Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Therapeutic interventions > Week 6 > Flashcards

Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What is muscle performance?

A

The capacity of a muscle to do work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is work?

A

force x distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the components of things that make up muscle performance?

A
  • Strength
  • Power
  • Endurance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is muscle strength?

A

The ability of contractile tissue to produce tension and a resultant force based on the demands placed on a muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the alternate definition for muscle strength?

A

The greatest measurable force that can be exerted by a muscle or muscle group to overcome resistance during a single maximum effort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is absolute strength?

A

How much weight can be exerted(push, pull, or lift)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

___ has more absolute strength than ___

A

Males has more absolute strength than females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is relative strength?

A

How much weight can be exerted, with regards to the cross- sectional area of a muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is relative strength like in males and females?

A

Relative strength is equal in males and females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The bigger a person is, the ___ strength to mass ratio they have

A

The bigger a person is, the less strength to mass ratio they have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the benefits of resistance training?

A
  • Enhanced muscle performance
  • Improve strength of connective tissue
  • Decreased stress on joints
  • Improved balance
  • Positive changes to body composition
  • Improve bone mineral density
  • Enhanced insulin action
  • Increased resting metabolic rate
  • Improve perception of quality of life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the risks of resistance training?

A
  • Soreness
  • Increased BP
  • Joint or soft tissue injury if done incorrectly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the principles of resistance training?

A
  • Overload principle
  • SAID principle
  • Reversibility Principle
  • Fiber types
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the overload principle?

A

If muscle performance is to improve, a load that exceeds the metabolic capacity of the muscle must be provided. The muscle must be challenged to perform at a level greater than that to which it is accustomed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does SAID stand for?

A

Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the characteristics of the SAID principle?

A
  • A framework of specificity is necessary foundation on which exercise programs should be built
  • An extension of Wolf’s law
  • Exercises incorporated in a program should mimic the anticipated function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the concept of the reversibility principle?

A

Adaptive changes in the body’s systems, such as increases strength or endurance, are transient unless training induced improvements are regularly used for functional activities, or unless an individual participates in a maintenance program of resistance exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the contraction speed of a type 1 slow oxidative fiber?

A

Slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the contraction speed of a type 2 fast oxidative glycolytic fiber?

A

Fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the contraction speed of a type 2b fast glycolytic fiber?

A

Fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the force production of a type 1 slow oxidative fiber?

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the force production of a type 2 fast oxidative glycolytic fiber?

A

Intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the force production of a type 2b fast glycolytic fiber?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the fatiguability of a type 1 slow oxidative fiber?

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the fatiguability of a type 2 fast oxidative glycolytic fiber?

A

Intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the fatiguability of a type 2b fast glycolytic fiber?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the capillary density of a type 1 slow oxidative fiber?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the capillary density of a type 2 fast oxidative glycolytic fiber?

A

Intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the capillary density of a type 2b fast glycolytic fiber?

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the fiber diameter of a type 1 slow oxidative fiber?

A

Small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the fiber diameter of a type 2 fast oxidative glycolytic fiber?

A

Intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the fiber diameter of a type 2b fast glycolytic fiber?

A

Large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the mitochondria density of a type 1 slow oxidative fiber?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the mitochondria density of a type 2a fast oxidative glycolytic fiber?

A

Intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the mitochondria density of a type 2b fast glycolytic fiber?

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of metabolism do type 1 slow oxidative muscle fibers use?

A

Anaerobic and aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of metabolism do type 2 fast oxidative glycolytic muscle fibers use?

A

Anaerobic and aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of metabolism do type 2b fast glycolytic muscle fibers use?

A

Anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What happens to the size of muscle fibers during resistance training?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens to the size of muscle fibers during aerobic training?

A

No change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens to the number of muscle fibers during resistance training?

A

No change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What happens to the number of muscle fibers during aerobic training?

A

No change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens to the movement speed of fibers during resistance training?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What happens to the movement speed of fibers during aerobic training?

A

No change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What happens to the strength of fibers during resistance training?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What happens to the strength of fibers during aerobic training?

A

No change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What happens to the aerobic capacity of fibers during resistance training?

A

No change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What happens to the aerobic capacity of fibers during aerobic training?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What happens to the anaerobic capacity of fibers during resistance training?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens to the anaerobic capacity of fibers during aerobic training?

A

No change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the biological energy system?

