete the hours. C) Their certification may lapse, making them ineligible to work until they meet the continuing education requirements. D) They will receive a fine but can continue working without interruption.

C) Their certification may lapse, making them ineligible to work until they meet the continuing education requirements.

Recertification:

Required every 2 years

A nursing assistant who works for an assisted-living facility can expect to: A) Have different resident assignments daily. B) Take frequent vital signs. C) Spend most of the shift giving one-on-one care. D) Help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.

Answer: D) Help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning

Mr. Krieger has been able to take care of himself at home, but he has been forgetting to take his medications and occasionally wanders away and becomes lost. Because he lives alone, his family is concerned for him and wants to ensure that he is safe. The BEST option for Mr. Krieger would be to: A) Hire a nursing assistant from a hospice agency. B) Move into a community-based residential facility. C) Receive daily skilled nursing care. D) Have a home healthcare agency set up his medications for him.

Answer: B) Move into a community-based residential facility.

In the state of California, a nurse aide training course must include: A) 60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical. B) 60 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical. C) 75 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical. D) 100 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical.

Answer: A) 60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.

What does the California Code of Regulations (Title 22) provide information about, and why is it important for nursing assistants to be familiar with it? A) Federal healthcare policies; it helps in understanding national regulations. B) Nurse aide training programs and other healthcare licensing regulations; being familiar with Title 22 ensures compliance with regulations and supports the care given. C) International nursing standards; it ensures global compliance. D) State tax laws; it helps in financial planning.

Answer: B) Nurse aide training programs and other healthcare licensing regulations; being familiar with Title 22 ensures compliance with regulations and supports the care given.

According to California Title 22, what is required of skilled nursing facilities that employ nursing assistants? A) Provide annual retreats for team building. B) Offer an orientation to the facility, ensuring that nursing assistants are familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment. C) Mandate a minimum of 100 hours of training before employment. D) Provide online training modules only.

Answer: B) Offer an orientation to the facility, ensuring that nursing assistants are familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.

What are the primary components of the first 8 hours of orientation for nursing assistants in a skilled nursing facility as per California Title 22? A) Hands-on patient care experience and direct supervision. B) Becoming familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment. C) Completing administrative tasks and paperwork. D) Conducting research and preparing reports.

Answer: B) Becoming familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.

During the second 8 hours of orientation in a skilled nursing facility, what key areas are covered according to California Title 22? A) Advanced medical procedures and surgical techniques. B) Patient care policies, how to keep residents comfortable, and legal and ethical considerations of caregiving. C) Financial management and budgeting for healthcare facilities. D) Marketing and public relations for healthcare services.

Answer: B) Patient care policies, how to keep residents comfortable, and legal and ethical considerations of caregiving.

Why is it crucial for nursing assistants to understand the legal and ethical considerations of caregiving as part of their orientation under California Title 22? A) To ensure they can perform medical procedures without supervision. B) To provide them with the skills needed for administrative roles. C) To help them navigate and comply with legal requirements, thus ensuring high-quality, ethical care for residents. D) To prepare them for roles in healthcare marketing and communications.

Answer: C) To help them navigate and comply with legal requirements, thus ensuring high-quality, ethical care for residents.

Which of the following best defines negligence in a healthcare setting, and what is an example of this behavior? A) Providing extra care and attention beyond what is required; failing to follow advanced care plans. B) Not following the standards of the job or role; failing to toilet a resident every 2 hours as indicated on the care plan. C) Voluntarily staying beyond assigned shifts; attending to all residents equally. D) Limiting a resident's mobility for safety reasons; locking wheelchair brakes at a dining table.

Answer: B) Not following the standards of the job or role; failing to toilet a resident every 2 hours as indicated on the care plan.

What constitutes abandonment in a healthcare setting, and what are the potential risks associated with it? A) Taking extended breaks during a shift; increasing workload for colleagues. B) Leaving an assignment before the shift ends or before a replacement arrives; leaving residents alone and at risk. C) Delegating tasks to untrained staff; reducing quality of care. D) Restricting residents' movements for safety; causing emotional distress.

Answer: B) Leaving an assignment before the shift ends or before a replacement arrives; leaving residents alone and at risk.

Which scenario exemplifies false imprisonment in a healthcare setting? A) Administering medications without consent; leading to potential side effects. B) Locking wheelchair brakes at a dining room table when the resident is unable to unlock them; limiting the resident’s ability to move freely. C) Providing unnecessary treatments; increasing healthcare costs. D) Ignoring residents' requests for assistance; causing frustration.

Answer: B) Locking wheelchair brakes at a dining room table when the resident is unable to unlock them; limiting the resident’s ability to move freely.

What is the definition of neglect in a healthcare setting, and what is an example of this behavior? A) Providing excessive care beyond what is needed; overwhelming residents. B) Not providing necessary care, treatment, or service; not providing a resident with adequate fluids, resulting in dehydration. C) Restricting residents' movements for their safety; causing inconvenience. D) Delegating tasks to unqualified staff; compromising care quality.

Answer: B) Not providing necessary care, treatment, or service; not providing a resident with adequate fluids, resulting in dehydration.

Which of the following is an example of assault in a healthcare setting? A) Physically restraining a resident without consent; ensuring safety. B) Threatening a resident with physical, mental, or emotional harm; saying, “You need to eat your dinner, or I will have to tell your family.” C) Administering medications without proper documentation; increasing the risk of errors. D) Ignoring a resident's requests for assistance; leading to distress.

Answer: B) Threatening a resident with physical, mental, or emotional harm; saying, “You need to eat your dinner, or I will have to tell your family.”

What is the definition of battery in a healthcare setting, and what is an example of this behavior? A) Touching a resident with consent for medical procedures; maintaining hygiene. B) Physically touching a resident without permission; showering a resident after she has refused the shower. C) Providing medical care against a resident’s will; ensuring compliance. D) Restricting movement for safety; causing discomfort.

