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Question 1

A nursing assistant who works for an assisted-living facility can expect to

a) have different resident assignments daily.
b) take frequent vital signs.
c) spend most of the shift giving one-on-one care.
d) help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.

Answer 1

help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.

Question 2

Mr. Krieger has been able to take care of himself at home, but he has been forgetting to take his medications and occasionally wanders away and becomes lost. Because he lives alone, his family is concerned for him and wants to ensure that he is safe.
The BEST option for Mr. Krieger would be to
a) hire a nursing assistant from a hospice agency.
b) move into a community-based residential facility.
c) receive daily skilled nursing care.
d) have a home healthcare agency set up his medications for him.

Answer 2

move into a community-based residential facility.

Question 3

In the state of California, a nurse aide training course must include
a) 60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
b) 60 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical.
c) 75 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
d) 100 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical

Answer 3

60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.

Question 4

An example of battery might be
a) not repositioning a resident according to the care plan.
b) telling a resident that if she refuses her meal, you will call her daughter.
c) giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one.
d) leaving the facility before your relief arrives.

Answer 4

giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one.

Question 5

Negligence occurs when a caregiver
a) does not follow the standards of her job.
b) limits the resident’s ability to move throughout the facility.
c) does not provide care and the resident then suffers
harm.
d) physically touches the resident without permission.

Answer 5

does not follow the standards of her job.

Question 6

You notice that one of the residents has spilled her water onto the dining room floor. You are still clearing dishes from the room and documenting the residents’ oral intake. You should
a) mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables.
b) leave a towel on the floor to soak up the water.
c) mop up the floor after you have finished clearing tables.
d) ask housekeeping to take care of the spill.

Answer 6

mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables.

Question 7

Allergic contact dermatitis after contact with latex usually is seen within
a) 15-30 minutes.
b) 2-4 hours.
c) 6-48 hours.
d) 48-72 hours.

Answer 7

6-48 hours.

Question 8

You are caring for a resident who wears a hearing aid in his left ear and is deaf in his right ear. When caring for him, you should
a) raise your voice when you speak into his right ear.
b) turn the volume on the hearing aid all the way up.
c) use a picture board for communication.
d) ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

Answer 8

ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

Question 9

You knock and enter Faith’s room to assist her to supper. You discover Faith and her daughter arguing about finances and the sale of Faith’s house. The argument becomes louder and Faith begins to cry. The first action you should take is to
a) assist Faith to a safe area.
b) ensure that you are safe.
c) alert the nurse.
d) ask the daughter to leave the room.

Answer 9

ensure that you are safe.

Question 10

When repositioning a resident in bed, have him place his hands
・）+）
a) above his head.
b) along his sides.
c) across his stomach or chest.
d) on his hips or thighs.

Answer 10

across his stomach or chest

Question 11

You care for a resident who needs oxygen because of a respiratory infection. The BEST position for the resident while she is in bed is
a) Fowler’s.
b) side-lying.
c) prone.
d) tripod.

Answer 11

Fowler’s

Question 12

Most staph infections occur

a) on the skin.
b) in the digestive tract.
c) in the nose and respiratory tract.
d) in the eyes.

Answer 12

On the skin

Question 13

Standard precautions should be practiced on
a) only people who look sick.
b) only people who request it.
c) every person you care for.
d) only people who have a bloodborne illness.

Answer 13

every person you care for.

Question 14

The nurse informs you that one of your residents has influenza. Before assisting the resident with her shower, you should put on a(n)
a) surgical mask before entering the room.
b) particulate respirator before entering the room.
c) isolation gown and gloves immediately after entering the room.
d) N95 mask after entering the room.

Answer 14

surgical mask before entering the room.

Question 15

Strategies to prevent falls can include
a) keeping the bed in the lowest position and locked.
b) encouraging visits from family members.
c) keeping the call light within the resident’s reach.
d) all of the above.

Answer 15

all of the above.

Question 16

Thomas has a wrist restraint to prevent him from pulling out his IV. He complains to you that his hand is tingling. You should
a) loosen the restraint and check him in 15 minutes.
b) report his complaint to the nurse immediately.
c) do range-of-motion exercises.
d) massage the hand to reduce discomfort.

Answer 16

report his complaint to the nurse immediately.

Question 17

Ensuring that a restraint is released every 2 hours is the responsibility of the
a) resident’s nurse.
b) charge nurse.
c) nursing assistant.
d) resident’s doctor.

Answer 17

nursing assistant.

Question 18

Syncope is the same as
a) a seizure.
b) a heart attack.
c) fainting.
d) bleeding.

Answer 18

Fainting

Question 19

Annabelle is a resident with dementia who has been yelling and hitting staff when they try to help her get dressed. You are worried that she might hurt someone. To prevent an injury, you should
a) apply a wrist restraint while giving care.
b) work slowly and quietly.
c) provide care only when she asks.
d) put all the bed’s side rails up.

Answer 19

work slowly and quietly

Question 20

Restraints used while a resident is in bed should be fastened with a
a) quick-release knot to the side rails.
b) quick-release knot to the bed frame.
c) safety knot to the bed frame.
d) safety knot to the side rails.

Answer 20

quick-release knot to the bed frame.

Question 21

Assisting the resident with range-of-motion exercises can help
a) prevent contractures.
b) improve comfort.
c) reduce the risk of atrophy.
d) do all of the above.

Answer 21

Do all of the above

Question 22

The first step in a resident’s physical therapy is
a) an evaluation by the nurse.
b) the therapist determines the resident’s goals.
c) an evaluation by the physical therapist.
d) the therapist designs a plan of care.

Answer 22

an evaluation by the physical therapist.

Question 23

The physical therapist works mostly on
a) swallowing difficulties.
b) restorative efforts.
c) fine motor skills.
d) gross motor skills

Answer 23

Gross motor skills

Question 24

You notice that one of your residents is having difficulties at mealtime. She has trouble swallowing her fluids and coughs with each bite. The person who could BEST help her would be the
a) occupational therapist.
b) restorative aide.
c) speech language pathologist.
d) physical therapist.

Answer 24

Speech language pathologist

Question 25

Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a Certified Nurse Assistant (CNA) in California?
A) Prescribing medication
B) Developing care plans
C) Monitoring vital signs
D) Performing surgery

Answer 25

C) Monitoring vital signs

Question 26

Which organization accredits and surveys acute care settings every three years?

A) State Department of Health
B) Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
C) Joint Commission
D) American Nurses Association (ANA)

Answer 26

C) Joint Commission

Question 27

Slide 4: Work Settings for the Nursing Assistant - Nursing Assistant Responsibilities
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a nursing assistant in an acute care setting?

A) Measuring intake and output
B) Assisting with ambulation
C) Diagnosing illnesses
D) Bathing and repositioning residents

Answer 27

C) Diagnosing illnesses

Question 28

Which trait is preferred for nursing assistants working in acute care settings?

A) Inflexibility
B) Enjoying routine and predictable tasks
C) Ability to work with changing technology
D) Preference for solitary work

Answer 28

C) Ability to work with changing technology

Question 29

Nursing assistant responsibilities in sub-acute care facilities include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Personal needs and ambulation
B) Strengthening exercises
C) Performing surgeries
D) Supporting and encouraging resident rehabilitation

Answer 29

C) Performing surgeries

Question 30

Long-term care facilities are governed by:

A) Joint Commission
B) OBRA of 1987
C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
D) American Medical Association (AMA)

Answer 30

B) OBRA of 1987

Question 31

Which of the following is a responsibility of a nursing assistant in long-term care facilities?

A) Conducting medical research
B) Assisting with eating
C) Performing diagnostic tests
D) Prescribing medication

Answer 31

B) Assisting with eating

Question 32

Assisted-living facilities primarily provide:
A) 24-hour skilled nursing care
B) Basic help with bathing, cooking, and cleaning
C) Intensive medical treatments
D) Hospice care

Answer 32

Answer: B) Basic help with bathing, cooking, and cleaning

Question 33

Who is NOT typically considered a member of the healthcare team?
A) Social workers
B) Physicians
C) Legal advisors
D) Nutritionists

Answer 33

C) Legal advisors

Question 34

The scope of practice for a nursing assistant includes:
A) Developing and changing resident care plans
B) Providing basic personal care and emotional support
C) Delivering medications
D) Inserting IVs

Answer 34

B) Providing basic personal care and emotional support

Question 35

Why is it important for nursing assistants to follow the chain of command?
A) It increases the workload of the supervisor
B) It helps reduce medical errors and confusion
C) It allows nursing assistants to delegate tasks
D) It encourages personal decision-making without supervision

Answer 35

B) It helps reduce medical errors and confusion

Question 36

What should a nursing assistant do if asked to perform a task outside their scope of practice?
A) Ignore the request
B) Accept the task to avoid conflict
C) Refuse the task professionally and ask for remediation if necessary
D) Complete the task without informing the supervisor

Answer 36

C) Refuse the task professionally and ask for remediation if necessary

Question 37

When repositioning a resident from a supine to a side-lying position, which action should you take first?
A) Lower the head of the bed
B) Raise the side rail on the opposite side
C) Ask the resident to hold the side rail
D) Place a pillow under the resident’s head

Answer 37

B) Raise the side rail on the opposite side

Question 38

When transferring a resident, you should:
A) Lift the resident using your back muscles
B) Keep your feet close together to maintain balance
C) Use a gait belt if necessary
D) Avoid communicating with the resident to keep them calm

Answer 38

C) Use a gait belt if necessary

Question 39

What is the correct order to don (put on) personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A) Gloves, mask, gown, goggles
B) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
C) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
D) Goggles, gown, mask, gloves

Answer 39

C) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves

Question 40

What is the correct order to don (put on) personal protective equipment (PPE) for droplet precautions?
A) Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
C) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
D) Gown, goggles, mask, gloves

Answer 40

B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves

Question 41

What is the correct order to don (put on) personal protective equipment (PPE) for contact precautions?
A) Gloves, mask, gown, goggles
B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
C) Gown, gloves
D) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles

Answer 41

C) Gown, gloves

Question 42

In a long-term care facility, who is primarily responsible for ensuring the resident’s level of mobility is maintained and improved through consistent range of motion (ROM) exercises, and what is the primary goal of these exercises?
A) The physical therapist; to develop a personalized exercise plan for each resident
B) The certified nurse assistant (CNA); to prevent muscle atrophy and maintain joint flexibility
C) The registered nurse (RN); to monitor overall health and implement care plans
D) The resident’s primary care physician; to prescribe physical therapy sessions

Answer 42

B) The certified nurse assistant (CNA); to prevent muscle atrophy and maintain joint flexibility

Question 43

Following a fall, within the first 24-72 hours, what is the minimum frequency at which a resident’s vital signs should be monitored to promptly identify potential complications, and why is this frequency important?
A) Once every 8 hours; to ensure gradual recovery without overwhelming the resident
B) Once every 24 hours; to maintain a regular check without causing undue stress
C) Once every 4 hours; to quickly detect any signs of internal injury or deterioration
D) Once every 12 hours; to balance thorough monitoring with adequate rest periods for the resident

Answer 43

C) Once every 4 hours; to quickly detect any signs of internal injury or deterioration

Question 44

Which of the following is an example of a subjective statement from a resident?
A) “My temperature is 98.6 degrees.”
B) “I have a rash on my arm.”
C) “I feel dizzy and nauseous.”
D) “My blood pressure is 120/80.”