A

The replenishment of ATP in human skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 3 basic energy system for the biological energy system?

A
  • Phosphagen (ATP-CP)
  • Glycolytic (Lactate)
  • Oxidative (Aerobic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system responsible for?

A

Immediate functioning of muscle, without the demands of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the fuel source of the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system?

A

Phosphor Creatine (PC) or Creatine Phosphate: same thing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the intensity of activity created by the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system?

A

High: >95% max HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the duration of system being dominant activity created by the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system?

A

Short: 1-5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How long does the peak power created by the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system last?

A

2-4 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the amount of ATP produced by the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system?

A

Small: 0.7 ATP each PC molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the speed by which ATP is produced by the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system?

A

Explosive: relies on simple chemical reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the by- products produced by the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system?

A

Inorganic Phosphates (Pi) ADP & AMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

___ system is next in line for when the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system has ran its course

A

Lactic acid system is next in line for when the Phosphagen (ATP-CP) energy system has ran its course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

is oxygen required for the lactic acid system, which functions through gylcolysis?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

After about 45-50 secs, it gets ___ to maintain energy

A

After about 45-50 secs, it gets harder to maintain energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the fuel source of the lactic acid system?

A

Glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the intensity of exercise of the lactic acid system?

A

High: 85% of max HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the duration of system being dominant activity created by the lactic acid system?

A

Intermediate duration 5-60 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How long does the peak power created by the lactic acid system energy system last?

A

5-15 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the amount of ATP produced by the lactic acid system?

A

Small 2-3 ATP each glucose molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the speed by which ATP is produced by the lactic acid system?

A

Fast: Longer chemical reactions than ATP system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the by- products produced by the lactic acid system?

A

Lactic Acid, H+ ions, ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

___ system is the one that you use to do low level work and last for a long period of time

A

Aerobic system is the one that you use to do low level work and last for a long period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the fuel source of the aerobic system?

A
  • Rest: FFA’s and CHO
  • Submax activities: CHO, fats when CHO diminished;
  • Protein in extreme conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the intensity of exercise of the aerobic system?

A
  • Rest

- Submax activity: under 80% max HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the duration of system being dominant activity created by the aerobic system?

A

Long duration: >75 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How long does the peak power created by the aerobic system energy system last?

A

60-90 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the amount of ATP produced by the aerobic system?

A

Lots (endless!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the by- products produced by the aerobic system?

A

CO2, H20 heat

78
Q

What is the lactate threshold?

A

Exercise intensity at which blood lactate begins an abrupt increase above baseline concentration

79
Q

What are the questions to ask when trying to determine the repetitions and sets of exercises?

A
  • How much weight am I moving?
  • What is my goal?
  • What fiber type am I taxing?
  • Is this early or late in my session?
  • How are the patients mechanics? Are they even doing it right?
80
Q

What happens to muscle fiber size and mass from infancy to puberty?

A

Muscle fiber size and mass increase

linearly from infancy to puberty

81
Q

In what gender is muscle strength and mass slightly greater?

A

Muscle strength (absolute & relative) and mass slightly greater in boys than girls

82
Q

Why don’t we see muscular little kids?

A

Training-induced strength gains occur equally in sexes without evidence of hypertrophy until puberty

83
Q

What happens to our muscles/ strength during puberty?

A
  • Rapid acceleration in muscle fiber size & mass
  • Rapid increase in muscle strength
  • Gender discrepancies begin
84
Q

What are the gender discrepancies that begin in the body as related to the muscle during puberty?

A
  • males: mass peaks before strength

* girls: strength peaks before mass

85
Q

What is the age range for males and females muscle mass peak?

A

Females between 16-20; males 18-25

86
Q

At what age do we begin to experience a decrease in muscle mass?

A

Decrease in muscle mass starts at age 25

87
Q

When does our strength begin to decline?

A

After 3rd decade, strength declines 8-10% per decade through 5th or 6th decade

88
Q

What are the presentations of the muscle and strength in late adulthood (70s and beyond)

A
  • Decreased speed of contractions and peak power
  • Loss of flexibility
  • With a resistance training program, a significant improvement in muscle strength, power, and endurance is possible
89
Q

What are the clinical considerations for the youth?

A
  • Keep it simple
  • Keep it fun
  • Do not isolate
  • Change often
  • Games, games, games
  • Involve parent
90
Q

What are the effects of a properly designed and supervised resistance training program for kids?