B) Physically touching a resident without permission; showering a resident after she has refused the shower.

Which of the following constitutes abuse in a healthcare setting, and who are particularly vulnerable to it? A) Single or repeated actions meant to inflict harm or withholding care; residents with physical, developmental, or communication disabilities. B) Administering necessary treatments without explanation; all residents equally. C) Providing excessive care beyond what is required; new residents. D) Restricting residents' movements for safety; elderly residents only.

Answer: A) Single or repeated actions meant to inflict harm or withholding care; residents with physical, developmental, or communication disabilities.

What is a potential consequence for a nursing assistant who is found guilty of negligence? A) Promotion to a higher position. B) Termination of employment and possible legal action. C) Increased salary and benefits. D) Award of employee of the month.

B) Termination of employment and possible legal action.

How can a nursing assistant avoid charges of abandonment? A) By leaving their assignment as soon as their shift is over, regardless of coverage. B) By ensuring that they complete their shift or that a replacement is present before leaving. C) By delegating their duties to another nursing assistant without informing their supervisor. D) By taking frequent breaks without notifying anyone.

B) By ensuring that they complete their shift or that a replacement is present before leaving.

Which action could be considered false imprisonment in a healthcare setting? A) Administering medication without documenting it. B) Confining a resident to their room without a valid reason. C) Providing care according to the resident’s care plan. D) Encouraging a resident to participate in social activities.

B) Confining a resident to their room without a valid reason.

What must a nursing assistant do to avoid neglecting a resident? A) Follow the resident’s care plan and ensure all care, treatment, and services are provided as needed. B) Delegate all tasks to other staff members. C) Focus only on the residents they find easiest to care for. D) Perform tasks that are not part of their job description

A) Follow the resident’s care plan and ensure all care, treatment, and services are provided as needed.

In the context of resident care, which scenario exemplifies abuse? A) Accidentally missing a scheduled repositioning of a resident. B) Deliberately withholding food or water from a resident to cause harm. C) Asking a resident to wait a moment while attending to another. D) Providing care that is rough but necessary for the resident’s well-being

B) Deliberately withholding food or water from a resident to cause harm.

An example of battery might be: A) Not repositioning a resident according to the care plan. B) Telling a resident that if she refuses her meal, you will call her daughter. C) Giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one. D) Leaving the facility before your relief arrives.

Answer: C) Giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one.

Negligence occurs when a caregiver: A) Does not follow the standards of her job. B) Limits the resident’s ability to move throughout the facility. C) Does not provide care and the resident then suffers harm. D) Physically touches the resident without permission.

Answer: C) Does not provide care and the resident then suffers harm.

Which of the following best describes allergic contact dermatitis related to latex exposure? A) Occurs immediately after exposure and may be life-threatening. B) Usually seen 6 to 8 hours after contact with latex, can occur up to 48 hours later; symptoms include redness, itching, blisters, and oozing. C) Causes gastrointestinal issues and fever. D) Symptoms include severe abdominal pain and vomiting.

B) Usually seen 6 to 8 hours after contact with latex, can occur up to 48 hours later; symptoms include redness, itching, blisters, and oozing.

What are the symptoms of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction to latex, and why is it important for healthcare workers to recognize these symptoms promptly? A) Gastrointestinal discomfort and rash; important to ensure proper hydration. B) Hives, shortness of breath, and wheezing; important because it may be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. C) Dizziness and fatigue; important to provide rest. D) Muscle aches and joint pain; important to administer pain relief

B) Hives, shortness of breath, and wheezing; important because it may be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

What is a potential consequence of allergic contact dermatitis if not properly managed? A) Development of chronic respiratory conditions. B) Secondary infections due to the skin being compromised by blisters and oozing. C) Permanent hearing loss. D) Long-term gastrointestinal issues.

B) Secondary infections due to the skin being compromised by blisters and oozing.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction to latex? A) Hives B) Shortness of breath C) Wheezing D) Blisters that develop hours after contact

D) Blisters that develop hours after contact

Why is it crucial for healthcare facilities to have protocols in place for managing latex allergies? A) To ensure all staff receive bonuses. B) To prevent potential life-threatening reactions and ensure the safety of both staff and patients with known latex allergies. C) To minimize the use of gloves in the facility. D) To allow more flexible working hours for staff.

B) To prevent potential life-threatening reactions and ensure the safety of both staff and patients with known latex allergies.

Which of the following are considered risks that increase the likelihood of workplace violence in healthcare settings? A) Working with stable patients only and having strict visiting hours. B) Working with volatile or unstable people, contact with the public, and working late night or early morning shifts. C) Performing administrative duties and working in a secured office. D) Working solely in a group with other staff members.

Answer: B) Working with volatile or unstable people, contact with the public, and working late night or early morning shifts.

Which of the following is a recommended prevention measure for workplace violence in healthcare facilities? A) Reducing staff interaction with patients. B) Installing safety devices such as locked doors and ensuring good lighting in the facility and parking lots. C) Limiting access to emergency exits. D) Prohibiting staff from working late shifts.

Answer: B) Installing safety devices such as locked doors and ensuring good lighting in the facility and parking lots.

How should a nursing assistant handle a situation involving potential workplace violence? A) Confront the person aggressively to assert control. B) Remain calm, use therapeutic communication, allow one person to speak at a time, and call authorities if feeling threatened. C) Ignore the situation and continue with their duties. D) Immediately physically restrain the individual to prevent harm.

Answer: B) Remain calm, use therapeutic communication, allow one person to speak at a time, and call authorities if feeling threatened.