Answer 44

C) “I feel dizzy and nauseous.”

Question 45

In the context of resident care, which of the following statements exemplifies a subjective observation that a CNA should document and report, and why is it crucial to consider subjective observations in resident care?
A) “My blood pressure reading was 130/85 this morning.” because it provides quantitative data.
B) “I noticed a red spot on my skin today.” because it helps in identifying potential skin conditions.
C) “I feel an intense, sharp pain in my lower abdomen that gets worse after meals.” because it provides insight into the resident’s personal experience and potential underlying conditions.
D) “My heart rate is consistently at 70 beats per minute.” because it indicates stable cardiovascular function.

Answer 45

C) “I feel an intense, sharp pain in my lower abdomen that gets worse after meals.” because it provides insight into the resident’s personal experience and potential underlying conditions.

Question 46

Which of the following best describes the primary goals and characteristics of an acute care setting for nursing assistants?
A) Provides long-term care for chronic illnesses, aims to maintain resident stability over time, and is less costly than other care settings
B) Provides short-term care for immediate illnesses or injuries, aims to address immediate healthcare needs and stabilize conditions, and is typically the most expensive care setting
C) Offers end-of-life care, focuses on palliative treatment, and is funded primarily by hospice organizations
D) Offers routine check-ups and preventive care, focuses on maintaining overall health, and is typically surveyed annually by the state health department

Answer 46

B) Provides short-term care for immediate illnesses or injuries, aims to address immediate healthcare needs and stabilize conditions, and is typically the most expensive care setting

Question 47

Regarding the accreditation and surveying of acute care settings, which of the following statements is correct?
A) Most acute care settings are accredited by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) and are surveyed annually
B) Most acute care settings are accredited by the Joint Commission and are surveyed at least once every 3 years
C) Acute care settings do not require accreditation but are surveyed every 5 years by state health departments
D) Acute care settings are accredited by the American Medical Association (AMA) and are surveyed biennially

Answer 47

B) Most acute care settings are accredited by the Joint Commission and are surveyed at least once every 3 years

Question 48

Which combination of responsibilities is crucial for a nursing assistant working in an acute care setting to ensure both immediate and ongoing patient needs are met, and why?

A) Administering medications, diagnosing illnesses, and performing surgeries; because these tasks address critical health interventions.
B) Measuring intake and output, bathing and repositioning residents, and caring for residents before and after surgery; because these tasks ensure comprehensive care and patient comfort.
C) Scheduling follow-up appointments, providing nutritional advice, and conducting physical therapy; because these tasks are essential for long-term recovery and rehabilitation.
D) Vital signs monitoring, ambulation assistance, and bathing and repositioning residents; because these tasks are foundational to patient safety, hygiene, and mobility in an acute care setting.

Answer 48

D) Vital signs monitoring, ambulation assistance, and bathing and repositioning residents; because these tasks are foundational to patient safety, hygiene, and mobility in an acute care setting.

Question 49

When caring for a resident before and after surgery in an acute care setting, which combination of tasks should a nursing assistant prioritize to prevent complications and promote recovery, and why?

A) Ambulation, measuring intake and output, and repositioning; because these tasks help prevent postoperative complications such as blood clots, dehydration, and pressure ulcers.
B) Administering medications, providing emotional support, and diagnosing conditions; because these tasks address the resident’s immediate medical and psychological needs.
C) Performing diagnostic tests, preparing meals, and scheduling physical therapy sessions; because these tasks ensure comprehensive postoperative care.
D) Scheduling follow-up appointments, providing discharge instructions, and offering financial advice; because these tasks help prepare the resident for a smooth transition home.

Answer 49

A) Ambulation, measuring intake and output, and repositioning; because these tasks help prevent postoperative complications such as blood clots, dehydration, and pressure ulcers.

Question 50

Why is it essential for a nursing assistant to accurately measure and document a resident’s intake and output in an acute care setting, and what could be the consequences of errors in this documentation?

A) It is essential to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance; errors could lead to inaccurate treatment plans and potential worsening of the resident’s condition.
B) It helps track the resident’s nutritional status; errors could lead to malnutrition and weight loss.
C) It assists in monitoring the resident’s recovery progress; errors could result in delayed discharge and increased hospital stay.
D) It is necessary for billing purposes; errors could lead to financial discrepancies and insurance issues.

Answer 50

A) It is essential to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance; errors could lead to inaccurate treatment plans and potential worsening of the resident’s condition.

Question 51

What distinguishes sub-acute care facilities from acute care facilities, and what is their primary focus?

A) Sub-acute care facilities provide end-of-life care and are less regulated; their primary focus is on palliative treatment.
B) Sub-acute care facilities offer outpatient services and short-term care; their primary focus is on emergency interventions.
C) Sub-acute care facilities treat residents requiring 24-hour skilled nursing care but are more medically stable; their primary focus is on patient education to prevent future hospitalizations and return to prior function.
D) Sub-acute care facilities provide chronic disease management and are more expensive; their primary focus is on long-term stabilization and continuous treatment.

Answer 51

C) Sub-acute care facilities treat residents requiring 24-hour skilled nursing care but are more medically stable; their primary focus is on patient education to prevent future hospitalizations and return to prior function.

Question 52

Which regulatory bodies govern sub-acute care facilities, and how does the location of the unit affect this governance?

A) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) regardless of location.
B) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the Joint Commission if the unit is located in a hospital and by state regulators if the unit is housed within a long-term care (LTC) facility.
C) Sub-acute care facilities are governed exclusively by state regulators, irrespective of their location.
D) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the American Medical Association (AMA) if located in a hospital and by federal regulators if within an LTC facility.

Answer 52

B) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the Joint Commission if the unit is located in a hospital and by state regulators if the unit is housed within a long-term care (LTC) facility.

Question 53

What is the key goal of patient education in sub-acute care facilities, and why is this important for residents?

A) To ensure residents understand their billing statements; this prevents financial disputes and ensures timely payments.
B) To provide residents with knowledge about their medications; this ensures compliance and proper medication administration.
C) To prevent future hospitalizations and help residents return to their prior level of function; this reduces healthcare costs and promotes independence.
D) To educate residents about the facility’s policies and procedures; this enhances their understanding of the care environment.

Answer 53

C) To prevent future hospitalizations and help residents return to their prior level of function; this reduces healthcare costs and promotes independence.

Question 54

Why might a resident be transferred from an acute care facility to a sub-acute care facility, and what are the expected outcomes of such a transfer?

A) A resident might be transferred for specialized surgical procedures; the expected outcome is immediate recovery and discharge.
B) A resident might be transferred to receive long-term palliative care; the expected outcome is enhanced comfort and end-of-life care.
C) A resident might be transferred because they require less intensive monitoring and more focused rehabilitation; the expected outcome is improved function and reduced risk of rehospitalization.
D) A resident might be transferred for outpatient diagnostic testing; the expected outcome is quick results and a return to the acute care facility.

Answer 54

C) A resident might be transferred because they require less intensive monitoring and more focused rehabilitation; the expected outcome is improved function and reduced risk of rehospitalization.

Question 55

Which of the following best describes the primary goal and regulatory framework of long-term care facilities, commonly known as nursing homes or skilled nursing facilities (SNFs)?

A) To provide emergency care and acute treatment; governed by the Joint Commission and funded primarily by private insurance.
B) To offer short-term rehabilitation and outpatient services; regulated exclusively by state health departments and funded by Medicare.
C) To provide skilled nursing care for an extended period of time; governed by the federal legislation OBRA of 1987 and regulated by the state.
D) To ensure palliative care and end-of-life support; surveyed biannually and funded by private donations and state grants.

Answer 55

C) To provide skilled nursing care for an extended period of time; governed by the federal legislation OBRA of 1987 and regulated by the state.

Question 56

Which of the following is a key requirement for long-term care facilities under the federal legislation OBRA of 1987, and why is this requirement important?

A) Facilities must conduct daily health assessments; this ensures continuous monitoring of resident health.
B) Facilities must be surveyed at least every year; this ensures compliance with federal and state regulations.
C) Facilities must employ only board-certified physicians; this ensures high medical standards.
D) Facilities must provide transportation services; this ensures residents can attend external medical appointments.

Answer 56

B) Facilities must be surveyed at least every year; this ensures compliance with federal and state regulations.

Question 57

What are the primary funding sources for long-term care facilities, and how do these sources impact the availability and quality of care provided?

A) State grants and private donations; these ensure a limited but consistent funding stream.
B) Medicaid, Medicare, insurance, and private funds; these provide a diverse funding base, enabling comprehensive and sustained care.
C) Out-of-pocket payments and charitable contributions; these restrict the facility’s ability to provide extensive care.
D) Federal subsidies and local taxes; these ensure funding but may limit the variety of services offered.

Answer 57

B) Medicaid, Medicare, insurance, and private funds; these provide a diverse funding base, enabling comprehensive and sustained care.

Question 58

How do state regulations complement federal laws in the governance of long-term care facilities, and what is the outcome of this regulatory structure?

A) State regulations often replace federal laws, leading to varied standards of care.
B) State regulations enhance federal laws by enforcing them and addressing specific local needs, leading to consistent and high-quality care.
C) State regulations are less stringent than federal laws, resulting in lower compliance rates.
D) State regulations primarily focus on administrative tasks, with minimal impact on resident care quality.

