Unlit 1 Flashcards
A nursing assistant who works for an assisted-living facility can expect to
a) have different resident assignments daily.
b) take frequent vital signs.
c) spend most of the shift giving one-on-one care.
d) help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.
help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.
Mr. Krieger has been able to take care of himself at home, but he has been forgetting to take his medications and occasionally wanders away and becomes lost. Because he lives alone, his family is concerned for him and wants to ensure that he is safe.
The BEST option for Mr. Krieger would be to
a) hire a nursing assistant from a hospice agency.
b) move into a community-based residential facility.
c) receive daily skilled nursing care.
d) have a home healthcare agency set up his medications for him.
move into a community-based residential facility.
In the state of California, a nurse aide training course must include
a) 60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
b) 60 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical.
c) 75 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
d) 100 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical
60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
An example of battery might be
a) not repositioning a resident according to the care plan.
b) telling a resident that if she refuses her meal, you will call her daughter.
c) giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one.
d) leaving the facility before your relief arrives.
giving a resident a shower after she states she doesn’t want one.
Negligence occurs when a caregiver
a) does not follow the standards of her job.
b) limits the resident’s ability to move throughout the facility.
c) does not provide care and the resident then suffers
harm.
d) physically touches the resident without permission.
does not follow the standards of her job.
You notice that one of the residents has spilled her water onto the dining room floor. You are still clearing dishes from the room and documenting the residents’ oral intake. You should
a) mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables.
b) leave a towel on the floor to soak up the water.
c) mop up the floor after you have finished clearing tables.
d) ask housekeeping to take care of the spill.
mop up the spill and then finish clearing the tables.
Allergic contact dermatitis after contact with latex usually is seen within
a) 15-30 minutes.
b) 2-4 hours.
c) 6-48 hours.
d) 48-72 hours.
6-48 hours.
You are caring for a resident who wears a hearing aid in his left ear and is deaf in his right ear. When caring for him, you should
a) raise your voice when you speak into his right ear.
b) turn the volume on the hearing aid all the way up.
c) use a picture board for communication.
d) ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.
ensure that his hearing aid is in and speak into his left ear.
You knock and enter Faith’s room to assist her to supper. You discover Faith and her daughter arguing about finances and the sale of Faith’s house. The argument becomes louder and Faith begins to cry. The first action you should take is to
a) assist Faith to a safe area.
b) ensure that you are safe.
c) alert the nurse.
d) ask the daughter to leave the room.
ensure that you are safe.
When repositioning a resident in bed, have him place his hands
・）+）
a) above his head.
b) along his sides.
c) across his stomach or chest.
d) on his hips or thighs.
across his stomach or chest
You care for a resident who needs oxygen because of a respiratory infection. The BEST position for the resident while she is in bed is
a) Fowler’s.
b) side-lying.
c) prone.
d) tripod.
Fowler’s
Most staph infections occur
a) on the skin.
b) in the digestive tract.
c) in the nose and respiratory tract.
d) in the eyes.
On the skin
Standard precautions should be practiced on
a) only people who look sick.
b) only people who request it.
c) every person you care for.
d) only people who have a bloodborne illness.
every person you care for.
The nurse informs you that one of your residents has influenza. Before assisting the resident with her shower, you should put on a(n)
a) surgical mask before entering the room.
b) particulate respirator before entering the room.
c) isolation gown and gloves immediately after entering the room.
d) N95 mask after entering the room.
surgical mask before entering the room.
Strategies to prevent falls can include
a) keeping the bed in the lowest position and locked.
b) encouraging visits from family members.
c) keeping the call light within the resident’s reach.
d) all of the above.
all of the above.
Thomas has a wrist restraint to prevent him from pulling out his IV. He complains to you that his hand is tingling. You should
a) loosen the restraint and check him in 15 minutes.
b) report his complaint to the nurse immediately.
c) do range-of-motion exercises.
d) massage the hand to reduce discomfort.
report his complaint to the nurse immediately.
Ensuring that a restraint is released every 2 hours is the responsibility of the
a) resident’s nurse.
b) charge nurse.
c) nursing assistant.
d) resident’s doctor.
nursing assistant.
Syncope is the same as
a) a seizure.
b) a heart attack.
c) fainting.
d) bleeding.