Why is therapeutic communication important in managing workplace violence, and what are some key components of this approach? A) It prevents the situation from escalating by providing emotional support and validation; key components include acknowledging feelings, avoiding personal attacks, and sticking to the facts. B) It ensures quick resolution by making demands; key components include issuing ultimatums and being authoritative. C) It distracts the person from their feelings; key components include changing the subject and ignoring emotional expressions. D) It involves physical intervention; key components include restraining and isolating the individual.

Answer: A) It prevents the situation from escalating by providing emotional support and validation; key components include acknowledging feelings, avoiding personal attacks, and sticking to the facts.

What should a nursing assistant do if they feel threatened by potential workplace violence? A) Try to handle the situation on their own without involving others. B) Ensure the safety of residents and themselves, ask the person to leave, remove themselves from the situation if necessary, and call authorities if they feel threatened. C) Confront the person to assert dominance and control. D) Leave the facility immediately without informing anyone.

Answer: B) Ensure the safety of residents and themselves, ask the person to leave, remove themselves from the situation if necessary, and call authorities if they feel threatened.

Fire Safety Duties during a fire:

* Rescue or resident * Alarm or activate alarm * Confine or contain the fire * Extinguish or evacuate

Use of fire extinguisher:

* Pull the pin * Aim at the base of the fire * Squeeze the handle of the extinguisher * Sweep at the base of the fire

Which of the following is NOT typically included in an evacuation plan for a healthcare facility during a natural disaster? A) Where to evacuate B) How to maintain communication among residents, family members, and the receiving facility C) Detailed information about the facility's budget D) How to transport wheelchair- or bed-bound residents

Answer: C) Detailed information about the facility's budget

What is one of the primary responsibilities of a nursing assistant during an evacuation due to a natural disaster? A) Accompanying residents to ensure their safety and continuous care B) Updating the facility's financial records C) Supervising the construction of evacuation routes D) Conducting fire drills

Answer: A) Accompanying residents to ensure their safety and continuous care

Why is it important for a nursing assistant to have a backup plan for themselves and their family during a natural disaster evacuation? A) To ensure they can focus on their job responsibilities without worrying about their family's safety. B) To reduce the facility’s liability in case of a natural disaster. C) To enable them to work additional hours during the evacuation. D) To comply with state and federal regulations regarding disaster preparedness.

A) To ensure they can focus on their job responsibilities without worrying about their family's safety.

Which of the following actions is part of a nursing assistant's duties during an evacuation? A) Developing the facility's evacuation plan B) Remaining at their post and providing additional caregiving duties as necessary C) Leading the facility's disaster response team D) Conducting post-evacuation financial audits

Answer: B) Remaining at their post and providing additional caregiving duties as necessary

How should nursing assistants maintain communication during an evacuation to ensure continuous care for residents? A) By using personal cell phones only for emergency contacts. B) By following the facility’s communication plan, which includes how to maintain communication among residents, family members, and the receiving facility. C) By delegating communication responsibilities to the residents themselves. D) By waiting until the evacuation is complete to establish communication.

Answer: B) By following the facility’s communication plan, which includes how to maintain communication among residents, family members, and the receiving facility.

What is a key practice for nursing assistants to control odors and maintain cleanliness in a healthcare facility? A) Toileting or tending to incontinent residents at least every 4 hours. B) Immediately removing used incontinence products from the room. C) Emptying garbage cans only once a day. D) Changing soiled clothing and linens once per shift.

Answer: B) Immediately removing used incontinence products from the room.

Why is it important to empty and clean commodes promptly? A) To save on cleaning supplies. B) To prevent the spread of odors and maintain a sanitary environment. C) To reduce the workload for the next shift. D) To comply with dietary guidelines.

Answer: B) To prevent the spread of odors and maintain a sanitary environment.

When should soiled linen hampers and garbage cans be emptied to maintain cleanliness and odor control? A) When they are completely full. B) At the end of each shift. C) When they are ¾ full. D) Only when there is a noticeable odor.

Answer: C) When they are ¾ full.

Which of the following actions helps ensure that toilets remain clean and odor-free? A) Cleaning toilets once a week. B) Flushing toilets after each use and ensuring they are clean. C) Allowing residents to clean their own toilets. D) Using air fresheners instead of cleaning.

Answer: B) Flushing toilets after each use and ensuring they are clean.

What is the significance of changing soiled clothing and linens promptly? A) To reduce laundry costs. B) To maintain the dignity and comfort of residents and prevent the spread of odors. C) To save time for nursing assistants. D) To adhere to state regulations only.

Answer: B) To maintain the dignity and comfort of residents and prevent the spread of odors.

How does maintaining a clean environment in a healthcare facility impact everyone? A) It is solely the responsibility of the cleaning staff. B) It is everyone's responsibility and contributes to a healthier, more pleasant environment for both residents and staff. C) It is mainly for compliance with health inspections. D) It reduces the need for nursing assistants to perform their primary duties.

Answer: B) It is everyone's responsibility and contributes to a healthier, more pleasant environment for both residents and staff.

You notice that one of the residents has spilled her water onto the dining room floor. You are still clearing dishes from the room and documenting the residents’ oral intake. You should: A) Mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables. B) Leave a towel on the floor to soak up the water. C) Mop up the floor after you have finished clearing tables. D) Ask housekeeping to take care of the spill.

Answer: A) Mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables.

Allergic contact dermatitis after contact with latex usually is seen within: A) 15–30 minutes. B) 2–4 hours. C) 6–48 hours. D) 48–72 hours.

Answer: C) 6–48 hours.

What is a communication disorder, and what impact does it have on interactions with others? A) A disorder related to physical mobility; it enhances interactions with others. B) A speech or language problem that results in impaired interactions with others. C) A visual impairment that affects the ability to read. D) A cognitive disorder that affects memory. Answer: B) A speech or language problem that results in impaired interactions with others

Answer: B) A speech or language problem that results in impaired interactions with others.