Answer 58

B) State regulations enhance federal laws by enforcing them and addressing specific local needs, leading to consistent and high-quality care.

Question 59

Which of the following tasks falls within the scope of practice for a nursing assistant and why is it critical for the assistant to adhere to these guidelines?

A) Developing a resident’s care plan; because it ensures personalized care.
B) Providing basic personal care; because it directly impacts the resident’s daily comfort and hygiene.
C) Delivering medications; because it ensures timely treatment.
D) Teaching residents new medical procedures; because it empowers residents with knowledge.

Answer 59

B) Providing basic personal care; because it directly impacts the resident’s daily comfort and hygiene.

Question 60

Which of the following tasks is outside the scope of practice for a nursing assistant, and what could be the consequence of performing such a task?

A) Assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs); this could lead to improved resident independence.
B) Providing emotional support to residents; this helps in reducing resident anxiety.
C) Inserting IVs or catheters; this could result in serious medical complications and legal consequences.
D) Offering dementia care; this enhances the quality of life for residents with cognitive impairments.

Answer 60

C) Inserting IVs or catheters; this could result in serious medical complications and legal consequences.

Question 61

Why is it important for a nursing assistant to understand their scope of practice, and how does this knowledge affect their professional conduct?

A) It allows them to take on additional medical tasks; this leads to faster resident recovery.
B) It ensures they perform only approved duties; this reduces the risk of harm and enhances patient safety.
C) It gives them the authority to delegate tasks to other staff; this improves workflow efficiency.
D) It permits them to make independent medical decisions; this ensures timely interventions.

Answer 61

B) It ensures they perform only approved duties; this reduces the risk of harm and enhances patient safety.

Question 62

Which of the following is a responsibility included in the scope of practice for a nursing assistant, and what is its significance in resident care?

A) Teaching new medical techniques; it helps in resident education.
B) Offering emotional support to residents and families; it helps in building trust and providing holistic care.
C) Developing and changing care plans; it ensures the care plan remains updated.
D) Delivering medications; it ensures proper medication administration.

Answer 62

B) Offering emotional support to residents and families; it helps in building trust and providing holistic care.

Question 63

Which activity should a nursing assistant avoid to remain within their scope of practice, and what is the correct course of action if asked to perform such a task?

A) Assisting with personal hygiene; they should perform this task as it is within their scope.
B) Providing restorative care; they should perform this task as it is within their scope.
C) Delegating tasks to other staff; they should refuse and explain that delegation is outside their scope.
D) Assisting with ambulation; they should perform this task as it is within their scope.

Answer 63

C) Delegating tasks to other staff; they should refuse and explain that delegation is outside their scope.

Question 64

Scope of Practice for the Nursing
Assistant
INCLUDES

Answer 64

INCLUDES
– Providing basic personal care
– Offering emotional support to
residents and families
– Providing dementia care
– Assisting with activities of daily
living (ADLs)
– Providing restorative care

Question 65

Scope of Practice for the Nursing
Assistant
DOES NOT INCLUDE

Answer 65

DOES NOT INCLUDE
– Delivering medications
– Putting in catheters or IVs
– Developing or changing a
resident’s care plan
– Teaching
– Delegation

Question 66

What is the correct order of the chain of command in a healthcare facility, starting from the highest level of authority?

A) Nursing Assistant, Staff Nurse, Unit Manager, Director of Nursing, Administration
B) Administration, Director of Nursing, Unit Manager, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant
C) Director of Nursing, Administration, Unit Manager, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant
D) Administration, Unit Manager, Director of Nursing, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant

Answer 66

B) Administration, Director of Nursing, Unit Manager, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant

Question 67

In the event of a medical emergency, to whom should a Nursing Assistant report the situation first according to the chain of command?

A) Administration
B) Director of Nursing
C) Unit Manager
D) Staff Nurse

Answer 67

D) Staff Nurse

Question 68

What is Title 22, and what areas does it govern within the healthcare system?

A) A federal regulation that oversees hospital funding; it governs healthcare facilities and nurse practitioner programs.
B) A set of state laws that govern healthcare facilities, nurse aide training programs, and minimum standards of care for long-term care residents.
C) An international treaty on healthcare practices; it governs global health initiatives and international nurse exchanges.
D) A state law focused on emergency medical services; it governs ambulance services and emergency care protocols.

Answer 68

B) A set of state laws that govern healthcare facilities, nurse aide training programs, and minimum standards of care for long-term care residents.

Question 69

Which of the following is a requirement for nursing assistant candidates under Title 22?

A) Completing a minimum of 40 hours of community service.
B) Passing both a written and skill exam to be certified.
C) Obtaining a bachelor’s degree in nursing.
D) Completing an international internship program.

Answer 69

B) Passing both a written and skill exam to be certified.

Question 70

Why must nursing assistant candidates have a criminal record clearance at the time of certification and every two years thereafter under Title 22?

A) To ensure they are eligible for higher wages.
B) To comply with federal guidelines for workplace safety.
C) To maintain the safety and well-being of long-term care residents by ensuring that individuals with a criminal background are not in caregiving roles.
D) To allow for transferability of their certification to other states

Answer 70

C) To maintain the safety and well-being of long-term care residents by ensuring that individuals with a criminal background are not in caregiving roles.

Question 71

What is the significance of Title 22 in setting minimum standards of care for long-term care residents, and how does it impact the quality of care provided?

A) It provides guidelines for nurse salaries; it ensures competitive compensation.
B) It establishes the minimum standards of care that must be met, thereby ensuring a consistent and high level of care for long-term care residents.
C) It offers financial incentives to long-term care facilities; it improves their profitability.
D) It dictates the architectural design of care facilities; it ensures a comfortable living environment.

Answer 71

B) It establishes the minimum standards of care that must be met, thereby ensuring a consistent and high level of care for long-term care residents.

Question 72

How does Title 22 ensure the competency of nursing assistants entering the workforce?

A) By requiring ongoing education and annual exams.
B) By mandating that nursing assistants participate in research studies.
C) By requiring completion of an approved training program and successful passage of both written and skill exams.
D) By setting a minimum age requirement for nursing assistant candidates.

Answer 72

C) By requiring completion of an approved training program and successful passage of both written and skill exams.

Question 73

What is the minimum number of training hours required by federal law for nursing assistant training programs?

A) 50 hours
B) 75 hours
C) 100 hours
D) 125 hours

Answer 73

Answer: B) 75 hours

Question 74

How does the state of California’s requirement for nursing assistant training hours compare to the federal minimum?

A) California requires the same minimum number of hours as the federal law.
B) California requires more hours than the federal minimum, with at least 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training.
C) California requires fewer hours than the federal minimum.
D) California has no specific requirements beyond the federal minimum.

Answer 74

B) California requires more hours than the federal minimum, with at least 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training.

Question 75

Why is it significant that certification allows nurse aides to work in federally funded facilities?

A) It provides nurse aides with higher salaries.
B) It ensures that nurse aides can work in a broader range of healthcare settings, including those that receive federal funding, which often have stringent quality and compliance standards.
C) It guarantees job placement upon certification.
D) It allows nurse aides to bypass state regulations.

Answer 75

B) It ensures that nurse aides can work in a broader range of healthcare settings, including those that receive federal funding, which often have stringent quality and compliance standards.

Question 76

Which of the following statements about nursing assistant training programs is true?

A) All states require exactly 75 hours of training as mandated by federal law.
B) Some states require more than the federally mandated 75 hours of training.
C) No state requires more than the federal minimum of 75 hours.
D) States cannot set their own training requirements and must adhere strictly to federal guidelines.

Answer 76

B) Some states require more than the federally mandated 75 hours of training.

Question 77

What are the components of the state of California’s nursing assistant training program, and how do they contribute to the preparedness of the nurse aide?

A) 60 hours of online coursework and 100 hours of internship; these components provide theoretical knowledge and practical experience.
B) 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training; these components ensure a solid foundation of knowledge and hands-on experience necessary for competent care.
C) 75 hours of self-study modules; these components allow for flexible learning schedules.
D) 50 hours of classroom instruction and 50 hours of online training; these components balance theoretical and practical learning.

Answer 77

B) 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training; these components ensure a solid foundation of knowledge and hands-on experience necessary for competent care.

Question 78

What are the continuing education requirements for nursing assistants in the state of California to maintain their certification?

A) 24 hours of in-service training every year.
B) 48 hours of in-service training every 24 months, with a minimum of 12 hours each year.
C) 60 hours of continuing education every 24 months.
D) 36 hours of in-service training every year

Answer 78

B) 48 hours of in-service training every 24 months, with a minimum of 12 hours each year.

Question 79

What is the maximum number of in-service training hours that can be completed online during the 24-month certification period in California?

A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 48 hours

Answer 79

B) 24 hours

Question 80

If a nursing assistant in California completes only 10 hours of in-service training in the first year of their 2-year certification period, what must they do in the second year to meet the state requirements?

A) Complete 38 hours of in-service training in the second year.
B) Complete 12 hours of in-service training in the second year.
C) Complete 24 hours of in-service training in the second year.
D) Complete 48 hours of in-service training in the second year.

Answer 80

A) Complete 38 hours of in-service training in the second year.

Question 81

Why does the state of California limit the number of continuing education hours that can be completed online for nursing assistants?

A) To ensure that nursing assistants do not become too reliant on digital resources.
B) To promote hands-on training and interaction, which are crucial for practical skills and real-life scenarios.
C) To encourage nursing assistants to attend more conferences and seminars.
D) To ensure that training providers can charge more for in-person sessions.

Answer 81

B) To promote hands-on training and interaction, which are crucial for practical skills and real-life scenarios.

Question 82

What could be a consequence for a nursing assistant in California if they fail to complete the required 48 hours of in-service training within the 24-month period?

A) They may have to retake their certification exams.
B) They will automatically receive an extension to complete the hours.
C) Their certification may lapse, making them ineligible to work until they meet the continuing education requirements.
D) They will receive a fine but can continue working without interruption.

Answer 82

C) Their certification may lapse, making them ineligible to work until they meet the continuing education requirements.

Question 83

Recertification:

Answer 83

Required every 2 years

Question 84

A nursing assistant who works for an assisted-living facility can expect to:

A) Have different resident assignments daily.
B) Take frequent vital signs.
C) Spend most of the shift giving one-on-one care.
D) Help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.