A
  1. is relatively safe for youth
  2. can enhance the muscular strength and power of youth
  3. can improve the cardiovascular risk profile of youth
  4. can improve motor skill performance end may contribute to enhanced sports performance of youth
  5. can increase a young athlete’s resistance to sports-related injuries
  6. can help improve the psychosocial well-being of youth
  7. can help promote and develop exercise habits during childhood and adolescence
91
Q

What are the characteristics of resistance training in geriatric patients?

A
  • Probably need it even more than youth
  • Strong dose-response
  • Progressive strength training in the elderly, even in high intensities, is effective to reduce sarcopenia and retain motor function
  • Adding sensorimotor components to strength training, to improve postural control, is imperative in a multimodal training program
92
Q

What is the goal of resistance training in geriatric patients?

A

Goal is to increase muscle mass (hypertrophy), and also promote neuronal adaption (intermuscular and intramuscular coordination)

93
Q

What are the characteristics of resistance training in females?

A
  • Longer neural adaptation period required for more complex, multipoint movements
  • Psychological characteristics the same as in males, so no sensible reason why their programs needs to be different
94
Q

___ in contrast to traditional pharmacological and nutritional approaches has a huge impact in reducing and preventing osteoporosis

A

High-intensity resistance training, in contrast to traditional pharmacological and nutritional approaches has a huge impact in reducing and preventing osteoporosis

95
Q

What are the adverse reactions to resistance training?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Over training
  • Overwork
  • Acute muscle soreness
  • Delayed onset muscle soreness
  • Rhabdomyolysis
96
Q

What are the characteristics of hypertension as an adverse reaction?

A
  • Monitor for breath holding
  • Ask the patient to breath rhythmically, count, or talk
  • Exhale when lifting and inhale when lowering
  • High-risk patients should avoid high intensity resistance exercise
97
Q

What does overtraining as an adverse reaction do?

A
  • Decline in physical performance
    • chronic fatigue, staleness, burnout
  • Loss of interest in program
98
Q

When do you see overwork as an adverse reaction?

A

• Secondary to underlying neuromuscular disorder

99
Q

What are the characteristics of acute muscle soreness?

A
  • Common
  • Lack of adequate blood flow and oxygen
  • Temporary buildup of metabolites (lactic acid & potassium)
  • Characterizes as burning, aching, and tightness
100
Q

What causes delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)?

A

Not well understood, but we think it is a product of inflammation cause by microscopic tears in connective tissue elements that sensitive nociceptors and thereby heighten the sensation of pain

101
Q

Is an acute muscle soreness OK in PT?

A

Yes. we actually lowkey want that

102
Q

Are DOMS(up to 24 hrs or more) OK in PT?

A

NO! No bueno

103
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis?

A

Pushing a patient so hard that they get damaged skeletal striated muscle that breaks down rapidly which leads to the release of myoglobin into the blood stream, and patients end up with severe muscle pain, vomiting, confusion.

104
Q

What are the presentations of rhabdomyolysis?

A
  • Bilateral
  • Extreme pain
  • Extreme tenderness and ROM deficits
  • Possible ECG changes
  • Coke colored pee
105
Q

What do you do if there is no significant bilateral muscle soreness 24- 48 hrs post exercise?

A

Continue exercise regimen

106
Q

What do you do if there is significant bilateral muscle soreness 24- 48 hrs post exercise?

A

Check for bilateral swelling of involved muscles and check for coke colored urine

107
Q

What do you do if the patient has bilateral swelling of involved muscles and coke colored urine?

A

Refer to the emergency room

108
Q

What do you do if the patient does not have bilateral swelling of involved muscles and coke colored urine?

A

Continue exercise routine and modify as necessary

109
Q

What is power?

A

Work (force x distance) produced by a muscle per unit of time/ Time rate of doing work

(force x distance/time)

110
Q

What is work?

A

Product of the force exerted on an object, and the distance the object moves in the direction in which the force is exerted.

(force x distance)

111
Q

What are the different ways that power can be seen?

A
  • Single burst of high energy
    * pick up a box
  • Repeated bursts of a less intense activity
    * climbing a flight of stairs
  • Variables to increase power
    • increase load
      * decrease time
112
Q

What is energy?

A

The ability to do work

113
Q

What are the types of power?