You are caring for a resident who wears a hearing aid in his left ear and is deaf in his right ear. When caring for him, you should: A) Raise your voice when you speak into his right ear. B) Turn the volume on the hearing aid all the way up. C) Use a picture board for communication. D) Ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

Answer: D) Ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

What is expressive aphasia, and how does it affect a resident’s ability to communicate? A) Difficulty in understanding spoken language; it does not affect speech production. B) Inability to speak or to speak clearly; it affects the resident's ability to express themselves verbally. C) Total loss of hearing; it affects the resident's ability to hear speech. D) Difficulty in reading and writing; it does not affect verbal communication.

B) Inability to speak or to speak clearly; it affects the resident's ability to express themselves verbally.

Which of the following interventions can improve communication with a resident who has expressive aphasia? A) Speaking louder and more slowly. B) Using picture boards or a personal computer. C) Only communicating through written notes. D) Avoiding communication to prevent frustration

B) Using picture boards or a personal computer.

Why are picture boards effective for residents with expressive aphasia? A) They provide a visual method of communication that does not rely on verbal skills. B) They enhance the resident's hearing ability. C) They are easier to use than verbal communication for caregivers. D) They replace the need for any other form of communication.

A) They provide a visual method of communication that does not rely on verbal skills.

How can a personal computer be used to assist a resident with expressive aphasia? A) By providing audio books to improve their listening skills. B) By offering speech-to-text software to help the resident express themselves. C) By playing music to soothe the resident. D) By displaying pictures and words to facilitate communication.

B) By offering speech-to-text software to help the resident express themselves.

Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy for communicating with a resident who has expressive aphasia? A) Giving the resident plenty of time to respond. B) Speaking in complex sentences to test their understanding. C) Using simple words and short sentences. D) Using gestures and facial expressions to aid understanding

B) Speaking in complex sentences to test their understanding.

Which of the following interventions can improve communication with a resident who has receptive aphasia? A) Speaking louder and more slowly. B) Breaking up tasks into small steps and going slowly to decrease confusion. C) Only communicating through written notes. D) Avoiding communication to prevent frustration.

Answer: B) Breaking up tasks into small steps and going slowly to decrease confusion.

Why is it helpful to break up tasks into small steps when working with a resident who has receptive aphasia? A) It allows the resident to complete tasks more quickly. B) It decreases confusion by making the information more manageable and easier to understand. C) It provides more opportunities for the caregiver to give instructions. D) It reduces the need for the caregiver to repeat instructions.

Answer: B) It decreases confusion by making the information more manageable and easier to understand.

Which communication strategy is NOT recommended for residents with receptive aphasia? A) Using simple words and short sentences. B) Giving the resident plenty of time to respond. C) Speaking in complex sentences to enhance understanding. D) Using gestures and visual aids to support communication.

Answer: C) Speaking in complex sentences to enhance understanding.

How can caregivers help reduce the confusion experienced by residents with receptive aphasia? A) By providing written instructions only. B) By avoiding eye contact to reduce pressure. C) By using a calm and gentle tone of voice while breaking up tasks into smaller, more manageable steps. D) By speaking rapidly to convey urgency.

Answer: C) By using a calm and gentle tone of voice while breaking up tasks into smaller, more manageable steps.

Answer: D) Ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

You knock and enter Faith’s room to assist her to supper. You discover Faith and her daughter arguing about finances and the sale of Faith’s house. The argument becomes louder and Faith begins to cry. The first action you should take is to: A) Assist Faith to a safe area. B) Ensure that you are safe. C) Alert the nurse. D) Ask the daughter to leave the room.

D) Ask the daughter to leave the room. Answer: B) Ensure that you are safe.

Why is it important to allow a resident to dangle on the side of the bed before transferring or ambulating them? A) To give the resident time to relax. B) To allow the resident to adjust to the new environment. C) To permit blood pressure to normalize before standing, preventing dizziness or fainting. D) To allow the caregiver to prepare the wheelchair.

Answer: C) To permit blood pressure to normalize before standing, preventing dizziness or fainting.

When assisting a resident with footwear before a transfer, what is the correct procedure? A) Assist the resident with footwear immediately upon waking up. B) Ensure the resident has appropriate footwear and assist after confirming the resident is not dizzy or in danger of falling. C) Allow the resident to walk barefoot for better grip. D) Ask the resident to put on their footwear while standing.

Answer: B) Ensure the resident has appropriate footwear and assist after confirming the resident is not dizzy or in danger of falling.

What is the primary purpose of using a gait belt during transfers and ambulation? A) To serve as a decorative accessory. B) To prevent pulling or tugging on the resident’s shoulders or arms. C) To restrict the resident's movement. D) To help the resident with their balance exercises.

Answer: B) To prevent pulling or tugging on the resident’s shoulders or arms.

During a one-assist transfer from bed to wheelchair, what is the proper sequence of actions? A) Bend at the waist, lift the resident quickly, and place them in the wheelchair. B) Stand directly in front of the resident, grasp the gait belt, bend at the knees, ask the resident to stand on the count of 3, pivot them toward the wheelchair, and assist them to a sitting position. C) Ask the resident to stand on their own and then move the wheelchair closer. D) Place the wheelchair behind the resident and push them into it.

Answer: B) Stand directly in front of the resident, grasp the gait belt, bend at the knees, ask the resident to stand on the count of 3, pivot them toward the wheelchair, and assist them to a sitting position.

How should a two-assist transfer be performed safely? A) One assistant should lift the resident while the other moves the wheelchair. B) Both assistants should place their right foot outside the resident’s right foot, grasp the gait belt, and pivot toward the wheelchair as one unit. C) Each assistant should lift the resident from either side and place them in the wheelchair without coordinating their movements. D) One assistant should handle the entire transfer while the other supervises.

Answer: B) Both assistants should place their right foot outside the resident’s right foot, grasp the gait belt, and pivot toward the wheelchair as one unit.