Fainting
Annabelle is a resident with dementia who has been yelling and hitting staff when they try to help her get dressed. You are worried that she might hurt someone. To prevent an injury, you should
a) apply a wrist restraint while giving care.
b) work slowly and quietly.
c) provide care only when she asks.
d) put all the bed’s side rails up.
work slowly and quietly
Restraints used while a resident is in bed should be fastened with a
a) quick-release knot to the side rails.
b) quick-release knot to the bed frame.
c) safety knot to the bed frame.
d) safety knot to the side rails.
quick-release knot to the bed frame.
Assisting the resident with range-of-motion exercises can help
a) prevent contractures.
b) improve comfort.
c) reduce the risk of atrophy.
d) do all of the above.
Do all of the above
The first step in a resident’s physical therapy is
a) an evaluation by the nurse.
b) the therapist determines the resident’s goals.
c) an evaluation by the physical therapist.
d) the therapist designs a plan of care.
an evaluation by the physical therapist.
The physical therapist works mostly on
a) swallowing difficulties.
b) restorative efforts.
c) fine motor skills.
d) gross motor skills
Gross motor skills
You notice that one of your residents is having difficulties at mealtime. She has trouble swallowing her fluids and coughs with each bite. The person who could BEST help her would be the
a) occupational therapist.
b) restorative aide.
c) speech language pathologist.
d) physical therapist.
Speech language pathologist
Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a Certified Nurse Assistant (CNA) in California?
A) Prescribing medication
B) Developing care plans
C) Monitoring vital signs
D) Performing surgery
C) Monitoring vital signs
Which organization accredits and surveys acute care settings every three years?
A) State Department of Health
B) Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
C) Joint Commission
D) American Nurses Association (ANA)
C) Joint Commission
Slide 4: Work Settings for the Nursing Assistant - Nursing Assistant Responsibilities
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a nursing assistant in an acute care setting?
A) Measuring intake and output
B) Assisting with ambulation
C) Diagnosing illnesses
D) Bathing and repositioning residents
C) Diagnosing illnesses
Which trait is preferred for nursing assistants working in acute care settings?
A) Inflexibility
B) Enjoying routine and predictable tasks
C) Ability to work with changing technology
D) Preference for solitary work
C) Ability to work with changing technology
Nursing assistant responsibilities in sub-acute care facilities include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Personal needs and ambulation
B) Strengthening exercises
C) Performing surgeries
D) Supporting and encouraging resident rehabilitation
C) Performing surgeries
Long-term care facilities are governed by:
A) Joint Commission
B) OBRA of 1987
C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
D) American Medical Association (AMA)
B) OBRA of 1987
Which of the following is a responsibility of a nursing assistant in long-term care facilities?
A) Conducting medical research
B) Assisting with eating
C) Performing diagnostic tests
D) Prescribing medication
B) Assisting with eating
Assisted-living facilities primarily provide:
A) 24-hour skilled nursing care
B) Basic help with bathing, cooking, and cleaning
C) Intensive medical treatments
D) Hospice care
Answer: B) Basic help with bathing, cooking, and cleaning
Who is NOT typically considered a member of the healthcare team?
A) Social workers
B) Physicians
C) Legal advisors
D) Nutritionists
C) Legal advisors
The scope of practice for a nursing assistant includes:
A) Developing and changing resident care plans
B) Providing basic personal care and emotional support
C) Delivering medications
D) Inserting IVs
B) Providing basic personal care and emotional support
Why is it important for nursing assistants to follow the chain of command?
A) It increases the workload of the supervisor
B) It helps reduce medical errors and confusion
C) It allows nursing assistants to delegate tasks
D) It encourages personal decision-making without supervision
B) It helps reduce medical errors and confusion
What should a nursing assistant do if asked to perform a task outside their scope of practice?
A) Ignore the request
B) Accept the task to avoid conflict
C) Refuse the task professionally and ask for remediation if necessary
D) Complete the task without informing the supervisor
C) Refuse the task professionally and ask for remediation if necessary
When repositioning a resident from a supine to a side-lying position, which action should you take first?
A) Lower the head of the bed
B) Raise the side rail on the opposite side
C) Ask the resident to hold the side rail
D) Place a pillow under the resident’s head
B) Raise the side rail on the opposite side
When transferring a resident, you should:
A) Lift the resident using your back muscles
B) Keep your feet close together to maintain balance
C) Use a gait belt if necessary
D) Avoid communicating with the resident to keep them calm
C) Use a gait belt if necessary
What is the correct order to don (put on) personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A) Gloves, mask, gown, goggles
B) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
C) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
D) Goggles, gown, mask, gloves
C) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
What is the correct order to don (put on) personal protective equipment (PPE) for droplet precautions?
A) Gloves, gown, mask, goggles
B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
C) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
D) Gown, goggles, mask, gloves
B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
What is the correct order to don (put on) personal protective equipment (PPE) for contact precautions?
A) Gloves, mask, gown, goggles
B) Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
C) Gown, gloves
D) Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
C) Gown, gloves
In a long-term care facility, who is primarily responsible for ensuring the resident’s level of mobility is maintained and improved through consistent range of motion (ROM) exercises, and what is the primary goal of these exercises?
A) The physical therapist; to develop a personalized exercise plan for each resident
B) The certified nurse assistant (CNA); to prevent muscle atrophy and maintain joint flexibility
C) The registered nurse (RN); to monitor overall health and implement care plans
D) The resident’s primary care physician; to prescribe physical therapy sessions
B) The certified nurse assistant (CNA); to prevent muscle atrophy and maintain joint flexibility
Following a fall, within the first 24-72 hours, what is the minimum frequency at which a resident’s vital signs should be monitored to promptly identify potential complications, and why is this frequency important?
A) Once every 8 hours; to ensure gradual recovery without overwhelming the resident
B) Once every 24 hours; to maintain a regular check without causing undue stress
C) Once every 4 hours; to quickly detect any signs of internal injury or deterioration
D) Once every 12 hours; to balance thorough monitoring with adequate rest periods for the resident
C) Once every 4 hours; to quickly detect any signs of internal injury or deterioration
Which of the following is an example of a subjective statement from a resident?
A) “My temperature is 98.6 degrees.”
B) “I have a rash on my arm.”
C) “I feel dizzy and nauseous.”
D) “My blood pressure is 120/80.”
C) “I feel dizzy and nauseous.”
In the context of resident care, which of the following statements exemplifies a subjective observation that a CNA should document and report, and why is it crucial to consider subjective observations in resident care?
A) “My blood pressure reading was 130/85 this morning.” because it provides quantitative data.
B) “I noticed a red spot on my skin today.” because it helps in identifying potential skin conditions.
C) “I feel an intense, sharp pain in my lower abdomen that gets worse after meals.” because it provides insight into the resident’s personal experience and potential underlying conditions.
D) “My heart rate is consistently at 70 beats per minute.” because it indicates stable cardiovascular function.
C) “I feel an intense, sharp pain in my lower abdomen that gets worse after meals.” because it provides insight into the resident’s personal experience and potential underlying conditions.
Which of the following best describes the primary goals and characteristics of an acute care setting for nursing assistants?
A) Provides long-term care for chronic illnesses, aims to maintain resident stability over time, and is less costly than other care settings
B) Provides short-term care for immediate illnesses or injuries, aims to address immediate healthcare needs and stabilize conditions, and is typically the most expensive care setting
C) Offers end-of-life care, focuses on palliative treatment, and is funded primarily by hospice organizations
D) Offers routine check-ups and preventive care, focuses on maintaining overall health, and is typically surveyed annually by the state health department
B) Provides short-term care for immediate illnesses or injuries, aims to address immediate healthcare needs and stabilize conditions, and is typically the most expensive care setting
Regarding the accreditation and surveying of acute care settings, which of the following statements is correct?
A) Most acute care settings are accredited by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) and are surveyed annually
B) Most acute care settings are accredited by the Joint Commission and are surveyed at least once every 3 years
C) Acute care settings do not require accreditation but are surveyed every 5 years by state health departments
D) Acute care settings are accredited by the American Medical Association (AMA) and are surveyed biennially
B) Most acute care settings are accredited by the Joint Commission and are surveyed at least once every 3 years
Which combination of responsibilities is crucial for a nursing assistant working in an acute care setting to ensure both immediate and ongoing patient needs are met, and why?
A) Administering medications, diagnosing illnesses, and performing surgeries; because these tasks address critical health interventions.
B) Measuring intake and output, bathing and repositioning residents, and caring for residents before and after surgery; because these tasks ensure comprehensive care and patient comfort.
C) Scheduling follow-up appointments, providing nutritional advice, and conducting physical therapy; because these tasks are essential for long-term recovery and rehabilitation.
D) Vital signs monitoring, ambulation assistance, and bathing and repositioning residents; because these tasks are foundational to patient safety, hygiene, and mobility in an acute care setting.
D) Vital signs monitoring, ambulation assistance, and bathing and repositioning residents; because these tasks are foundational to patient safety, hygiene, and mobility in an acute care setting.
When caring for a resident before and after surgery in an acute care setting, which combination of tasks should a nursing assistant prioritize to prevent complications and promote recovery, and why?
A) Ambulation, measuring intake and output, and repositioning; because these tasks help prevent postoperative complications such as blood clots, dehydration, and pressure ulcers.
B) Administering medications, providing emotional support, and diagnosing conditions; because these tasks address the resident’s immediate medical and psychological needs.
C) Performing diagnostic tests, preparing meals, and scheduling physical therapy sessions; because these tasks ensure comprehensive postoperative care.
D) Scheduling follow-up appointments, providing discharge instructions, and offering financial advice; because these tasks help prepare the resident for a smooth transition home.
A) Ambulation, measuring intake and output, and repositioning; because these tasks help prevent postoperative complications such as blood clots, dehydration, and pressure ulcers.
Why is it essential for a nursing assistant to accurately measure and document a resident’s intake and output in an acute care setting, and what could be the consequences of errors in this documentation?
A) It is essential to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance; errors could lead to inaccurate treatment plans and potential worsening of the resident’s condition.
B) It helps track the resident’s nutritional status; errors could lead to malnutrition and weight loss.
C) It assists in monitoring the resident’s recovery progress; errors could result in delayed discharge and increased hospital stay.
D) It is necessary for billing purposes; errors could lead to financial discrepancies and insurance issues.
A) It is essential to ensure proper hydration and electrolyte balance; errors could lead to inaccurate treatment plans and potential worsening of the resident’s condition.
What distinguishes sub-acute care facilities from acute care facilities, and what is their primary focus?
A) Sub-acute care facilities provide end-of-life care and are less regulated; their primary focus is on palliative treatment.
B) Sub-acute care facilities offer outpatient services and short-term care; their primary focus is on emergency interventions.
C) Sub-acute care facilities treat residents requiring 24-hour skilled nursing care but are more medically stable; their primary focus is on patient education to prevent future hospitalizations and return to prior function.
D) Sub-acute care facilities provide chronic disease management and are more expensive; their primary focus is on long-term stabilization and continuous treatment.
C) Sub-acute care facilities treat residents requiring 24-hour skilled nursing care but are more medically stable; their primary focus is on patient education to prevent future hospitalizations and return to prior function.
Which regulatory bodies govern sub-acute care facilities, and how does the location of the unit affect this governance?
A) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) regardless of location.
B) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the Joint Commission if the unit is located in a hospital and by state regulators if the unit is housed within a long-term care (LTC) facility.
C) Sub-acute care facilities are governed exclusively by state regulators, irrespective of their location.
D) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the American Medical Association (AMA) if located in a hospital and by federal regulators if within an LTC facility.
B) Sub-acute care facilities are governed by the Joint Commission if the unit is located in a hospital and by state regulators if the unit is housed within a long-term care (LTC) facility.
What is the key goal of patient education in sub-acute care facilities, and why is this important for residents?
A) To ensure residents understand their billing statements; this prevents financial disputes and ensures timely payments.
B) To provide residents with knowledge about their medications; this ensures compliance and proper medication administration.
C) To prevent future hospitalizations and help residents return to their prior level of function; this reduces healthcare costs and promotes independence.
D) To educate residents about the facility’s policies and procedures; this enhances their understanding of the care environment.
C) To prevent future hospitalizations and help residents return to their prior level of function; this reduces healthcare costs and promotes independence.
Why might a resident be transferred from an acute care facility to a sub-acute care facility, and what are the expected outcomes of such a transfer?
A) A resident might be transferred for specialized surgical procedures; the expected outcome is immediate recovery and discharge.
B) A resident might be transferred to receive long-term palliative care; the expected outcome is enhanced comfort and end-of-life care.
C) A resident might be transferred because they require less intensive monitoring and more focused rehabilitation; the expected outcome is improved function and reduced risk of rehospitalization.
D) A resident might be transferred for outpatient diagnostic testing; the expected outcome is quick results and a return to the acute care facility.
C) A resident might be transferred because they require less intensive monitoring and more focused rehabilitation; the expected outcome is improved function and reduced risk of rehospitalization.
Which of the following best describes the primary goal and regulatory framework of long-term care facilities, commonly known as nursing homes or skilled nursing facilities (SNFs)?
A) To provide emergency care and acute treatment; governed by the Joint Commission and funded primarily by private insurance.
B) To offer short-term rehabilitation and outpatient services; regulated exclusively by state health departments and funded by Medicare.
C) To provide skilled nursing care for an extended period of time; governed by the federal legislation OBRA of 1987 and regulated by the state.
D) To ensure palliative care and end-of-life support; surveyed biannually and funded by private donations and state grants.
C) To provide skilled nursing care for an extended period of time; governed by the federal legislation OBRA of 1987 and regulated by the state.
Which of the following is a key requirement for long-term care facilities under the federal legislation OBRA of 1987, and why is this requirement important?
A) Facilities must conduct daily health assessments; this ensures continuous monitoring of resident health.
B) Facilities must be surveyed at least every year; this ensures compliance with federal and state regulations.
C) Facilities must employ only board-certified physicians; this ensures high medical standards.
D) Facilities must provide transportation services; this ensures residents can attend external medical appointments.
B) Facilities must be surveyed at least every year; this ensures compliance with federal and state regulations.
What are the primary funding sources for long-term care facilities, and how do these sources impact the availability and quality of care provided?
A) State grants and private donations; these ensure a limited but consistent funding stream.
B) Medicaid, Medicare, insurance, and private funds; these provide a diverse funding base, enabling comprehensive and sustained care.
C) Out-of-pocket payments and charitable contributions; these restrict the facility’s ability to provide extensive care.
D) Federal subsidies and local taxes; these ensure funding but may limit the variety of services offered.
B) Medicaid, Medicare, insurance, and private funds; these provide a diverse funding base, enabling comprehensive and sustained care.
How do state regulations complement federal laws in the governance of long-term care facilities, and what is the outcome of this regulatory structure?
A) State regulations often replace federal laws, leading to varied standards of care.
B) State regulations enhance federal laws by enforcing them and addressing specific local needs, leading to consistent and high-quality care.
C) State regulations are less stringent than federal laws, resulting in lower compliance rates.
D) State regulations primarily focus on administrative tasks, with minimal impact on resident care quality.
B) State regulations enhance federal laws by enforcing them and addressing specific local needs, leading to consistent and high-quality care.
Which of the following tasks falls within the scope of practice for a nursing assistant and why is it critical for the assistant to adhere to these guidelines?
A) Developing a resident’s care plan; because it ensures personalized care.
B) Providing basic personal care; because it directly impacts the resident’s daily comfort and hygiene.
C) Delivering medications; because it ensures timely treatment.
D) Teaching residents new medical procedures; because it empowers residents with knowledge.
B) Providing basic personal care; because it directly impacts the resident’s daily comfort and hygiene.
Which of the following tasks is outside the scope of practice for a nursing assistant, and what could be the consequence of performing such a task?
A) Assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs); this could lead to improved resident independence.
B) Providing emotional support to residents; this helps in reducing resident anxiety.
C) Inserting IVs or catheters; this could result in serious medical complications and legal consequences.
D) Offering dementia care; this enhances the quality of life for residents with cognitive impairments.
C) Inserting IVs or catheters; this could result in serious medical complications and legal consequences.
Why is it important for a nursing assistant to understand their scope of practice, and how does this knowledge affect their professional conduct?
A) It allows them to take on additional medical tasks; this leads to faster resident recovery.
B) It ensures they perform only approved duties; this reduces the risk of harm and enhances patient safety.
C) It gives them the authority to delegate tasks to other staff; this improves workflow efficiency.
D) It permits them to make independent medical decisions; this ensures timely interventions.
B) It ensures they perform only approved duties; this reduces the risk of harm and enhances patient safety.
Which of the following is a responsibility included in the scope of practice for a nursing assistant, and what is its significance in resident care?
A) Teaching new medical techniques; it helps in resident education.
B) Offering emotional support to residents and families; it helps in building trust and providing holistic care.
C) Developing and changing care plans; it ensures the care plan remains updated.
D) Delivering medications; it ensures proper medication administration.
B) Offering emotional support to residents and families; it helps in building trust and providing holistic care.
Which activity should a nursing assistant avoid to remain within their scope of practice, and what is the correct course of action if asked to perform such a task?
A) Assisting with personal hygiene; they should perform this task as it is within their scope.
B) Providing restorative care; they should perform this task as it is within their scope.
C) Delegating tasks to other staff; they should refuse and explain that delegation is outside their scope.
D) Assisting with ambulation; they should perform this task as it is within their scope.
C) Delegating tasks to other staff; they should refuse and explain that delegation is outside their scope.
Scope of Practice for the Nursing
Assistant
INCLUDES
INCLUDES
– Providing basic personal care
– Offering emotional support to
residents and families
– Providing dementia care
– Assisting with activities of daily
living (ADLs)
– Providing restorative care
Scope of Practice for the Nursing
Assistant
DOES NOT INCLUDE
DOES NOT INCLUDE
– Delivering medications
– Putting in catheters or IVs
– Developing or changing a
resident’s care plan
– Teaching
– Delegation
What is the correct order of the chain of command in a healthcare facility, starting from the highest level of authority?
A) Nursing Assistant, Staff Nurse, Unit Manager, Director of Nursing, Administration
B) Administration, Director of Nursing, Unit Manager, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant
C) Director of Nursing, Administration, Unit Manager, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant
D) Administration, Unit Manager, Director of Nursing, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant
B) Administration, Director of Nursing, Unit Manager, Staff Nurse, Nursing Assistant
In the event of a medical emergency, to whom should a Nursing Assistant report the situation first according to the chain of command?
A) Administration
B) Director of Nursing
C) Unit Manager
D) Staff Nurse
D) Staff Nurse
What is Title 22, and what areas does it govern within the healthcare system?
A) A federal regulation that oversees hospital funding; it governs healthcare facilities and nurse practitioner programs.
B) A set of state laws that govern healthcare facilities, nurse aide training programs, and minimum standards of care for long-term care residents.
C) An international treaty on healthcare practices; it governs global health initiatives and international nurse exchanges.
D) A state law focused on emergency medical services; it governs ambulance services and emergency care protocols.
B) A set of state laws that govern healthcare facilities, nurse aide training programs, and minimum standards of care for long-term care residents.
Which of the following is a requirement for nursing assistant candidates under Title 22?
A) Completing a minimum of 40 hours of community service.
B) Passing both a written and skill exam to be certified.
C) Obtaining a bachelor’s degree in nursing.
D) Completing an international internship program.
B) Passing both a written and skill exam to be certified.
Why must nursing assistant candidates have a criminal record clearance at the time of certification and every two years thereafter under Title 22?
A) To ensure they are eligible for higher wages.
B) To comply with federal guidelines for workplace safety.
C) To maintain the safety and well-being of long-term care residents by ensuring that individuals with a criminal background are not in caregiving roles.
D) To allow for transferability of their certification to other states
C) To maintain the safety and well-being of long-term care residents by ensuring that individuals with a criminal background are not in caregiving roles.
What is the significance of Title 22 in setting minimum standards of care for long-term care residents, and how does it impact the quality of care provided?
A) It provides guidelines for nurse salaries; it ensures competitive compensation.
B) It establishes the minimum standards of care that must be met, thereby ensuring a consistent and high level of care for long-term care residents.
C) It offers financial incentives to long-term care facilities; it improves their profitability.
D) It dictates the architectural design of care facilities; it ensures a comfortable living environment.
B) It establishes the minimum standards of care that must be met, thereby ensuring a consistent and high level of care for long-term care residents.
How does Title 22 ensure the competency of nursing assistants entering the workforce?
A) By requiring ongoing education and annual exams.
B) By mandating that nursing assistants participate in research studies.
C) By requiring completion of an approved training program and successful passage of both written and skill exams.
D) By setting a minimum age requirement for nursing assistant candidates.
C) By requiring completion of an approved training program and successful passage of both written and skill exams.
What is the minimum number of training hours required by federal law for nursing assistant training programs?
A) 50 hours
B) 75 hours
C) 100 hours
D) 125 hours
Answer: B) 75 hours
How does the state of California’s requirement for nursing assistant training hours compare to the federal minimum?
A) California requires the same minimum number of hours as the federal law.
B) California requires more hours than the federal minimum, with at least 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training.
C) California requires fewer hours than the federal minimum.
D) California has no specific requirements beyond the federal minimum.
B) California requires more hours than the federal minimum, with at least 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training.
Why is it significant that certification allows nurse aides to work in federally funded facilities?
A) It provides nurse aides with higher salaries.
B) It ensures that nurse aides can work in a broader range of healthcare settings, including those that receive federal funding, which often have stringent quality and compliance standards.
C) It guarantees job placement upon certification.
D) It allows nurse aides to bypass state regulations.
B) It ensures that nurse aides can work in a broader range of healthcare settings, including those that receive federal funding, which often have stringent quality and compliance standards.
Which of the following statements about nursing assistant training programs is true?
A) All states require exactly 75 hours of training as mandated by federal law.
B) Some states require more than the federally mandated 75 hours of training.
C) No state requires more than the federal minimum of 75 hours.
D) States cannot set their own training requirements and must adhere strictly to federal guidelines.
B) Some states require more than the federally mandated 75 hours of training.
What are the components of the state of California’s nursing assistant training program, and how do they contribute to the preparedness of the nurse aide?
A) 60 hours of online coursework and 100 hours of internship; these components provide theoretical knowledge and practical experience.
B) 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training; these components ensure a solid foundation of knowledge and hands-on experience necessary for competent care.
C) 75 hours of self-study modules; these components allow for flexible learning schedules.
D) 50 hours of classroom instruction and 50 hours of online training; these components balance theoretical and practical learning.
B) 60 hours of classroom training and 100 hours of clinical training; these components ensure a solid foundation of knowledge and hands-on experience necessary for competent care.
What are the continuing education requirements for nursing assistants in the state of California to maintain their certification?
A) 24 hours of in-service training every year.
B) 48 hours of in-service training every 24 months, with a minimum of 12 hours each year.
C) 60 hours of continuing education every 24 months.
D) 36 hours of in-service training every year
B) 48 hours of in-service training every 24 months, with a minimum of 12 hours each year.
What is the maximum number of in-service training hours that can be completed online during the 24-month certification period in California?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 36 hours
D) 48 hours
B) 24 hours
If a nursing assistant in California completes only 10 hours of in-service training in the first year of their 2-year certification period, what must they do in the second year to meet the state requirements?
A) Complete 38 hours of in-service training in the second year.
B) Complete 12 hours of in-service training in the second year.
C) Complete 24 hours of in-service training in the second year.
D) Complete 48 hours of in-service training in the second year.
A) Complete 38 hours of in-service training in the second year.
Why does the state of California limit the number of continuing education hours that can be completed online for nursing assistants?
A) To ensure that nursing assistants do not become too reliant on digital resources.
B) To promote hands-on training and interaction, which are crucial for practical skills and real-life scenarios.
C) To encourage nursing assistants to attend more conferences and seminars.
D) To ensure that training providers can charge more for in-person sessions.
B) To promote hands-on training and interaction, which are crucial for practical skills and real-life scenarios.
What could be a consequence for a nursing assistant in California if they fail to complete the required 48 hours of in-service training within the 24-month period?
A) They may have to retake their certification exams.
B) They will automatically receive an extension to complete the hours.
C) Their certification may lapse, making them ineligible to work until they meet the continuing education requirements.
D) They will receive a fine but can continue working without interruption.
C) Their certification may lapse, making them ineligible to work until they meet the continuing education requirements.
Recertification:
Required every 2 years
A nursing assistant who works for an assisted-living facility can expect to:
A) Have different resident assignments daily.
B) Take frequent vital signs.
C) Spend most of the shift giving one-on-one care.
D) Help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning.
Answer: D) Help with basic needs such as bathing, cooking, and cleaning
Mr. Krieger has been able to take care of himself at home, but he has been forgetting to take his medications and occasionally wanders away and becomes lost. Because he lives alone, his family is concerned for him and wants to ensure that he is safe. The BEST option for Mr. Krieger would be to:
A) Hire a nursing assistant from a hospice agency.
B) Move into a community-based residential facility.
C) Receive daily skilled nursing care.
D) Have a home healthcare agency set up his medications for him.
Answer: B) Move into a community-based residential facility.
In the state of California, a nurse aide training course must include:
A) 60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
B) 60 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical.
C) 75 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
D) 100 hours of theory and 60 hours of clinical.
Answer: A) 60 hours of theory and 100 hours of clinical.
What does the California Code of Regulations (Title 22) provide information about, and why is it important for nursing assistants to be familiar with it?
A) Federal healthcare policies; it helps in understanding national regulations.
B) Nurse aide training programs and other healthcare licensing regulations; being familiar with Title 22 ensures compliance with regulations and supports the care given.
C) International nursing standards; it ensures global compliance.
D) State tax laws; it helps in financial planning.
Answer: B) Nurse aide training programs and other healthcare licensing regulations; being familiar with Title 22 ensures compliance with regulations and supports the care given.
According to California Title 22, what is required of skilled nursing facilities that employ nursing assistants?
A) Provide annual retreats for team building.
B) Offer an orientation to the facility, ensuring that nursing assistants are familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.
C) Mandate a minimum of 100 hours of training before employment.
D) Provide online training modules only.
Answer: B) Offer an orientation to the facility, ensuring that nursing assistants are familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.
What are the primary components of the first 8 hours of orientation for nursing assistants in a skilled nursing facility as per California Title 22?
A) Hands-on patient care experience and direct supervision.
B) Becoming familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.
C) Completing administrative tasks and paperwork.
D) Conducting research and preparing reports.
Answer: B) Becoming familiar with the facility, resident population, emergency procedures, and equipment.
During the second 8 hours of orientation in a skilled nursing facility, what key areas are covered according to California Title 22?
A) Advanced medical procedures and surgical techniques.
B) Patient care policies, how to keep residents comfortable, and legal and ethical considerations of caregiving.
C) Financial management and budgeting for healthcare facilities.
D) Marketing and public relations for healthcare services.
Answer: B) Patient care policies, how to keep residents comfortable, and legal and ethical considerations of caregiving.
Why is it crucial for nursing assistants to understand the legal and ethical considerations of caregiving as part of their orientation under California Title 22?
A) To ensure they can perform medical procedures without supervision.
B) To provide them with the skills needed for administrative roles.
C) To help them navigate and comply with legal requirements, thus ensuring high-quality, ethical care for residents.
D) To prepare them for roles in healthcare marketing and communications.
Answer: C) To help them navigate and comply with legal requirements, thus ensuring high-quality, ethical care for residents.
Which of the following best defines negligence in a healthcare setting, and what is an example of this behavior?
A) Providing extra care and attention beyond what is required; failing to follow advanced care plans.
B) Not following the standards of the job or role; failing to toilet a resident every 2 hours as indicated on the care plan.
C) Voluntarily staying beyond assigned shifts; attending to all residents equally.
D) Limiting a resident’s mobility for safety reasons; locking wheelchair brakes at a dining table.
Answer: B) Not following the standards of the job or role; failing to toilet a resident every 2 hours as indicated on the care plan.
What constitutes abandonment in a healthcare setting, and what are the potential risks associated with it?
A) Taking extended breaks during a shift; increasing workload for colleagues.
B) Leaving an assignment before the shift ends or before a replacement arrives; leaving residents alone and at risk.
C) Delegating tasks to untrained staff; reducing quality of care.
D) Restricting residents’ movements for safety; causing emotional distress.
Answer: B) Leaving an assignment before the shift ends or before a replacement arrives; leaving residents alone and at risk.