A
  • Anaerobic

- Aerobic

114
Q

What is anaerobic power?

A

Reflects the ability of the adenosine triphosphate and phosphocreatine (ATP-PCr) energy pathways to produce energy for muscle contraction

115
Q

What is aerobic power?

A

Indicates the oxygen intake per unit of body weight and is directly correlated to performance in activities lasting 5-15 minutes

116
Q

What is the stretch- shortening cycle (SSC)?

A

An active stretch or eccentric contraction of a muscle, followed by immediate shortening or a concentric contraction of the same muscle

117
Q

The most generally reported mechanism believed to drive the stretch shortening cycle induced enhancement of maximal power is the ____

A

The most generally reported mechanism believed to drive the stretch shortening cycle induced enhancement of maximal power is the storage and utilization of elastic energy

118
Q

The relationship between the __ and ___ elements of muscle action plays a significant role in enhancing muscle performance

A

The relationship between the contractile and elastic elements of muscle action plays a significant role in enhancing muscle performance

119
Q

What are the ways that interaction of contractile and elastic elements can influence perfomance?

A
  • Elastic energy is stored in the tendinous structures, and can be utilized with minimal dissipation via the tendon recoils during concentric contraction
  • Minimal displacement of muscle fibers during SSC means they do operate closer toe their optimal length (thus, more force)
  • While net shortening velocity of the MTU is high, fascicle length change occurs at relatively slow velocity; thus fascicles are able to generate high forces according to the force-velocity relationship
120
Q

How do spinal reflexes influence power?

A

Forced lengthening of the MTU during eccentric phase of SSC causes a mechanical deformation of the muscle spindles, which activates reflex mechanisms (alpha motor neurons). This stretch reflex subsequently increase muscle stimulation, resulting in increased contraction force

121
Q

Maximal force generated by single muscle fiber is directly proportional to its ____, irrespective of the fiber type

A

Maximal force generated by single muscle fiber is directly proportional to its cross- sectional area, irrespective of the fiber type

122
Q

What is the pennation angle of a muscle?

A

The angle that which the muscle’s fasiscles is the line of action

123
Q

What happens as the pennation angle increases?

A

More sarcomeres can be arranged in parallel and the muscles can therefore produce more force. Muscle fibers shorten less for a given tendon displacement due to rotation of a pennate muscle fiber during contraction

124
Q

The force produced by a muscle is related to the ___

A

The force produced by a muscle is related to the number and type of motor units recruited

125
Q

Small motor neurons that initiate type 1 muscle fibers are usually activated at ___ levels of force, while larger motor neuron that initiate type 2a or 2b muscle fibers are activated ___

A

Small motor neurons that initiate type 1 muscle fibers are usually activated at low levels of force, while larger motor neuron that initiate type 2a or 2b muscle fibers are activated after the slow twitch muscle fibers at a higher threshold of force

126
Q

The threshold of motor unit recruitment are typically ___ during ballistic movements, due to rapid force escalation

A

The threshold of motor unit recruitment are typically lower during ballistic movements, due to rapid force escalation

127
Q

The motor unit firing frequency represents the ____

A

The motor unit firing frequency represents the rate of neural impulses transmitted to the alpha motor neuron to the muscle fibers

128
Q

The firing frequency of a motor unit can impact the ___

A

The firing frequency of a motor unit can impact the ability of muscle fiber to generate force in 2 main ways

129
Q

What are the ways that the firing frequency of a motor unit can impact the ability of muscle fiber to generate force?

A
  • Increase the firing frequency enhancing the magnitude of force generated by a contraction
  • Motor unit firing frequency impacts the force of muscle development during contraction
130
Q

____ utilizes the stretch‐shortening cycle (SSC) by using a lengthening movement (eccentric) which is quickly followed by a shortening movement (concentric).

A

Plyometric training utilizes the stretch‐shortening cycle (SSC) by using a lengthening movement (eccentric) which is quickly followed by a shortening movement (concentric).

131
Q

Plyometric training is often considered the missing link between ___ and ____

A

Plyometric training is often considered the missing link between strength and return to
performance

132
Q

What are the benefits of plyometric training?

A
  • Improved power
  • Improved agility
  • Increases strength of tendons
  • Boosts neuromuscular efficiency
  • Enhanced sport performance
133
Q

What are the risks of plyometric training?