What is the purpose of using a sit-to-stand device for transfers? A) To allow the resident to rest in bed during the transfer. B) To transfer residents who can bear some weight but may be unpredictable during transfers. C) To transfer residents who can move independently. D) To transfer residents without the need for any physical support.

Answer: B) To transfer residents who can bear some weight but may be unpredictable during transfers.

When using a mechanical lift, what is a key safety consideration regarding the sling? A) Always use the smallest sling available. B) Ensure the top loops are shorter than the leg loops and use the type and size of sling noted in the care plan. C) Use any available sling regardless of the resident's size. D) Ensure the resident remains in the sling at all times, even when sitting in a chair.

Answer: B) Ensure the top loops are shorter than the leg loops and use the type and size of sling noted in the care plan.

Why is log rolling used for residents, and how many nursing assistants are required for this procedure? A) To improve the resident’s mobility; it requires one nursing assistant. B) To keep the resident's body straight and aligned when spinal trauma is suspected or confirmed; it requires three nursing assistants. C) To make the bed; it requires two nursing assistants. D) To change the resident's clothes; it requires four nursing assistants.

Answer: B) To keep the resident's body straight and aligned when spinal trauma is suspected or confirmed; it requires three nursing assistants.

What is the minimum number of staff required to transfer a resident from a bed to a stretcher, and what equipment should be used? A) Two staff; use a wheelchair. B) Three staff; use a lift. C) Four staff; use a slide board or fitted sheet. D) Five staff; use a backboard.

Answer: C) Four staff; use a slide board or fitted sheet.

Which step is crucial when transferring a resident from a bed to a stretcher to ensure their safety? A) Place IVs and catheters across the resident’s body before transfer. B) Have the resident stand up and walk to the stretcher. C) Remove the resident’s clothing for the transfer. D) Perform the transfer without informing the resident.

Answer: A) Place IVs and catheters across the resident’s body before transfer.

What safety measure is essential when transferring a bariatric resident? A) Always transfer alone to ensure privacy. B) Always transfer with two or more assistants and do not rush. C) Use a regular gait belt. D) Avoid using any specialty equipment.

Answer: B) Always transfer with two or more assistants and do not rush.

What type of equipment is recommended for transferring a bariatric resident? A) Regular beds and wheelchairs. B) Bariatric lifts and slings, special beds, and extended gait belts. C) Standard lifts and commodes. D) Manual wheelchairs only.

Answer: B) Bariatric lifts and slings, special beds, and extended gait belts.

Which of the following is a key consideration when transporting a resident in a wheelchair? A) Always pull the resident backward in the wheelchair. B) Do not lock the brakes upon arriving at the destination. C) Remind the resident to keep their elbows in and inform them when you are about to start or stop moving. D) Keep the resident’s legs elevated during transport.

Answer: C) Remind the resident to keep their elbows in and inform them when you are about to start or stop moving.

What should you ensure after positioning a resident in a wheelchair? A) Lock the brakes and leave the resident unattended. B) Ensure positioning devices and alarms are on, attach leg rests according to the care plan, and place the call light within the resident’s reach. C) Move the wheelchair to a storage area. D) Detach all positioning devices.

Answer: B) Ensure positioning devices and alarms are on, attach leg rests according to the care plan, and place the call light within the resident’s reach.

How often should residents be repositioned while in bed to prevent skin breakdown? A) Every 30 minutes B) Every hour C) At least every 2 hours D) Every 4 hours

Answer: C) At least every 2 hours

What is the recommended frequency for repositioning residents while they are in a wheelchair? A) Every 30 minutes B) Every hour C) At least every 2 hours D) Every 4 hours

Answer: B) Every hour

Why might the frequency of repositioning vary among individuals? A) Depending on their dietary preferences. B) Due to individual risk factors such as risk of skin breakdown, fragile skin, and the presence of existing skin breakdown. C) Based on the resident's cognitive abilities. D) According to the availability of staff.

Answer: B) Due to individual risk factors such as risk of skin breakdown, fragile skin, and the presence of existing skin breakdown.

Which of the following is NOT a reason to increase the frequency of repositioning a resident? A) The resident has fragile skin. B) The resident is at risk of skin breakdown. C) The resident prefers to remain in one position for comfort. D) The resident already has skin breakdown.

Answer: C) The resident prefers to remain in one position for comfort.

How can repositioning residents at the recommended frequencies help in their care? A) It ensures they get more sleep. B) It prevents the development of pressure ulcers and promotes better circulation. C) It allows the staff to have more interaction with residents. D) It helps in maintaining the cleanliness of the resident's living area.

Answer: B) It prevents the development of pressure ulcers and promotes better circulation.

What should nursing assistants consider when determining the frequency of repositioning for individual residents? A) The resident’s meal schedule. B) The resident’s risk factors, such as fragile skin and current skin condition. C) The time of day. D) The nursing assistant’s personal preference.

Answer: B) The resident’s risk factors, such as fragile skin and current skin condition.

Lying on the back; comfortable for most residents – Used for sleeping and comfort – Areas of pressure include back of skull, sacrum, coccyx, and heels – Place pillow between back of resident’s knees and the heels – Ensure heels are not touching the bed

Supine

Lying on the side; common position for sleeping – Pressure areas include the malleolus, inner part of knees, shoulder, and ear – Place pillow under resident’s head and between knees – Place pillow behind back to keep pressure off the trochanter

Side-Lying

Lying on the stomach; uncomfortable for many people; used if required for medical condition or requested by resident – Used only for certain medical issues or if requested by resident – Pressure areas include ears, hips, knees, and tops of toes – Use thin pillow under resident’s head – Place pillow under shins

Prone

Lying on back with head of bed elevated; commonly used for visiting, watching TV, receiving food via gastric tube (tube feeding), or helping to ease breathing problems – Head of bed raised 45 to 60 degrees – May be used to watch TV, visit with others, or ease breathing – Risk of friction and shearing injury to back, sacrum, coccyx, elbows, and heels

Fowler’s

Form of side-lying position; used when giving an enema – Used for enema administration – May not be tolerated by older adults – Pressure areas include malleolus, shoulder, and hip – Place pillow under resident’s top leg, under head, and in front of chest

Sims’s

Resident sits in chair or wheelchair with elbows on table; head is held in resident’s hands; used to relieve breathing problems – Used while resident is sitting – Allows more air to enter chest cavity – Place pillow, towel, or folded blanket on table to prevent sore elbows

Tripod

When repositioning a resident in bed, have him place his hands: A) Above his head. B) Along his sides. C) Across his stomach or chest. D) On his hips or thighs.