Answer 84

Answer: D) Help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning

Question 85

Mr. Krieger has been able to take care of himself at home, but he has been forgetting to take his medications and occasionally wanders away and becomes lost. Because he lives alone, his family is concerned for him and wants to ensure that he is safe. The BEST option for Mr. Krieger would be to:

A) Hire a nursing assistant from a hospice agency.
B) Move into a community-based residential facility.
C) Receive daily skilled nursing care.
D) Have a home healthcare agency set up his medications for him.

Answer 85

Answer: B) Move into a community-based residential facility.

Question 86

In the state of California, a nurse aide training course must include:

A) 60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
B) 60 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical.
C) 75 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
D) 100 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical.

Answer 86

Answer: A) 60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.

Question 87

What does the California Code of Regulations (Title 22) provide information about, and why is it important for nursing assistants to be familiar with it?

A) Federal healthcare policies; it helps in understanding national regulations.
B) Nurse aide training programs and other healthcare licensing regulations; being familiar with Title 22 ensures compliance with regulations and supports the care given.
C) International nursing standards; it ensures global compliance.
D) State tax laws; it helps in financial planning.

Answer 87

Answer: B) Nurse aide training programs and other healthcare licensing regulations; being familiar with Title 22 ensures compliance with regulations and supports the care given.

Question 88

According to California Title 22, what is required of skilled nursing facilities that employ nursing assistants?

A) Provide annual retreats for team building.
B) Offer an orientation to the facility, ensuring that nursing assistants are familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.
C) Mandate a minimum of 100 hours of training before employment.
D) Provide online training modules only.

Answer 88

Answer: B) Offer an orientation to the facility, ensuring that nursing assistants are familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.

Question 89

What are the primary components of the first 8 hours of orientation for nursing assistants in a skilled nursing facility as per California Title 22?

A) Hands-on patient care experience and direct supervision.
B) Becoming familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.
C) Completing administrative tasks and paperwork.
D) Conducting research and preparing reports.

Answer 89

Answer: B) Becoming familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.

Question 90

During the second 8 hours of orientation in a skilled nursing facility, what key areas are covered according to California Title 22?

A) Advanced medical procedures and surgical techniques.
B) Patient care policies, how to keep residents comfortable, and legal and ethical considerations of caregiving.
C) Financial management and budgeting for healthcare facilities.
D) Marketing and public relations for healthcare services.

Answer 90

Answer: B) Patient care policies, how to keep residents comfortable, and legal and ethical considerations of caregiving.

Question 91

Why is it crucial for nursing assistants to understand the legal and ethical considerations of caregiving as part of their orientation under California Title 22?

A) To ensure they can perform medical procedures without supervision.
B) To provide them with the skills needed for administrative roles.
C) To help them navigate and comply with legal requirements, thus ensuring high-quality, ethical care for residents.
D) To prepare them for roles in healthcare marketing and communications.

Answer 91

Answer: C) To help them navigate and comply with legal requirements, thus ensuring high-quality, ethical care for residents.

Question 92

Which of the following best defines negligence in a healthcare setting, and what is an example of this behavior?

A) Providing extra care and attention beyond what is required; failing to follow advanced care plans.
B) Not following the standards of the job or role; failing to toilet a resident every 2 hours as indicated on the care plan.
C) Voluntarily staying beyond assigned shifts; attending to all residents equally.
D) Limiting a resident’s mobility for safety reasons; locking wheelchair brakes at a dining table.

Answer 92

Answer: B) Not following the standards of the job or role; failing to toilet a resident every 2 hours as indicated on the care plan.

Question 93

What constitutes abandonment in a healthcare setting, and what are the potential risks associated with it?

A) Taking extended breaks during a shift; increasing workload for colleagues.
B) Leaving an assignment before the shift ends or before a replacement arrives; leaving residents alone and at risk.
C) Delegating tasks to untrained staff; reducing quality of care.
D) Restricting residents’ movements for safety; causing emotional distress.

Answer 93

Answer: B) Leaving an assignment before the shift ends or before a replacement arrives; leaving residents alone and at risk.

Question 94

Which scenario exemplifies false imprisonment in a healthcare setting?

A) Administering medications without consent; leading to potential side effects.
B) Locking wheelchair brakes at a dining room table when the resident is unable to unlock them; limiting the resident’s ability to move freely.
C) Providing unnecessary treatments; increasing healthcare costs.
D) Ignoring residents’ requests for assistance; causing frustration.

Answer 94

Answer: B) Locking wheelchair brakes at a dining room table when the resident is unable to unlock them; limiting the resident’s ability to move freely.

Question 95

What is the definition of neglect in a healthcare setting, and what is an example of this behavior?

A) Providing excessive care beyond what is needed; overwhelming residents.
B) Not providing necessary care, treatment, or service; not providing a resident with adequate fluids, resulting in dehydration.
C) Restricting residents’ movements for their safety; causing inconvenience.
D) Delegating tasks to unqualified staff; compromising care quality.

Answer 95

Answer: B) Not providing necessary care, treatment, or service; not providing a resident with adequate fluids, resulting in dehydration.

Question 96

Which of the following is an example of assault in a healthcare setting?

A) Physically restraining a resident without consent; ensuring safety.
B) Threatening a resident with physical, mental, or emotional harm; saying, “You need to eat your dinner, or I will have to tell your family.”
C) Administering medications without proper documentation; increasing the risk of errors.
D) Ignoring a resident’s requests for assistance; leading to distress.

Answer 96

Answer: B) Threatening a resident with physical, mental, or emotional harm; saying, “You need to eat your dinner, or I will have to tell your family.”

Question 97

What is the definition of battery in a healthcare setting, and what is an example of this behavior?

A) Touching a resident with consent for medical procedures; maintaining hygiene.
B) Physically touching a resident without permission; showering a resident after she has refused the shower.
C) Providing medical care against a resident’s will; ensuring compliance.
D) Restricting movement for safety; causing discomfort.

Answer 97

B) Physically touching a resident without permission; showering a resident after she has refused the shower.

Question 98

Which of the following constitutes abuse in a healthcare setting, and who are particularly vulnerable to it?

A) Single or repeated actions meant to inflict harm or withholding care; residents with physical, developmental, or communication disabilities.
B) Administering necessary treatments without explanation; all residents equally.
C) Providing excessive care beyond what is required; new residents.
D) Restricting residents’ movements for safety; elderly residents only.

Answer 98

Answer: A) Single or repeated actions meant to inflict harm or withholding care; residents with physical, developmental, or communication disabilities.

Question 99

What is a potential consequence for a nursing assistant who is found guilty of negligence?

A) Promotion to a higher position.
B) Termination of employment and possible legal action.
C) Increased salary and benefits.
D) Award of employee of the month.

Answer 99

B) Termination of employment and possible legal action.

Question 100

How can a nursing assistant avoid charges of abandonment?

A) By leaving their assignment as soon as their shift is over, regardless of coverage.
B) By ensuring that they complete their shift or that a replacement is present before leaving.
C) By delegating their duties to another nursing assistant without informing their supervisor.
D) By taking frequent breaks without notifying anyone.

Answer 100

B) By ensuring that they complete their shift or that a replacement is present before leaving.

Question 101

Which action could be considered false imprisonment in a healthcare setting?

A) Administering medication without documenting it.
B) Confining a resident to their room without a valid reason.
C) Providing care according to the resident’s care plan.
D) Encouraging a resident to participate in social activities.

Answer 101

B) Confining a resident to their room without a valid reason.

Question 102

What must a nursing assistant do to avoid neglecting a resident?

A) Follow the resident’s care plan and ensure all care, treatment, and services are provided as needed.
B) Delegate all tasks to other staff members.
C) Focus only on the residents they find easiest to care for.
D) Perform tasks that are not part of their job description

Answer 102

A) Follow the resident’s care plan and ensure all care, treatment, and services are provided as needed.

Question 103

In the context of resident care, which scenario exemplifies abuse?

A) Accidentally missing a scheduled repositioning of a resident.
B) Deliberately withholding food or water from a resident to cause harm.
C) Asking a resident to wait a moment while attending to another.
D) Providing care that is rough but necessary for the resident’s well-being

Answer 103

B) Deliberately withholding food or water from a resident to cause harm.

Question 104

An example of battery might be:

A) Not repositioning a resident according to the care plan.
B) Telling a resident that if she refuses her meal, you will call her daughter.
C) Giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one.
D) Leaving the facility before your relief arrives.

Answer 104

Answer: C) Giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one.

Question 105

Negligence occurs when a caregiver:

A) Does not follow the standards of her job.
B) Limits the resident’s ability to move throughout the facility.
C) Does not provide care and the resident then suffers harm.
D) Physically touches the resident without permission.

Answer 105

Answer: C) Does not provide care and the resident then suffers harm.

Question 106

Which of the following best describes allergic contact dermatitis related to latex exposure?

A) Occurs immediately after exposure and may be life-threatening.
B) Usually seen 6 to 8 hours after contact with latex, can occur up to 48 hours later; symptoms include redness, itching, blisters, and oozing.
C) Causes gastrointestinal issues and fever.
D) Symptoms include severe abdominal pain and vomiting.

Answer 106

B) Usually seen 6 to 8 hours after contact with latex, can occur up to 48 hours later; symptoms include redness, itching, blisters, and oozing.

Question 107

What are the symptoms of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction to latex, and why is it important for healthcare workers to recognize these symptoms promptly?

A) Gastrointestinal discomfort and rash; important to ensure proper hydration.
B) Hives, shortness of breath, and wheezing; important because it may be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.
C) Dizziness and fatigue; important to provide rest.
D) Muscle aches and joint pain; important to administer pain relief

Answer 107

B) Hives, shortness of breath, and wheezing; important because it may be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

Question 108

What is a potential consequence of allergic contact dermatitis if not properly managed?

A) Development of chronic respiratory conditions.
B) Secondary infections due to the skin being compromised by blisters and oozing.
C) Permanent hearing loss.
D) Long-term gastrointestinal issues.

Answer 108

B) Secondary infections due to the skin being compromised by blisters and oozing.

Question 109

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction to latex?

A) Hives
B) Shortness of breath
C) Wheezing
D) Blisters that develop hours after contact

Answer 109

D) Blisters that develop hours after contact

Question 110

Why is it crucial for healthcare facilities to have protocols in place for managing latex allergies?

A) To ensure all staff receive bonuses.
B) To prevent potential life-threatening reactions and ensure the safety of both staff and patients with known latex allergies.
C) To minimize the use of gloves in the facility.
D) To allow more flexible working hours for staff.

Answer 110

B) To prevent potential life-threatening reactions and ensure the safety of both staff and patients with known latex allergies.

Question 111

Which of the following are considered risks that increase the likelihood of workplace violence in healthcare settings?

A) Working with stable patients only and having strict visiting hours.
B) Working with volatile or unstable people, contact with the public, and working late night or early morning shifts.
C) Performing administrative duties and working in a secured office.
D) Working solely in a group with other staff members.

Answer 111

Answer: B) Working with volatile or unstable people, contact with the public, and working late night or early morning shifts.

Question 112

Which of the following is a recommended prevention measure for workplace violence in healthcare facilities?

A) Reducing staff interaction with patients.
B) Installing safety devices such as locked doors and ensuring good lighting in the facility and parking lots.
C) Limiting access to emergency exits.
D) Prohibiting staff from working late shifts.

Answer 112

Answer: B) Installing safety devices such as locked doors and ensuring good lighting in the facility and parking lots.

Question 113

How should a nursing assistant handle a situation involving potential workplace violence?

A) Confront the person aggressively to assert control.
B) Remain calm, use therapeutic communication, allow one person to speak at a time, and call authorities if feeling threatened.
C) Ignore the situation and continue with their duties.
D) Immediately physically restrain the individual to prevent harm.

Answer 113

Answer: B) Remain calm, use therapeutic communication, allow one person to speak at a time, and call authorities if feeling threatened.

Question 114

Why is therapeutic communication important in managing workplace violence, and what are some key components of this approach?

A) It prevents the situation from escalating by providing emotional support and validation; key components include acknowledging feelings, avoiding personal attacks, and sticking to the facts.
B) It ensures quick resolution by making demands; key components include issuing ultimatums and being authoritative.
C) It distracts the person from their feelings; key components include changing the subject and ignoring emotional expressions.
D) It involves physical intervention; key components include restraining and isolating the individual.

Answer 114

Answer: A) It prevents the situation from escalating by providing emotional support and validation; key components include acknowledging feelings, avoiding personal attacks, and sticking to the facts.

Question 115

What should a nursing assistant do if they feel threatened by potential workplace violence?

A) Try to handle the situation on their own without involving others.
B) Ensure the safety of residents and themselves, ask the person to leave, remove themselves from the situation if necessary, and call authorities if they feel threatened.
C) Confront the person to assert dominance and control.
D) Leave the facility immediately without informing anyone.

Answer 115

Answer: B) Ensure the safety of residents and themselves, ask the person to leave, remove themselves from the situation if necessary, and call authorities if they feel threatened.

Question 116

Fire Safety
Duties during a fire:

Answer 116

• Rescue or resident
• Alarm or activate alarm
• Confine or contain the
  fire
• Extinguish or evacuate

Question 117

Use of fire extinguisher:

Answer 117

• Pull the pin
• Aim at the base of the
  fire
• Squeeze the handle of
  the extinguisher
• Sweep at the base of the
  fire

Question 118

Which of the following is NOT typically included in an evacuation plan for a healthcare facility during a natural disaster?

A) Where to evacuate
B) How to maintain communication among residents, family members, and the receiving facility
C) Detailed information about the facility’s budget
D) How to transport wheelchair- or bed-bound residents

Answer 118

Answer: C) Detailed information about the facility’s budget

Question 119

What is one of the primary responsibilities of a nursing assistant during an evacuation due to a natural disaster?

A) Accompanying residents to ensure their safety and continuous care
B) Updating the facility’s financial records
C) Supervising the construction of evacuation routes
D) Conducting fire drills

Answer 119

Answer: A) Accompanying residents to ensure their safety and continuous care

Question 120

Why is it important for a nursing assistant to have a backup plan for themselves and their family during a natural disaster evacuation?

A) To ensure they can focus on their job responsibilities without worrying about their family’s safety.
B) To reduce the facility’s liability in case of a natural disaster.
C) To enable them to work additional hours during the evacuation.
D) To comply with state and federal regulations regarding disaster preparedness.

Answer 120

A) To ensure they can focus on their job responsibilities without worrying about their family’s safety.

Question 121

Which of the following actions is part of a nursing assistant’s duties during an evacuation?

A) Developing the facility’s evacuation plan
B) Remaining at their post and providing additional caregiving duties as necessary
C) Leading the facility’s disaster response team
D) Conducting post-evacuation financial audits

Answer 121

Answer: B) Remaining at their post and providing additional caregiving duties as necessary

Question 122

How should nursing assistants maintain communication during an evacuation to ensure continuous care for residents?

A) By using personal cell phones only for emergency contacts.
B) By following the facility’s communication plan, which includes how to maintain communication among residents, family members, and the receiving facility.
C) By delegating communication responsibilities to the residents themselves.
D) By waiting until the evacuation is complete to establish communication.

Answer 122

Answer: B) By following the facility’s communication plan, which includes how to maintain communication among residents, family members, and the receiving facility.

Question 123

What is a key practice for nursing assistants to control odors and maintain cleanliness in a healthcare facility?

A) Toileting or tending to incontinent residents at least every 4 hours.
B) Immediately removing used incontinence products from the room.
C) Emptying garbage cans only once a day.
D) Changing soiled clothing and linens once per shift.

Answer 123

Answer: B) Immediately removing used incontinence products from the room.

Question 124

Why is it important to empty and clean commodes promptly?

A) To save on cleaning supplies.
B) To prevent the spread of odors and maintain a sanitary environment.
C) To reduce the workload for the next shift.
D) To comply with dietary guidelines.

Answer 124

Answer: B) To prevent the spread of odors and maintain a sanitary environment.

Question 125

When should soiled linen hampers and garbage cans be emptied to maintain cleanliness and odor control?

A) When they are completely full.
B) At the end of each shift.
C) When they are ¾ full.
D) Only when there is a noticeable odor.

Answer 125

Answer: C) When they are ¾ full.

Question 126

Which of the following actions helps ensure that toilets remain clean and odor-free?

A) Cleaning toilets once a week.
B) Flushing toilets after each use and ensuring they are clean.
C) Allowing residents to clean their own toilets.
D) Using air fresheners instead of cleaning.

Answer 126

Answer: B) Flushing toilets after each use and ensuring they are clean.

Question 127

What is the significance of changing soiled clothing and linens promptly?

A) To reduce laundry costs.
B) To maintain the dignity and comfort of residents and prevent the spread of odors.
C) To save time for nursing assistants.
D) To adhere to state regulations only.

Answer 127

Answer: B) To maintain the dignity and comfort of residents and prevent the spread of odors.

Question 128

How does maintaining a clean environment in a healthcare facility impact everyone?

A) It is solely the responsibility of the cleaning staff.
B) It is everyone’s responsibility and contributes to a healthier, more pleasant environment for both residents and staff.
C) It is mainly for compliance with health inspections.
D) It reduces the need for nursing assistants to perform their primary duties.

Answer 128

Answer: B) It is everyone’s responsibility and contributes to a healthier, more pleasant environment for both residents and staff.

Question 129

You notice that one of the residents has spilled her water onto the dining room floor. You are still clearing dishes from the room and documenting the residents’ oral intake. You should:

A) Mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables.
B) Leave a towel on the floor to soak up the water.
C) Mop up the floor after you have finished clearing tables.
D) Ask housekeeping to take care of the spill.

Answer 129

Answer: A) Mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables.

Question 130

Allergic contact dermatitis after contact with latex usually is seen within:

A) 15–30 minutes.
B) 2–4 hours.
C) 6–48 hours.
D) 48–72 hours.

Answer 130

Answer: C) 6–48 hours.

Question 131

What is a communication disorder, and what impact does it have on interactions with others?

A) A disorder related to physical mobility; it enhances interactions with others.
B) A speech or language problem that results in impaired interactions with others.
C) A visual impairment that affects the ability to read.
D) A cognitive disorder that affects memory.
Answer: B) A speech or language problem that results in impaired interactions with others

Answer 131

Answer: B) A speech or language problem that results in impaired interactions with others.

Question 132

You are caring for a resident who wears a hearing aid in his left ear and is deaf in his right ear. When caring for him, you should:

A) Raise your voice when you speak into his right ear.
B) Turn the volume on the hearing aid all the way up.
C) Use a picture board for communication.
D) Ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

Answer 132

Answer: D) Ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

Question 133

What is expressive aphasia, and how does it affect a resident’s ability to communicate?

A) Difficulty in understanding spoken language; it does not affect speech production.
B) Inability to speak or to speak clearly; it affects the resident’s ability to express themselves verbally.
C) Total loss of hearing; it affects the resident’s ability to hear speech.
D) Difficulty in reading and writing; it does not affect verbal communication.

Answer 133

B) Inability to speak or to speak clearly; it affects the resident’s ability to express themselves verbally.

Question 134

Which of the following interventions can improve communication with a resident who has expressive aphasia?

A) Speaking louder and more slowly.
B) Using picture boards or a personal computer.
C) Only communicating through written notes.
D) Avoiding communication to prevent frustration

Answer 134

B) Using picture boards or a personal computer.

Question 135

Why are picture boards effective for residents with expressive aphasia?

A) They provide a visual method of communication that does not rely on verbal skills.
B) They enhance the resident’s hearing ability.
C) They are easier to use than verbal communication for caregivers.
D) They replace the need for any other form of communication.

Answer 135

A) They provide a visual method of communication that does not rely on verbal skills.

Question 136

How can a personal computer be used to assist a resident with expressive aphasia?

A) By providing audio books to improve their listening skills.
B) By offering speech-to-text software to help the resident express themselves.
C) By playing music to soothe the resident.
D) By displaying pictures and words to facilitate communication.

Answer 136

B) By offering speech-to-text software to help the resident express themselves.

Question 137

Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy for communicating with a resident who has expressive aphasia?

A) Giving the resident plenty of time to respond.
B) Speaking in complex sentences to test their understanding.
C) Using simple words and short sentences.
D) Using gestures and facial expressions to aid understanding

Answer 137

B) Speaking in complex sentences to test their understanding.