A
  • Overuse
    • Back pain (Alexander, 1985)
    • Patellar tendonitis (Pezullo et al. 1992)
  • Trauma
  • DOMS
  • Increased ground reaction force
134
Q

What are the phases of plyometrics?

A
  • Eccentric Pre-Stretch
  • Amortization Phase (time to rebound)
  • Concentric Shortening Phase
135
Q

What does the eccentric pre-stretch phase of plyometrics do?

A

Stretches the muscle spindle of the musculo-tendinous unit and the non- contractile muscles within the tissue

136
Q

What are the stretch variables predicated by the eccentric pre-stretch phase of plyometrics?

A
  • Magnitude of the stretch
  • Rate of the stretch
  • Duration of the stretch
137
Q

The term amortization describes ___

A

The term amortization describes the time from the cessation of the eccentric pre- stretch to the onset of the concentric muscle action

138
Q

The amortization phase is the ___

A

The amortization phase is the time delay between overcoming the negative work of the eccentric pre-stretch to generating the force production and accelerating the muscle contraction and the elastic recoil in the direction of the plyometric contraction

139
Q

The shorter the amortization phase, the more___ and ___ the plyometric movement becomes

A

The shorter the amortization phase, the more effective and powerful the plyometric movement becomes

140
Q

What happens if the amortization phase is delayed?

A

The energy that is stored is wasted as heat and the stretch reflex is not activated and the resultant positive work of the positive contraction is not as effective

141
Q

The concentric shortening phase of plyometrics is also known as the ___

A

The concentric shortening phase of plyometrics is also known as the Resultant Power Production Performance Phase

142
Q

What are the ways to assess a plyometric contraction?

A

Tuck jump assessment

143
Q

What is the tuck jump assessment?

A

When you’re flat on the floor, and you jump to try to get your knees parallel to the ground

144
Q

What are the training variables to consider for plyometric training?

A
  • Neuromuscular Overload: Applied Loads & Distances
  • Spatial Overload: Range of Motion
  • Temporal Overload: Timing
  • Intensity
  • Frequency and recovery
  • Specificity
145
Q

In a plyometric exercise, neuromuscular overload takes form of __

A

In a plyometric exercise, neuromuscular overload takes form of a rapid change in direction or a limb or the entire body without external loads

146
Q

What are the things that contribute to the total overload amount of a neuromuscular overload?

A

The amount of total work with regard to reps and sets and the ROM the patient moves through

147
Q

How can temporal overload be accomplished in plyometric training?

A

By concentrating on executing the movement as rapidly and intensely as possible. the shorter the better

148
Q

What is intensity as it relates to plyometric training?

A

The percentage of effort required by the individual to perform the activity

149
Q

How long should an individual wait for recovery between plyometric trainings?

A

48- 72 hrs

150
Q

What are the plyometric progression for a beginner?

A
  • Squat jumps
  • Split squat jumps
  • Skipping
  • Lateral bounding
  • Ankle bounces
  • Single leg push off box
151
Q

What are the plyometric progression for a intermediate level?

A
  • Jump and reach
  • Medial and lateral jumps
  • Anterior and posterior jumps
  • Pike jumps
  • Jumping to box
  • Zigzag jumps
152
Q

What are the plyometric progression for an advanced level?

A
  • Depth jumps
  • Box jumps
  • Single leg hops
  • Drop jump to second box
  • Squat depth jump
  • Single leg tuck jump
153
Q

What is an isometric exercise?

A

An exercise where force is generated without change of length

154
Q

What is the rationale for performing isometric exercises, especially in the acute phase of care?

A
  • Prevent/minimize atrophy when joint movement is contraindicated
  • Protect joint
  • Develop postural or joint stability
  • Develop static strength
155
Q

What are the types of isometric exercises to consider doing?

A
  • Multiangle isometrics

* Stabilization exercises

156
Q

What are the characteristics of a Multiangle isometric exercise?

A
  • 4-6 angles

* Strength changes have about a ~10 degree overflow

157
Q

In regards to stabilization exercises, isometrics should be ___

A

In regards to stabilization exercises, isometrics should be submaximal, but sustained Don’t push the limit

158
Q

How long is an isometric exercise usually held?

A

6-10 secs

159
Q

Isometrics can ____ pain pressure threshold

A

Isometrics can increase pain pressure threshold

160
Q

What does isotonic mean?