Answer: C) Across his stomach or chest.

You care for a resident who needs oxygen because of a respiratory infection. The BEST position for the resident while she is in bed is: A) Fowler’s. B) Side-lying. C) Prone. D) Tripod.

Answer: A) Fowler’s.

What is a susceptible host, and who can be considered as one? A) An individual with no risk of infection; includes healthcare workers only. B) An individual who is at risk of infection due to weakened immune systems; includes the elderly, infants, immunocompromised individuals, and anyone. C) An individual with a strong immune system; includes athletes and healthy adults. D) An individual who has already recovered from an infection; includes past patients.

Answer: B) An individual who is at risk of infection due to weakened immune systems; includes the elderly, infants, immunocompromised individuals, and anyone.

Which of the following is NOT considered a common pathogen? A) Bacteria B) Virus C) Fungus D) Plant

Answer: D) Plant

What are common reservoirs where pathogens can thrive? A) Deserts and dry environments. B) People, animals, soil, food, and water. C) Clean and sterilized environments. D) Areas with no organic matter.

Answer: B) People, animals, soil, food, and water.

Which of the following is a mode of transmission for pathogens? A) Direct contact B) Indirect contact C) Vectors D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Which body parts are common portals of entry for pathogens? A) Mouth, nose, eyes, and cuts in the skin. B) Ears, fingernails, and hair. C) Elbows, knees, and feet. D) Shoulders, back, and stomach.

Answer: A) Mouth, nose, eyes, and cuts in the skin.

What are the typical portals of exit for pathogens from a host? A) Coughing/sneezing, bodily secretions, and feces. B) Hair, nails, and teeth. C) Sweat, saliva, and urine. D) Tears, fingerprints, and skin cells.

Answer: A) Coughing/sneezing, bodily secretions, and feces.

What is the correct procedure for removing gloves to ensure that contamination does not spread? A) Pull off both gloves simultaneously. B) Use a glove to remove the other glove, turning it inside out, then use the bare hand to remove the second glove, also turning it inside out. C) Pull the gloves off by the fingertips. D) Remove the gloves and then touch your face.

Answer: B) Use a glove to remove the other glove, turning it inside out, then use the bare hand to remove the second glove, also turning it inside out.

When are airborne precautions used, and what type of germs necessitate these precautions? A) When germs are heavy and settle quickly; used for gastrointestinal infections. B) When germs are light enough to float on air currents; used for illnesses such as tuberculosis (TB) and COVID. C) When germs are transmitted through direct contact; used for skin infections. D) When germs are spread through contaminated food; used for foodborne illnesses.

Answer: B) When germs are light enough to float on air currents; used for illnesses such as tuberculosis (TB) and COVID.

What type of mask is required for healthcare workers when implementing airborne precautions? A) Surgical mask B) Cloth mask C) Particulate (N95) respirator mask D) Face shield

Answer: C) Particulate (N95) respirator mask

Why is it necessary for healthcare workers to be fitted for an N95 mask when using airborne precautions? A) To ensure the mask matches their uniform. B) To guarantee a proper seal and effective filtration, preventing inhalation of airborne germs. C) To provide comfort during long shifts. D) To follow fashion trends.

Answer: B) To guarantee a proper seal and effective filtration, preventing inhalation of airborne germs.

What environmental control is required in a room where airborne precautions are being implemented? A) Positive pressure room B) Normal ventilation C) Negative pressure room D) Increased humidity levels

Answer: C) Negative pressure room

Which of the following diseases requires the use of airborne precautions? A) Influenza B) Strep throat C) Tuberculosis (TB) D) Gastroenteritis

Answer: C) Tuberculosis (TB)

When are droplet precautions used, and what types of germs necessitate these precautions? A) When germs are spread by direct contact; used for skin infections. B) When germs are transmitted via sneezing, coughing, or talking; used for illnesses such as influenza and whooping cough. C) When germs are light enough to float on air currents; used for tuberculosis (TB) and COVID. D) When germs are spread through contaminated food; used for foodborne illnesses.

Answer: B) When germs are transmitted via sneezing, coughing, or talking; used for illnesses such as influenza and whooping cough.

What type of mask is required for healthcare workers when implementing droplet precautions? A) N95 respirator mask B) Cloth mask C) Surgical mask if within 3 feet of the resident D) Face shield

Answer: C) Surgical mask if within 3 feet of the resident

Why is it important for healthcare workers to wear a surgical mask within 3 feet of a resident when using droplet precautions? A) To maintain comfort during long shifts. B) To prevent the transmission of germs that are spread through droplets produced by sneezing, coughing, or talking. C) To match the hospital's dress code. D) To protect the resident from the healthcare worker’s germs.

Answer: B) To prevent the transmission of germs that are spread through droplets produced by sneezing, coughing, or talking.

Which of the following diseases requires the use of droplet precautions? A) Tuberculosis (TB) B) COVID-19 C) Influenza D) Gastroenteritis

Answer: C) Influenza

What additional measures should be taken when caring for a resident under droplet precautions besides wearing a surgical mask? A) Placing the resident in a negative pressure room. B) Wearing a gown and gloves at all times. C) Ensuring the resident uses a separate bathroom if possible. D) Avoiding any direct contact with the resident.

Answer: C) Ensuring the resident uses a separate bathroom if possible.

When are contact precautions used, and what types of germs necessitate these precautions? A) When germs are airborne; used for tuberculosis (TB) and COVID-19. B) When germs may be spread via direct or indirect contact; used for illnesses such as MRSA and C. difficile. C) When germs are transmitted via sneezing or coughing; used for influenza and whooping cough. D) When germs are spread through contaminated food; used for foodborne illnesses.

Answer: B) When germs may be spread via direct or indirect contact; used for illnesses such as MRSA and C. difficile.

What hygiene practice is crucial when caring for a resident under contact precautions? A) Using hand sanitizer only. B) Performing hand hygiene with soap and water. C) Wearing a surgical mask. D) Avoiding any contact with the resident.

Answer: B) Performing hand hygiene with soap and water.

Why might it be necessary to check with a nurse regarding the use of hand sanitizers when dealing with contact precautions? A) To ensure that the hand sanitizer matches the facility’s brand. B) Because some infections, such as C. difficile, require soap and water rather than hand sanitizers to effectively remove the germs. C) To reduce costs. D) Because hand sanitizers are more effective than soap and water.

Answer: B) Because some infections, such as C. difficile, require soap and water rather than hand sanitizers to effectively remove the germs.

Which of the following diseases requires the use of contact precautions? A) Influenza B) Tuberculosis (TB) C) MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) D) COVID-19

Answer: C) MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)

What additional measures should be taken when caring for a resident under contact precautions? A) Wearing a surgical mask and gown at all times. B) Placing the resident in a negative pressure room. C) Ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection of all surfaces and equipment that the resident has touched. D) Providing the resident with a separate bathroom.

Answer: C) Ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection of all surfaces and equipment that the resident has touched.

Most staph infections occur: A) On the skin. B) In the digestive tract. C) In the nose and respiratory tract. D) In the eyes.

Answer: A) On the skin

Standard precautions should be practiced on: A) Only people who look sick. B) Only people who request it. C) Every person you care for. D) Only people who have a bloodborne illness.

Answer: C) Every person you care for.

The nurse informs you that one of your residents has influenza. Before assisting the resident with her shower, you should put on a(n): A) Surgical mask before entering the room. B) Particulate respirator before entering the room. C) Isolation gown and gloves immediately after entering the room. D) N95 mask after entering the room.

Answer: A) Surgical mask before entering the room.

What should you do immediately if a resident shows signs of a complete (severe) airway obstruction? A) Wait to see if the resident can clear the obstruction on their own. B) Activate EMS immediately. C) Offer the resident water to drink. D) Perform CPR right away.

Answer: B) Activate EMS immediately.

Which of the following symptoms indicates a complete (severe) airway obstruction? A) A low-pitched cough. B) Little to no air exchange and a high-pitched wheeze or no sound. C) A productive cough with mucus. D) Rapid, deep breathing.

Answer: B) Little to no air exchange and a high-pitched wheeze or no sound.

What action should be taken if a resident with a complete airway obstruction is obese or pregnant? A) Perform abdominal thrusts. B) Perform chest thrusts over the sternum. C) Give them water to drink. D) Ask them to lie down.

Answer: B) Perform chest thrusts over the sternum.

What is cardiac arrest, and what can cause it? A) A temporary loss of consciousness; caused by dehydration. B) The heart is unable to contract and pump blood; caused by heart attack, trauma, choking, drowning, or overdose. C) An irregular heartbeat; caused by anxiety. D) Difficulty breathing; caused by asthma.

Answer: B) The heart is unable to contract and pump blood; caused by heart attack, trauma, choking, drowning, or overdose.

Why is early intervention crucial in cases of cardiac arrest? A) It ensures the resident can be transferred to another facility. B) It increases the chances of survival and recovery. C) It allows the resident to rest more comfortably. D) It reduces the need for further medical treatment.

Answer: B) It increases the chances of survival and recovery.

How long should cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) be continued? A) Until the resident is moved to a different room. B) Until someone qualified takes over, the resident is revived, or a physician pronounces death. C) Until the resident shows slight improvement. D) For a maximum of 10 minutes.

Answer: B) Until someone qualified takes over, the resident is revived, or a physician pronounces death.

What is syncope, and what typically causes it? A) A sudden loss of appetite; caused by anxiety. B) A temporary and sudden loss of consciousness; usually due to decreased oxygen levels in the brain. C) A persistent headache; caused by dehydration. D) Difficulty speaking; caused by a stroke.

Answer: B) A temporary and sudden loss of consciousness; usually due to decreased oxygen levels in the brain.

What are common signs that a resident might faint? A) A sudden burst of energy and talkativeness. B) Feeling shaky or weak, having clammy skin, or reporting visual disturbances. C) Increased appetite and thirst. D) Rapid, deep breathing and sweating.

Answer: B) Feeling shaky or weak, having clammy skin, or reporting visual disturbances.

How often should a resident be checked when restraints are applied? A) Every 30 minutes B) Every hour C) Every 15 minutes D) Every 2 hours

Answer: C) Every 15 minutes

What is the recommended frequency for releasing a resident from restraints to provide care and support? A) Every hour B) Every 30 minutes C) Every 2 hours D) Every 4 hours

Answer: C) Every 2 hours

How should restraints be fastened to ensure safety and quick release? A) With a double knot B) With a quick-release knot C) With a bow D) With a regular knot

Answer: B) With a quick-release knot

Where should restraints be secured when applied to a bed? A) To the bed frame B) To the side rail C) To the headboard D) To the mattress

Answer: A) To the bed frame

What should be checked when monitoring a resident with restraints? A) Only the tightness of the restraint B) The area where the restraint is applied, including color, warmth, sensation, function, and circulation C) The resident's mood D) The resident's room temperature

Answer: B) The area where the restraint is applied, including color, warmth, sensation, function, and circulation

What actions should be taken when releasing the restraint to care for the resident? A) Offer to assist the resident to the toilet or change incontinence product B) Perform range-of-motion exercises or ambulate the resident C) Reposition the resident D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Why is it important to meet both the physical and emotional needs of a resident when releasing restraints? A) To ensure compliance with state regulations B) To prevent the resident from becoming agitated C) To enhance the resident's overall well-being and prevent potential complications from restraint use D) To expedite the resident's recovery

Answer: C) To enhance the resident's overall well-being and prevent potential complications from restraint use

What should you do if a resident expresses pain when checking the area where a restraint is applied? A) Ignore it and continue the check B) Tighten the restraint to prevent further movement C) Adjust the restraint and report the pain to the nurse immediately D) Remove the restraint permanently

Answer: C) Adjust the restraint and report the pain to the nurse immediately

Strategies to prevent falls can include: A) Keeping the bed in the lowest position and locked. B) Encouraging visits from family members. C) Keeping the call light within the resident’s reach. D) All of the above.

Answer: D) All of the above.

Thomas has a wrist restraint to prevent him from pulling out his IV. He complains to you that his hand is tingling. You should: A) Loosen the restraint and check him in 15 minutes. B) Report his complaint to the nurse immediately. C) Do range-of-motion exercises. D) Massage the hand to reduce discomfort.

Answer: B) Report his complaint to the nurse immediately.

Ensuring that a restraint is released every 2 hours is the responsibility of the: A) Resident’s nurse. B) Charge nurse. C) Nursing assistant. D) Resident’s doctor.

Answer: C) Nursing assistant.

Syncope is the same as: A) A seizure. B) A heart attack. C) Fainting. D) Bleeding.

C) Fainting.

Annabelle is a resident with dementia who has been yelling and hitting staff when they try to help her get dressed. You are worried that she might hurt someone. To prevent an injury, you should: A) Apply a wrist restraint while giving care. B) Work slowly and quietly. C) Provide care only when she asks. D) Put all the bed’s side rails up.

Answer: B) Work slowly and quietly.

Restraints used while a resident is in bed should be fastened with a: A) Quick-release knot to the side rails. B) Quick-release knot to the bed frame. C) Safety knot to the bed frame. D) Safety knot to the side rails.

Answer: B) Quick-release knot to the bed frame.

Assisting the resident with range-of-motion exercises can help: A) Prevent contractures. B) Improve comfort. C) Reduce the risk of atrophy. D) All of the above.

Answer: D) All of the above.

The first step in a resident’s physical therapy is: A) An evaluation by the nurse. B) The therapist determines the resident’s goals. C) An evaluation by the physical therapist. D) The therapist designs a plan of care.

Answer: C) An evaluation by the physical therapist.

The physical therapist works mostly on: A) Swallowing difficulties. B) Restorative efforts. C) Fine motor skills. D) Gross motor skills.

Answer: D) Gross motor skills.

You notice that one of your residents is having difficulties at mealtime. She has trouble swallowing her fluids and coughs with each bite. The person who could BEST help her would be the: A) Occupational therapist. B) Restorative aide. C) Speech language pathologist. D) Physical therapist.

Answer: C) Speech language pathologist.

When are vital signs typically taken for a new resident upon admission? A) Once per shift during their stay. B) Upon admission as a baseline. C) Only during illness. D) Only when directed by the nurse.

Answer: B) Upon admission as a baseline.

How often are vital signs typically taken for a resident during their hospital stay? A) Only on the resident's bath day. B) Once per week. C) At least once per shift. D) Only during illness.

Answer: C) At least once per shift.

What is the protocol for taking vital signs after a resident has a fall? A) Once per day for 24 hours. B) Once per shift for 72 hours or per facility protocol. C) Only if the resident complains of pain. D) Every hour for 24 hours.

Answer: B) Once per shift for 72 hours or per facility protocol.

When else should vital signs be taken besides the typical schedule? A) During illness. B) Only on the resident's bath day. C) Once per week. D) Only during physical therapy sessions.

Answer: A) During illness.

Who can direct additional vital sign measurements outside of the usual schedule? A) The resident. B) The nurse. C) The resident's family. D) The facility's administrative staff.

Answer: B) The nurse.

What is the normal temperature range for an adult, depending on the route used? A) 95.0−97.0°F B) 96.5−98.5°F C) 97.6−99.6°F D) 98.0−100.0°F

Answer: C) 97.6−99.6°F

What is the normal pulse range for an adult? A) 50−90 beats per minute B) 55−95 beats per minute C) 60−100 beats per minute D) 65−105 beats per minute

Answer: C) 60−100 beats per minute

What is the normal respiration rate for an adult? A) 8−16 breaths per minute B) 10−18 breaths per minute C) 12−20 breaths per minute D) 14−22 breaths per minute

Answer: C) 12−20 breaths per minute

What is considered a normal blood pressure reading for an adult? A) Under 130/90 mmHg B) Under 125/85 mmHg C) Under 120/80 mmHg D) Under 115/75 mmHg

Answer: C) Under 120/80 mmHg

What is the normal range for pulse oximetry (Pulse Ox) in an adult? A) > 90% B) > 92% C) > 94% D) > 95%

Answer: D) > 95%

An axillary temperature is taken by placing the thermometer: A) Under the resident’s tongue. B) On the resident’s forehead. C) Into the resident’s ear canal. D) Under the resident’s arm.

Answer: D) Under the resident’s arm.

Which blood pressure is NOT within the normal limits for an adult? A) 108/72 B) 128/84 C) 118/76 D) 100/80

Answer: B) 128/84