Question 138

Which of the following interventions can improve communication with a resident who has receptive aphasia?

A) Speaking louder and more slowly.
B) Breaking up tasks into small steps and going slowly to decrease confusion.
C) Only communicating through written notes.
D) Avoiding communication to prevent frustration.

Answer 138

Answer: B) Breaking up tasks into small steps and going slowly to decrease confusion.

Question 139

Why is it helpful to break up tasks into small steps when working with a resident who has receptive aphasia?

A) It allows the resident to complete tasks more quickly.
B) It decreases confusion by making the information more manageable and easier to understand.
C) It provides more opportunities for the caregiver to give instructions.
D) It reduces the need for the caregiver to repeat instructions.

Answer 139

Answer: B) It decreases confusion by making the information more manageable and easier to understand.

Question 140

Which communication strategy is NOT recommended for residents with receptive aphasia?

A) Using simple words and short sentences.
B) Giving the resident plenty of time to respond.
C) Speaking in complex sentences to enhance understanding.
D) Using gestures and visual aids to support communication.

Answer 140

Answer: C) Speaking in complex sentences to enhance understanding.

Question 141

How can caregivers help reduce the confusion experienced by residents with receptive aphasia?

A) By providing written instructions only.
B) By avoiding eye contact to reduce pressure.
C) By using a calm and gentle tone of voice while breaking up tasks into smaller, more manageable steps.
D) By speaking rapidly to convey urgency.

Answer 141

Answer: C) By using a calm and gentle tone of voice while breaking up tasks into smaller, more manageable steps.

Question 142

You are caring for a resident who wears a hearing aid in his left ear and is deaf in his right ear. When caring for him, you should:

A) Raise your voice when you speak into his right ear.
B) Turn the volume on the hearing aid all the way up.
C) Use a picture board for communication.
D) Ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

Answer 142

Answer: D) Ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.

Question 143

You knock and enter Faith’s room to assist her to supper. You discover Faith and her daughter arguing about finances and the sale of Faith’s house. The argument becomes louder and Faith begins to cry. The first action you should take is to:

A) Assist Faith to a safe area.
B) Ensure that you are safe.
C) Alert the nurse.
D) Ask the daughter to leave the room.

Answer 143

D) Ask the daughter to leave the room.
Answer: B) Ensure that you are safe.

Question 144

Why is it important to allow a resident to dangle on the side of the bed before transferring or ambulating them?

A) To give the resident time to relax.
B) To allow the resident to adjust to the new environment.
C) To permit blood pressure to normalize before standing, preventing dizziness or fainting.
D) To allow the caregiver to prepare the wheelchair.

Answer 144

Answer: C) To permit blood pressure to normalize before standing, preventing dizziness or fainting.

Question 145

When assisting a resident with footwear before a transfer, what is the correct procedure?

A) Assist the resident with footwear immediately upon waking up.
B) Ensure the resident has appropriate footwear and assist after confirming the resident is not dizzy or in danger of falling.
C) Allow the resident to walk barefoot for better grip.
D) Ask the resident to put on their footwear while standing.

Answer 145

Answer: B) Ensure the resident has appropriate footwear and assist after confirming the resident is not dizzy or in danger of falling.

Question 146

What is the primary purpose of using a gait belt during transfers and ambulation?

A) To serve as a decorative accessory.
B) To prevent pulling or tugging on the resident’s shoulders or arms.
C) To restrict the resident’s movement.
D) To help the resident with their balance exercises.

Answer 146

Answer: B) To prevent pulling or tugging on the resident’s shoulders or arms.

Question 147

During a one-assist transfer from bed to wheelchair, what is the proper sequence of actions?

A) Bend at the waist, lift the resident quickly, and place them in the wheelchair.
B) Stand directly in front of the resident, grasp the gait belt, bend at the knees, ask the resident to stand on the count of 3, pivot them toward the wheelchair, and assist them to a sitting position.
C) Ask the resident to stand on their own and then move the wheelchair closer.
D) Place the wheelchair behind the resident and push them into it.

Answer 147

Answer: B) Stand directly in front of the resident, grasp the gait belt, bend at the knees, ask the resident to stand on the count of 3, pivot them toward the wheelchair, and assist them to a sitting position.

Question 148

How should a two-assist transfer be performed safely?

A) One assistant should lift the resident while the other moves the wheelchair.
B) Both assistants should place their right foot outside the resident’s right foot, grasp the gait belt, and pivot toward the wheelchair as one unit.
C) Each assistant should lift the resident from either side and place them in the wheelchair without coordinating their movements.
D) One assistant should handle the entire transfer while the other supervises.

Answer 148

Answer: B) Both assistants should place their right foot outside the resident’s right foot, grasp the gait belt, and pivot toward the wheelchair as one unit.

Question 149

What is the purpose of using a sit-to-stand device for transfers?

A) To allow the resident to rest in bed during the transfer.
B) To transfer residents who can bear some weight but may be unpredictable during transfers.
C) To transfer residents who can move independently.
D) To transfer residents without the need for any physical support.

Answer 149

Answer: B) To transfer residents who can bear some weight but may be unpredictable during transfers.

Question 150

When using a mechanical lift, what is a key safety consideration regarding the sling?

A) Always use the smallest sling available.
B) Ensure the top loops are shorter than the leg loops and use the type and size of sling noted in the care plan.
C) Use any available sling regardless of the resident’s size.
D) Ensure the resident remains in the sling at all times, even when sitting in a chair.

Answer 150

Answer: B) Ensure the top loops are shorter than the leg loops and use the type and size of sling noted in the care plan.

Question 151

Why is log rolling used for residents, and how many nursing assistants are required for this procedure?

A) To improve the resident’s mobility; it requires one nursing assistant.
B) To keep the resident’s body straight and aligned when spinal trauma is suspected or confirmed; it requires three nursing assistants.
C) To make the bed; it requires two nursing assistants.
D) To change the resident’s clothes; it requires four nursing assistants.

Answer 151

Answer: B) To keep the resident’s body straight and aligned when spinal trauma is suspected or confirmed; it requires three nursing assistants.

Question 152

What is the minimum number of staff required to transfer a resident from a bed to a stretcher, and what equipment should be used?

A) Two staff; use a wheelchair.
B) Three staff; use a lift.
C) Four staff; use a slide board or fitted sheet.
D) Five staff; use a backboard.

Answer 152

Answer: C) Four staff; use a slide board or fitted sheet.

Question 153

Which step is crucial when transferring a resident from a bed to a stretcher to ensure their safety?

A) Place IVs and catheters across the resident’s body before transfer.
B) Have the resident stand up and walk to the stretcher.
C) Remove the resident’s clothing for the transfer.
D) Perform the transfer without informing the resident.

Answer 153

Answer: A) Place IVs and catheters across the resident’s body before transfer.

Question 154

What safety measure is essential when transferring a bariatric resident?

A) Always transfer alone to ensure privacy.
B) Always transfer with two or more assistants and do not rush.
C) Use a regular gait belt.
D) Avoid using any specialty equipment.

Answer 154

Answer: B) Always transfer with two or more assistants and do not rush.

Question 155

What type of equipment is recommended for transferring a bariatric resident?

A) Regular beds and wheelchairs.
B) Bariatric lifts and slings, special beds, and extended gait belts.
C) Standard lifts and commodes.
D) Manual wheelchairs only.

Answer 155

Answer: B) Bariatric lifts and slings, special beds, and extended gait belts.

Question 156

Which of the following is a key consideration when transporting a resident in a wheelchair?

A) Always pull the resident backward in the wheelchair.
B) Do not lock the brakes upon arriving at the destination.
C) Remind the resident to keep their elbows in and inform them when you are about to start or stop moving.
D) Keep the resident’s legs elevated during transport.

Answer 156

Answer: C) Remind the resident to keep their elbows in and inform them when you are about to start or stop moving.

Question 157

What should you ensure after positioning a resident in a wheelchair?

A) Lock the brakes and leave the resident unattended.
B) Ensure positioning devices and alarms are on, attach leg rests according to the care plan, and place the call light within the resident’s reach.
C) Move the wheelchair to a storage area.
D) Detach all positioning devices.

Answer 157

Answer: B) Ensure positioning devices and alarms are on, attach leg rests according to the care plan, and place the call light within the resident’s reach.

Question 158

How often should residents be repositioned while in bed to prevent skin breakdown?

A) Every 30 minutes
B) Every hour
C) At least every 2 hours
D) Every 4 hours

Answer 158

Answer: C) At least every 2 hours

Question 159

What is the recommended frequency for repositioning residents while they are in a wheelchair?

A) Every 30 minutes
B) Every hour
C) At least every 2 hours
D) Every 4 hours

Answer 159

Answer: B) Every hour

Question 160

Why might the frequency of repositioning vary among individuals?

A) Depending on their dietary preferences.
B) Due to individual risk factors such as risk of skin breakdown, fragile skin, and the presence of existing skin breakdown.
C) Based on the resident’s cognitive abilities.
D) According to the availability of staff.

Answer 160

Answer: B) Due to individual risk factors such as risk of skin breakdown, fragile skin, and the presence of existing skin breakdown.

Question 161

Which of the following is NOT a reason to increase the frequency of repositioning a resident?

A) The resident has fragile skin.
B) The resident is at risk of skin breakdown.
C) The resident prefers to remain in one position for comfort.
D) The resident already has skin breakdown.

Answer 161

Answer: C) The resident prefers to remain in one position for comfort.

Question 162

How can repositioning residents at the recommended frequencies help in their care?

A) It ensures they get more sleep.
B) It prevents the development of pressure ulcers and promotes better circulation.
C) It allows the staff to have more interaction with residents.
D) It helps in maintaining the cleanliness of the resident’s living area.

Answer 162

Answer: B) It prevents the development of pressure ulcers and promotes better circulation.

Question 163

What should nursing assistants consider when determining the frequency of repositioning for individual residents?

A) The resident’s meal schedule.
B) The resident’s risk factors, such as fragile skin and current skin condition.
C) The time of day.
D) The nursing assistant’s personal preference.

Answer 163

Answer: B) The resident’s risk factors, such as fragile skin and current skin condition.

Question 164

Lying on the back; comfortable for most residents
– Used for sleeping and comfort
– Areas of pressure include back of skull, sacrum, coccyx, and heels
– Place pillow between back of resident’s knees and the heels
– Ensure heels are not touching the bed

Answer 164

Supine

Question 165

Lying on the side; common position for sleeping
– Pressure areas include the malleolus, inner part of
knees, shoulder, and ear
– Place pillow under resident’s head and between knees
– Place pillow behind back to keep pressure off the
trochanter

Answer 165

Side-Lying

Question 166

Lying on the stomach; uncomfortable for many people; used if required for
medical condition or requested by resident
– Used only for certain medical issues or if requested by resident
– Pressure areas include ears, hips, knees, and tops of toes
– Use thin pillow under resident’s head
– Place pillow under shins

Answer 166

Prone

Question 167

Lying on back with head of bed elevated; commonly used for visiting, watching
TV, receiving food via gastric tube (tube feeding), or helping to ease breathing
problems
– Head of bed raised 45 to 60 degrees
– May be used to watch TV, visit with
others, or ease breathing
– Risk of friction and shearing injury to
back, sacrum, coccyx, elbows, and heels

Answer 167

Fowler’s

Question 168

Form of side-lying position; used when giving an enema
– Used for enema administration
– May not be tolerated by older adults
– Pressure areas include malleolus, shoulder, and hip
– Place pillow under resident’s top leg, under head, and
in front of chest

Answer 168

Sims’s

Question 169

Resident sits in chair or wheelchair with elbows on table; head is held in
resident’s hands; used to relieve breathing problems
– Used while resident is sitting
– Allows more air to enter chest
cavity
– Place pillow, towel, or folded
blanket on table to prevent sore
elbows

Answer 169

Tripod

Question 170

When repositioning a resident in bed, have him place his hands:

A) Above his head.
B) Along his sides.
C) Across his stomach or chest.
D) On his hips or thighs.

Answer 170

Answer: C) Across his stomach or chest.

Question 171

You care for a resident who needs oxygen because of a respiratory infection. The BEST position for the resident while she is in bed is:

A) Fowler’s.
B) Side-lying.
C) Prone.
D) Tripod.

Answer 171

Answer: A) Fowler’s.

Question 172

What is a susceptible host, and who can be considered as one?

A) An individual with no risk of infection; includes healthcare workers only.
B) An individual who is at risk of infection due to weakened immune systems; includes the elderly, infants, immunocompromised individuals, and anyone.
C) An individual with a strong immune system; includes athletes and healthy adults.
D) An individual who has already recovered from an infection; includes past patients.

Answer 172

Answer: B) An individual who is at risk of infection due to weakened immune systems; includes the elderly, infants, immunocompromised individuals, and anyone.

Question 173

Which of the following is NOT considered a common pathogen?

A) Bacteria
B) Virus
C) Fungus
D) Plant

Answer 173

Answer: D) Plant

Question 174

What are common reservoirs where pathogens can thrive?

A) Deserts and dry environments.
B) People, animals, soil, food, and water.
C) Clean and sterilized environments.
D) Areas with no organic matter.

Answer 174

Answer: B) People, animals, soil, food, and water.

Question 175

Which of the following is a mode of transmission for pathogens?

A) Direct contact
B) Indirect contact
C) Vectors
D) All of the above

Answer 175

Answer: D) All of the above

Question 176

Which body parts are common portals of entry for pathogens?

A) Mouth, nose, eyes, and cuts in the skin.
B) Ears, fingernails, and hair.
C) Elbows, knees, and feet.
D) Shoulders, back, and stomach.

Answer 176

Answer: A) Mouth, nose, eyes, and cuts in the skin.

Question 177

What are the typical portals of exit for pathogens from a host?

A) Coughing/sneezing, bodily secretions, and feces.
B) Hair, nails, and teeth.
C) Sweat, saliva, and urine.
D) Tears, fingerprints, and skin cells.

Answer 177

Answer: A) Coughing/sneezing, bodily secretions, and feces.

Question 178

What is the correct procedure for removing gloves to ensure that contamination does not spread?

A) Pull off both gloves simultaneously.
B) Use a glove to remove the other glove, turning it inside out, then use the bare hand to remove the second glove, also turning it inside out.
C) Pull the gloves off by the fingertips.
D) Remove the gloves and then touch your face.

Answer 178

Answer: B) Use a glove to remove the other glove, turning it inside out, then use the bare hand to remove the second glove, also turning it inside out.

Question 179

When are airborne precautions used, and what type of germs necessitate these precautions?

A) When germs are heavy and settle quickly; used for gastrointestinal infections.
B) When germs are light enough to float on air currents; used for illnesses such as tuberculosis (TB) and COVID.
C) When germs are transmitted through direct contact; used for skin infections.
D) When germs are spread through contaminated food; used for foodborne illnesses.

Answer 179

Answer: B) When germs are light enough to float on air currents; used for illnesses such as tuberculosis (TB) and COVID.

Question 180

What type of mask is required for healthcare workers when implementing airborne precautions?

A) Surgical mask
B) Cloth mask
C) Particulate (N95) respirator mask
D) Face shield

Answer 180

Answer: C) Particulate (N95) respirator mask

Question 181

Why is it necessary for healthcare workers to be fitted for an N95 mask when using airborne precautions?

A) To ensure the mask matches their uniform.
B) To guarantee a proper seal and effective filtration, preventing inhalation of airborne germs.
C) To provide comfort during long shifts.
D) To follow fashion trends.

Answer 181

Answer: B) To guarantee a proper seal and effective filtration, preventing inhalation of airborne germs.

Question 182

What environmental control is required in a room where airborne precautions are being implemented?

A) Positive pressure room
B) Normal ventilation
C) Negative pressure room
D) Increased humidity levels

Answer 182

Answer: C) Negative pressure room

Question 183

Which of the following diseases requires the use of airborne precautions?

A) Influenza
B) Strep throat
C) Tuberculosis (TB)
D) Gastroenteritis

Answer 183

Answer: C) Tuberculosis (TB)

Question 184

When are droplet precautions used, and what types of germs necessitate these precautions?

A) When germs are spread by direct contact; used for skin infections.
B) When germs are transmitted via sneezing, coughing, or talking; used for illnesses such as influenza and whooping cough.
C) When germs are light enough to float on air currents; used for tuberculosis (TB) and COVID.
D) When germs are spread through contaminated food; used for foodborne illnesses.

Answer 184

Answer: B) When germs are transmitted via sneezing, coughing, or talking; used for illnesses such as influenza and whooping cough.

Question 185

What type of mask is required for healthcare workers when implementing droplet precautions?

A) N95 respirator mask
B) Cloth mask
C) Surgical mask if within 3 feet of the resident
D) Face shield

Answer 185

Answer: C) Surgical mask if within 3 feet of the resident

Question 186

Why is it important for healthcare workers to wear a surgical mask within 3 feet of a resident when using droplet precautions?

A) To maintain comfort during long shifts.
B) To prevent the transmission of germs that are spread through droplets produced by sneezing, coughing, or talking.
C) To match the hospital’s dress code.
D) To protect the resident from the healthcare worker’s germs.

Answer 186

Answer: B) To prevent the transmission of germs that are spread through droplets produced by sneezing, coughing, or talking.

Question 187

Which of the following diseases requires the use of droplet precautions?

A) Tuberculosis (TB)
B) COVID-19
C) Influenza
D) Gastroenteritis

Answer 187

Answer: C) Influenza

Question 188

What additional measures should be taken when caring for a resident under droplet precautions besides wearing a surgical mask?

A) Placing the resident in a negative pressure room.
B) Wearing a gown and gloves at all times.
C) Ensuring the resident uses a separate bathroom if possible.
D) Avoiding any direct contact with the resident.

Answer 188

Answer: C) Ensuring the resident uses a separate bathroom if possible.

Question 189

When are contact precautions used, and what types of germs necessitate these precautions?

A) When germs are airborne; used for tuberculosis (TB) and COVID-19.
B) When germs may be spread via direct or indirect contact; used for illnesses such as MRSA and C. difficile.
C) When germs are transmitted via sneezing or coughing; used for influenza and whooping cough.
D) When germs are spread through contaminated food; used for foodborne illnesses.

Answer 189

Answer: B) When germs may be spread via direct or indirect contact; used for illnesses such as MRSA and C. difficile.

Question 190

What hygiene practice is crucial when caring for a resident under contact precautions?

A) Using hand sanitizer only.
B) Performing hand hygiene with soap and water.
C) Wearing a surgical mask.
D) Avoiding any contact with the resident.

Answer 190

Answer: B) Performing hand hygiene with soap and water.

Question 191

Why might it be necessary to check with a nurse regarding the use of hand sanitizers when dealing with contact precautions?

A) To ensure that the hand sanitizer matches the facility’s brand.
B) Because some infections, such as C. difficile, require soap and water rather than hand sanitizers to effectively remove the germs.
C) To reduce costs.
D) Because hand sanitizers are more effective than soap and water.

Answer 191

Answer: B) Because some infections, such as C. difficile, require soap and water rather than hand sanitizers to effectively remove the germs.

Question 192

Which of the following diseases requires the use of contact precautions?

A) Influenza
B) Tuberculosis (TB)
C) MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)
D) COVID-19

Answer 192

Answer: C) MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus)

Question 193

What additional measures should be taken when caring for a resident under contact precautions?

A) Wearing a surgical mask and gown at all times.
B) Placing the resident in a negative pressure room.
C) Ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection of all surfaces and equipment that the resident has touched.
D) Providing the resident with a separate bathroom.

Answer 193

Answer: C) Ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection of all surfaces and equipment that the resident has touched.

Question 194

Most staph infections occur:

A) On the skin.
B) In the digestive tract.
C) In the nose and respiratory tract.
D) In the eyes.

Answer 194

Answer: A) On the skin

Question 195

Standard precautions should be practiced on:

A) Only people who look sick.
B) Only people who request it.
C) Every person you care for.
D) Only people who have a bloodborne illness.

Answer 195

Answer: C) Every person you care for.

Question 196

The nurse informs you that one of your residents has influenza. Before assisting the resident with her shower, you should put on a(n):

A) Surgical mask before entering the room.
B) Particulate respirator before entering the room.
C) Isolation gown and gloves immediately after entering the room.
D) N95 mask after entering the room.

Answer 196

Answer: A) Surgical mask before entering the room.

Question 197

What should you do immediately if a resident shows signs of a complete (severe) airway obstruction?

A) Wait to see if the resident can clear the obstruction on their own.
B) Activate EMS immediately.
C) Offer the resident water to drink.
D) Perform CPR right away.

Answer 197

Answer: B) Activate EMS immediately.

Question 198

Which of the following symptoms indicates a complete (severe) airway obstruction?

A) A low-pitched cough.
B) Little to no air exchange and a high-pitched wheeze or no sound.
C) A productive cough with mucus.
D) Rapid, deep breathing.

Answer 198

Answer: B) Little to no air exchange and a high-pitched wheeze or no sound.

Question 199

What action should be taken if a resident with a complete airway obstruction is obese or pregnant?

A) Perform abdominal thrusts.
B) Perform chest thrusts over the sternum.
C) Give them water to drink.
D) Ask them to lie down.

Answer 199

Answer: B) Perform chest thrusts over the sternum.

Question 200

What is cardiac arrest, and what can cause it?

A) A temporary loss of consciousness; caused by dehydration.
B) The heart is unable to contract and pump blood; caused by heart attack, trauma, choking, drowning, or overdose.
C) An irregular heartbeat; caused by anxiety.
D) Difficulty breathing; caused by asthma.

Answer 200

Answer: B) The heart is unable to contract and pump blood; caused by heart attack, trauma, choking, drowning, or overdose.

Question 201

Why is early intervention crucial in cases of cardiac arrest?

A) It ensures the resident can be transferred to another facility.
B) It increases the chances of survival and recovery.
C) It allows the resident to rest more comfortably.
D) It reduces the need for further medical treatment.

Answer 201

Answer: B) It increases the chances of survival and recovery.

Question 202

How long should cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) be continued?

A) Until the resident is moved to a different room.
B) Until someone qualified takes over, the resident is revived, or a physician pronounces death.
C) Until the resident shows slight improvement.
D) For a maximum of 10 minutes.

Answer 202

Answer: B) Until someone qualified takes over, the resident is revived, or a physician pronounces death.

Question 203

What is syncope, and what typically causes it?

A) A sudden loss of appetite; caused by anxiety.
B) A temporary and sudden loss of consciousness; usually due to decreased oxygen levels in the brain.
C) A persistent headache; caused by dehydration.
D) Difficulty speaking; caused by a stroke.

Answer 203

Answer: B) A temporary and sudden loss of consciousness; usually due to decreased oxygen levels in the brain.

Question 204

What are common signs that a resident might faint?

A) A sudden burst of energy and talkativeness.
B) Feeling shaky or weak, having clammy skin, or reporting visual disturbances.
C) Increased appetite and thirst.
D) Rapid, deep breathing and sweating.

Answer 204

Answer: B) Feeling shaky or weak, having clammy skin, or reporting visual disturbances.

Question 205

How often should a resident be checked when restraints are applied?

A) Every 30 minutes
B) Every hour
C) Every 15 minutes
D) Every 2 hours

Answer 205

Answer: C) Every 15 minutes

Question 206

What is the recommended frequency for releasing a resident from restraints to provide care and support?

A) Every hour
B) Every 30 minutes
C) Every 2 hours
D) Every 4 hours

Answer 206

Answer: C) Every 2 hours

Question 207

How should restraints be fastened to ensure safety and quick release?

A) With a double knot
B) With a quick-release knot
C) With a bow
D) With a regular knot

Answer 207

Answer: B) With a quick-release knot

Question 208

Where should restraints be secured when applied to a bed?

A) To the bed frame
B) To the side rail
C) To the headboard
D) To the mattress

Answer 208

Answer: A) To the bed frame

Question 209

What should be checked when monitoring a resident with restraints?

A) Only the tightness of the restraint
B) The area where the restraint is applied, including color, warmth, sensation, function, and circulation
C) The resident’s mood
D) The resident’s room temperature

Answer 209

Answer: B) The area where the restraint is applied, including color, warmth, sensation, function, and circulation

Question 210

What actions should be taken when releasing the restraint to care for the resident?

A) Offer to assist the resident to the toilet or change incontinence product
B) Perform range-of-motion exercises or ambulate the resident
C) Reposition the resident
D) All of the above

Answer 210

Answer: D) All of the above

Question 211

Why is it important to meet both the physical and emotional needs of a resident when releasing restraints?

A) To ensure compliance with state regulations
B) To prevent the resident from becoming agitated
C) To enhance the resident’s overall well-being and prevent potential complications from restraint use
D) To expedite the resident’s recovery

Answer 211

Answer: C) To enhance the resident’s overall well-being and prevent potential complications from restraint use

Question 212

What should you do if a resident expresses pain when checking the area where a restraint is applied?

A) Ignore it and continue the check
B) Tighten the restraint to prevent further movement
C) Adjust the restraint and report the pain to the nurse immediately
D) Remove the restraint permanently

Answer 212

Answer: C) Adjust the restraint and report the pain to the nurse immediately

Question 213

Strategies to prevent falls can include:

A) Keeping the bed in the lowest position and locked.
B) Encouraging visits from family members.
C) Keeping the call light within the resident’s reach.
D) All of the above.

Answer 213

Answer: D) All of the above.

Question 214

Thomas has a wrist restraint to prevent him from pulling out his IV. He complains to you that his hand is tingling. You should:

A) Loosen the restraint and check him in 15 minutes.
B) Report his complaint to the nurse immediately.
C) Do range-of-motion exercises.
D) Massage the hand to reduce discomfort.

Answer 214

Answer: B) Report his complaint to the nurse immediately.

Question 215

Ensuring that a restraint is released every 2 hours is the responsibility of the:

A) Resident’s nurse.
B) Charge nurse.
C) Nursing assistant.
D) Resident’s doctor.

Answer 215

Answer: C) Nursing assistant.

Question 216

Syncope is the same as:

A) A seizure.
B) A heart attack.
C) Fainting.
D) Bleeding.

Answer 216

C) Fainting.

Question 217

Annabelle is a resident with dementia who has been yelling and hitting staff when they try to help her get dressed. You are worried that she might hurt someone. To prevent an injury, you should:

A) Apply a wrist restraint while giving care.
B) Work slowly and quietly.
C) Provide care only when she asks.
D) Put all the bed’s side rails up.

Answer 217

Answer: B) Work slowly and quietly.

Question 218

Restraints used while a resident is in bed should be fastened with a:

A) Quick-release knot to the side rails.
B) Quick-release knot to the bed frame.
C) Safety knot to the bed frame.
D) Safety knot to the side rails.

Answer 218

Answer: B) Quick-release knot to the bed frame.

Question 219

Assisting the resident with range-of-motion exercises can help:

A) Prevent contractures.
B) Improve comfort.
C) Reduce the risk of atrophy.
D) All of the above.

Answer 219

Answer: D) All of the above.

Question 220

The first step in a resident’s physical therapy is:

A) An evaluation by the nurse.
B) The therapist determines the resident’s goals.
C) An evaluation by the physical therapist.
D) The therapist designs a plan of care.

Answer 220

Answer: C) An evaluation by the physical therapist.

Question 221

The physical therapist works mostly on:

A) Swallowing difficulties.
B) Restorative efforts.
C) Fine motor skills.
D) Gross motor skills.

Answer 221

Answer: D) Gross motor skills.

Question 222

You notice that one of your residents is having difficulties at mealtime. She has trouble swallowing her fluids and coughs with each bite. The person who could BEST help her would be the:

A) Occupational therapist.
B) Restorative aide.
C) Speech language pathologist.
D) Physical therapist.

Answer 222

Answer: C) Speech language pathologist.

Question 223

When are vital signs typically taken for a new resident upon admission?

A) Once per shift during their stay.
B) Upon admission as a baseline.
C) Only during illness.
D) Only when directed by the nurse.

Answer 223

Answer: B) Upon admission as a baseline.

Question 224

How often are vital signs typically taken for a resident during their hospital stay?

A) Only on the resident’s bath day.
B) Once per week.
C) At least once per shift.
D) Only during illness.

Answer 224

Answer: C) At least once per shift.

Question 225

What is the protocol for taking vital signs after a resident has a fall?

A) Once per day for 24 hours.
B) Once per shift for 72 hours or per facility protocol.
C) Only if the resident complains of pain.
D) Every hour for 24 hours.

Answer 225

Answer: B) Once per shift for 72 hours or per facility protocol.

Question 226

When else should vital signs be taken besides the typical schedule?

A) During illness.
B) Only on the resident’s bath day.
C) Once per week.
D) Only during physical therapy sessions.

Answer 226

Answer: A) During illness.

Question 227

Who can direct additional vital sign measurements outside of the usual schedule?

A) The resident.
B) The nurse.
C) The resident’s family.
D) The facility’s administrative staff.

Answer 227

Answer: B) The nurse.

Question 228

What is the normal temperature range for an adult, depending on the route used?

A) 95.0−97.0°F
B) 96.5−98.5°F
C) 97.6−99.6°F
D) 98.0−100.0°F

Answer 228

Answer: C) 97.6−99.6°F

Question 229

What is the normal pulse range for an adult?

A) 50−90 beats per minute
B) 55−95 beats per minute
C) 60−100 beats per minute
D) 65−105 beats per minute

Answer 229

Answer: C) 60−100 beats per minute

Question 230

What is the normal respiration rate for an adult?

A) 8−16 breaths per minute
B) 10−18 breaths per minute
C) 12−20 breaths per minute
D) 14−22 breaths per minute

Answer 230

Answer: C) 12−20 breaths per minute

Question 231

What is considered a normal blood pressure reading for an adult?

A) Under 130/90 mmHg
B) Under 125/85 mmHg
C) Under 120/80 mmHg
D) Under 115/75 mmHg

Answer 231

Answer: C) Under 120/80 mmHg

Question 232

What is the normal range for pulse oximetry (Pulse Ox) in an adult?

A) > 90%
B) > 92%
C) > 94%
D) > 95%

Answer 232

Answer: D) > 95%

Question 233

An axillary temperature is taken by placing the thermometer:

A) Under the resident’s tongue.
B) On the resident’s forehead.
C) Into the resident’s ear canal.
D) Under the resident’s arm.

Answer 233

Answer: D) Under the resident’s arm.

Question 234

Which blood pressure is NOT within the normal limits for an adult?

A) 108/72
B) 128/84
C) 118/76
D) 100/80

Answer 234

Answer: B) 128/84