A

Equal tension. Moving a joint through its full ROM, with some sort of external load

161
Q

What is the problem with thinking of an isotonic contraction as equal tension?

A

The contracting muscle is only challenged

maximally at 1 point in the ROM

162
Q

Isotonic contractions should be thought of as ___

A

Isotonic contractions should be thought of as *Dynamic Constant External Resistance *

163
Q

What are the motions we get under isotonic contractions?

A
  • Concentric

- Eccentric

164
Q

What is a concentric contraction?

A

Shortening of the muscle

165
Q

What does a concentric contraction cause?

A

Causes actual joint movement and excursion

166
Q

What is a eccentric contraction?

A

Lengthening of the muscle

167
Q

Max eccentric force ___ than concentric

A

Max eccentric force greater than concentric

168
Q

What is the downside of an eccentric contraction?

A

Risk of DOMS

169
Q

When should we use eccentric contractions?

A
  • Tendonosis
  • Jump training
  • Stair negotiation
  • Power development
  • Chronic hamstring injuries
170
Q

What are the things improved by an eccentric contraction?

A
  • Strength
  • Speed
  • Power
  • Stretch- shortening cycle performance
171
Q

___ is specifically designed resistance equipment imposing varying levels of resistance

A

Variable resistance is specifically designed resistance equipment imposing varying levels of resistance. They tend to load joints more effectively at multiple points in ROM

172
Q

Why are variable resistance more effective at multiple points in ROM?

A
  • Irregular shaped CAM’s
  • Weight-cable system or lever arm
  • Hydraulic or pneumatic
173
Q

___ machines move at constant speed

A

Isokinetic machines move at constant speed

174
Q

What are the characteristics of an isokinetic machine?

A
  • Range of training: 0-500 deg/s
  • Accommodates for a painful arc
  • Accommodation to muscle fatigue
175
Q

What are the limitations of an isokinetic machine?

A
  • facility dependent
  • > $40,000
  • speed limitations
  • limited carryover
  • isolates single muscle group
  • open-chain
176
Q

What is an open kinetic chain (OKC)?

A

When the the distal end of the extremity is not fixed, allowing the joint to function independently without necessarily causing motion at another joint

177
Q

OKC exercises are typically done in what position and what population are they great for?

A
  • Typically in NWB positions

* Great for NWB populations

178
Q

What are the advantages of an OKC?

A
  • Identifies strength deficits and improves muscle performance on individual muscle group
  • Great control for single moving joint
  • Less potential for substitution
179
Q

What is a closed kinetic chain (CKC)?

A

Limb is restrained against an immobile object & you have interdependent joint movements

180
Q

What position is a CKC typically done in?

A

Typically in WB positions

181
Q

What are the advantages of CKC?

A
  • Greater for co-activation & stabilization
  • Greater stimulation of mechanoreceptors, kinesthesia
  • Better at improving balance and postural control
182
Q

UE: often moves in ___, but still does ___
with scooting in bed, STS, push cart, etc. , while LE: often moved in ___, but still does ___ with ascending stairs, getting into car, etc.

A

UE: often moves in OKC, but still does CKC with scooting in bed, STS, push cart, etc., while LE: often moved in CKC, but still does OKC with ascending stairs, getting into car, etc.

183
Q

What does moveable no load (MNL) mean?

A
  • moveable end with no load
  • closely resembles OKC activity
  • eg. hitting tennis ball with racquet
184
Q

What does moveable external load (MEL) mean?

A
  • moveable end with external load
  • combination of OKC and CKC
  • eg. military press
185
Q

What does fixed external load (FEL) mean?

A
  • fixed end with external load
  • closely resembles CKC activity
  • eg. push up
186
Q

What is circuit training?

A

Pre-established resistance program that targets variety of major muscle groups

187
Q

How many round is usually done in a circuit training?

A

Typically 8-10

188
Q

What are the advantages of circuit training?

A
  • Can do multiple people at once
189
Q

What are the disadvantages of circuit training?

A
  • Can be problematic if done too frequently

- Tend to be more equipment dependent

190
Q

What is a plyometric?

A

A quick, powerful movement using a prestretch/ countermovement, that involves the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC)

191
Q

What are plyometrics used for?

A

Increase power of movement using the elastic components of muscle tendon in the stretch reflex

192
Q

What is the biggest advantage of manual resisted exercise?

A

Patient- PT contact

Therapeutic interventions (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions