Week 5 (exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of genetic testing?

A

used to IDENTIFY PREDISPOSITION to a disease

done in CONJUNCTION WITH obtaining a detailed FAMILY HISTORY

ASSIST in determining if PREVENTATIVE MEDICINE OR SURGERY is needed

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2
Q

What are the examples of genetic testing

A

Predictive Testing
- BRCA testing
Diagnostic Testing
- HLA B27
Carrier Testing
- CF gene
pharmacogenetic testing
- medications for depression
- if multiple medications are not working

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3
Q

Define predictive testing

A

tells if a person is carrying a mutation that will cause or put the patient at higher risk for a disease later in life
- ex: BRCA testing

knowledge of a predictive disease can change patient behavior or clinical intervention
- suicide, lifestyle modifications

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4
Q

What are some disadvantages of genetic testing

A

financial discrimination
- some health insurances don’t cover

expensive
- not covered by insurance

information
- may cause anxiety/increased emotions

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5
Q

What is not a reliable proxy for genetic difference

A

race

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6
Q

What is more predictive than race in determining influence on health

A

geographic ancestry

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7
Q

Define race

A

refers to a group sharing outward physical characteristics and some commonalities of culture and history
- ex: skin color, hair texture, height/build

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8
Q

Define ethnicity

A

markers acquired from the group with which one shares cultural, traditional, and familial bonds
- ex: behaviors, cultural expression

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9
Q

When would you order genetic screening?

A

based on ethnicity (not race) and family history
- geographic location is best

Examples:
inherited (thalassemia –> Africa, SE Asia, Central American, Mediterranean)

sickle cell disease (Africa, SE Asia, Central American, Mediterranean)

cystic fibrosis (European, eastern European Jewish)

spinal muscular atrophy (varies greatly based on ethnic background)

tay sachs (eastern European Jewish)

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10
Q

What is PCR

A

fast, inexpensive techniques used to amplify (copy) small segments of DNA

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11
Q

What are the indications for PCR

A

when DNA sample is small/limited
- common ex: COVID test

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12
Q

What are the methods of PCR

A

sample is heated –> DNA denatures into single-stranded DNA

taq polymerase (enzyme) builds two new strands of DNA using original strains

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13
Q

What are examples of PCR

A

DNA fingerprinting

detecting viruses and bacteria
- influenza, covid, aids

genetic disorders
- aneuploidy, muscular dystrophy, prenatal screenings

cancers

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14
Q

What is blot testing

A

when a macromolecule (DNA, RNA, protein) is resolved in a gel matrix, transferred to a solid support, and detected with a specific probe

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15
Q

What are the types of blot testing

A

southern blots
- DNAs are transferred to paper and specific nucleotide sequences are detected

northern blots
- RNAs are transferred to paper and specific nucleotide sequences are detected

western blots
-proteins are transferred to paper and specific nucleotide sequences are detected

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16
Q

What are the indications for blot testing

A

western: to detect HIV or LYME

southern: to analyze DNA sequences or genome
- forensic and paternity testing

northern: to detect gene expression
- most expensive

SNOW DROP
S&D: southern&dna
N&R: northern&RNA
O&O: O
W&P: western&protein

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17
Q

What is flow cytometry

A

lab technique to assess size, granularity and protein expression of an individual cell

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18
Q

What are the indications for flow cytometry

A

staging/cell types of acute leukemias

HIV monitoring

Rh isoimmunization

detection of CD34+ stem cells

NOT IN RED:
reticulocyte counting
detection of autoantibodies
T-cell cross-matching for transplant
- recipient vs donor

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18
Q

What is ELISA

A

enzyme linked immunosorbant assay

immunologic test used to detect the presence of either a specific antigen (HBsAg) or antibody (anti-HBs) in a patient’s blood
- detection involves the use of antibody linked to an enzyme

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18
Q

What are the indications for ELISA

A

viral testing (influenza, ebola, west nile, HIV), lyme, RMSf
- RMSF: rocky mountain spotted fever
- first line testing for HIV
- blood borne viruses (HBV, HCV, HIV)

bacterial testing

NOT IN RED:
home pregnancy tests, food allergies, hemolytic anemia

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19
Q

Explain karyotyping

A

analysis of chromosomes
- size, shape, and number of chromosomes

a photograph of the complete diploid set of chromosomes
- grouped in pairs
- descending in size

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20
Q

What are the methods of karyotyping

A

blood test
bone aspiration/bx
amniocentesis
CVS (chorionic villus sample)
- placenta while baby is in utero

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21
Q

Examples of conditions seen in karyotyping

A

down syndromes

trisomies

turner syndrome
- missing an X chromosome

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22
Q

What is FISH

A

one method for localizing a piece of DNA within a genome
- fluorescent DNA/RNA probe binds to specific gene site of interest on chromosomes

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23
Q

What are the indications for FISH

A

used for specific localization of genes and direct visualization of chromosomal anomalies at the molecular level
- microdeletion
- translocation
- duplication

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24
Q

What is a microarray

A

a laboratory tool used to detect the expression of thousands of genes at the same time
- whether the DNA from a particular individual contains a mutation in genes
- expensive

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25
Q

What are the indications for a microarray

A

classification of tumors

identification of target genes of tumor suppressors

identification of cancer biomarkers

identification of genes associated with chemoresistance

NOT IN RED
identification of SNPs and mutations
drug discovery

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26
Q

What are the methods of a microarray

A

high throughput dot blot for man mutation testing at once

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27
Q

What are the indications for cfDNA

A

screening for trisomy and other chromosomal disorders of the fetus/baby

identification of sex

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27
Q

What is cfDNA

A

cell-free DNA screening
pre-natal blood test for pregnant women
- some of the unborn fetus DNA circulates in the mother’s bloodstream

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28
Q

What is the method for cfDNA

A

blood test at or above 10 weeks

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29
Q

What makes cfDNA less effective

A

pregnancy with multiples
BMI>30
pregnant via donor egg
<10 weeks pregnant
on blood thinners

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30
Q

What is stool DNA testing

A

noninvasive lab test that identifies DNA changes in the cells of a stool sample

DOES NOT REPLACE A COLONOSCOPY

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31
Q

What are the indications for stool testing

A

screening should start at age 45
- if family hx, at least 5 years prior to when family members had it

often detects the presence of colon cancer

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32
Q

What is the method for stool testing

A

cologuard
- looks at genes related to CRC
- 90% sensitive

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33
Q

What are the three non-invasive colorectal cancer screenings

A
  1. fecal occult blood test (FOBT-Heme)
    - limited by intermittent bleeding
    - requires 3 stool samples
    - dietary restrictions
  2. fecal immunochemical test (FIT-globin protein)
    - limited by intermittent bleeding
    - single stool specimen
    - no dietary restrictions
  3. stool DNA
    - precancerous/cancerous cells continuously exfoliated
    - single stool specimen
    - no dietary restrictions
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34
Q

What is CBC

A

blood test that is used to evaluate overall health
- give important info about WBC, RBC and platelets

can aid in diagnosing conditions
- anemia, infection, leukemia

can help with disease staging
- leukemia

assist in the evaluation of symptoms
- weakness, fatigue, fever, bruising, etc

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35
Q

What are the components of CBC

A

WBC (with differential)
HgB (hemoglobin)
Hct (hematocrit)
Plt (platelets)
RBC
RBC indices
- measure the size and hemoglobin content of RBC

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35
Q

What are the formed elements of blood

A

RBC
WBC
platelets

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36
Q

Define leukocyte

A

WBC

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37
Q

Define granulocyte

A

WBC with secretory granules in cytoplasm
- neutrophil, basophil, eosinophil

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38
Q

Define nongranulocyte

A

mononuclear WBC
- lymphocyte, monocyte

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39
Q

Define leukocytosis

A

increased WBC count (>10,000)

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40
Q

Define leukopenia

A

decreased total WBC count (<4,000)

41
Q

Define polymorphonuclear leukocytosis (PMNs/polys)

A

another name for neutrophils

42
Q

Define phagocytosis

A

killing and digestion of bacterial microorganisms

43
Q

What is the major function of WBC

A

fight infection
- react against foreign bodies or tissues

44
Q

What does an increase in total WBC count mean

A

infection
malignancy
leukemia
etc

*bacteria increases WBC

45
Q

What does a decrease in WBC mean

A

bone marrow failure
drug toxicity
autoimmune disease
viral disease

*virus decreases WBC

46
Q

What are the 2 components of WBC

A

total number

differential count

47
Q

What does the differential count for WBC do/help

A

measures the percentage of each type of leukocyte present in the same specimen

increased WBC tells you there is an infection, the differential can help narrow down cause of infection

48
Q

What are the critical values of WBC

A

<2000 OR >40,000

49
Q

What are the factors that can interfere with WBC results

A

exercise
- decreases

stress
- increases

h/o splenectomy
- increases

time
- lower in AM and increase in PM

age
- in order pts, WBC will be increased in an active infection

certain drugs

50
Q

What is the main cause of leukocytosis

What are other causes

A

the main cause of an increase in WBC (>10,000) is an infection

leukemia
other myeloproliferative disorders
- systemic mastocytosis
- eosinophilia
other malignancies
trauma/stress/hemorrhage
tissue necrosis
inflammation
dehydration
steroid use

51
Q

What is the main cause of leukopenia

What are other causes

A

the main cause of a decrease in WBC (<4000) is drug toxicity
- cytotoxic chemotherapy

bone marrow failure
sepsis (end stage)
- body trying to so hard to defeat infection, stores become depleted
dietary deficiencies
autoimmune disease
hypersplenism

52
Q

Describe neutrophils

A
  • most common granulocyte
  • primary function; phagocytosis
  • multilobulated nuclei
  • produced in 7-14 days and only live for 6 hours
    *** seen in bacterial infection and trauma
    — results in elevated WBC
  • immature form called band cells
  • when neutrophil production significantly stimulated, these immature forms leak into circulation (aka left shift)
53
Q

Define absolute neutrophil count (ANC)

A

WBC x (% neutrophils + % bands) / 100

helps determine patients real risk of infection

ANC less than 1000 may need to consider protective isolation

54
Q

Describe neutrophilia

A

increased neutrophil count

associated with: increased production, increased marrow release, and defective margination

most important acute cause is infection

55
Q

Describe neutropenia

A

decreased neutrophil count

associated with: depressed production, increased peripheral destruction, excessive peripheral pooling

common causes: myelotoxic drugs (drug therapy/chemotherapy), aplastic anemia, viral infections

56
Q

What is a major consequence of neutropenia for a patient?

A

infection

viral infection caused a decrease in WBC –> easy for bacterial infection to come in

57
Q

Describe eosinophils

A

involved in allergic reactions
- amount increases as allergic reaction increases

releases histamine

does NOT respond to bacterial and viral infections

58
Q

What are the common causes of eosinophilia

A
  • parasitic infections
  • allergic reactions
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • inflammatory/immune
59
Q

What are the common causes of eosinopenia

A

corticosteroid treatment
- steroid suppression of WBC

60
Q

Describe basophils

A

rarest of granulocytes

similar to tissue mast cells

cytoplasm contains heparin, histamine, serotonin

involved in allergic reactions
- dont respond to bacterial or viral infections

infiltrate tissue involved in allergic reaction and further the inflammatory reaction

reaction decreases, count decreases

61
Q

What are the common causes of basophilia

A

hypothyroidism

splenectomy

62
Q

What are the common causes of basopenia

A

hyperthyroidism

pregnancy

drugs:
- chemotherapy
- glucocorticoids

63
Q

Describe lymphocytes

A

nongranulocyte

primary function: fight chronic bacterial and acute viral infections

2 types:
- B cells
- T cells
* differential count does not differentiate between B cells and T cells

64
Q

Describe B cells

A

involved in humoral immunity

directed toward extracellular pathogens

produce antibodies that bind to antigens

mature in bone marrow

65
Q

Describe T cells

A

AKA killer cells, suppressor cells, T4 helper cells

directed toward intracellular pathogens

do NOT involve antibodies

mature in thymus

66
Q

What are the common causes of lymphocytosis

A

chronic bacterial infection (TB)

viral infection (Mumps, rubella, and pneumonia)

infectious mononucleosis, infectious hepatitis, cholera, brucellosis, syphilis, toxoplasmosis

pertussis

67
Q

What are the common causes of lymphocytopenia

A

HIV
- acute viral infection

idiopathic causes, chronic HIV, drugs, corticosteroids, radiation therapy, and cancer therapy

causes (neoplastics): carcinoma, lymphoma

68
Q

Describe monocytes

A

devleop from monoblass

nongranulocyte

phagocytes

produce interferon

produced more rapidly and longer time in circulation
- difference between neutrophils

69
Q

What are the common causes of monocytosis

A

bacterial infections

viral infections
- monoculosis

inflammatory conditions

protozoal infections
- malaria

rickettsial disorders

70
Q

What are the common causes of monocytopenia

A

HIV, aplastic anemia, hairy cell leukemia, drug therapy (steroids –> prednisone)

71
Q

Write out the Leukemia chart (slide 43)

72
Q

Define RBC count

A

the number of circulating rbc in 1mm3 of peripheral venous blood

lives in the blood circulation for 120 days (4 months)

at end of life, rbc is lysed and extracted from circulation by spleen

73
Q

What increases RBC production

A

erythropoietin is secreted by the kidneys, which increases RBC production

74
Q

What decreases RBC count

A

pregnancy
- normal body fluid increases, resulting in dilutional decreased RBC
- nutritional deficiency

drugs
- meds that decrease marrow production
- meds that cause hemolysis

75
Q

What increases RBC count

A

living in high altitudes
- low O2, produce more rbc to compensate

dehydration
- concentrated

drugs
- erythropoietin, gentamicin

76
Q

Patients with low RBC value are said to be

77
Q

What is the most common cause of decreased RBC count

78
Q

Describe erythrocytosis

A

high RBC value

body requires need for greater O2 carrying capacity

79
Q

What is another cause of erythrocytosis

A

secondary to illness

COPD

severe dehydration

hemoglobinopathies

80
Q

What is a reticulocyte count

A

blood test that measures how fast immature rbc are made by the bone marrow and released into the blood

in the blood for 2 DAYS before maturing into rbc

81
Q

What do Hgb (hemoglobins) do

A

Hgb is a protein molecule found in rbc that carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body

82
Q

What is the importance of Hgb

A

vehicle oxygen transport throughout circulation
- low Hgb = not able to carry as much O2 to body

83
Q

What are the critical values of Hgb

A

less than 7 or above 21

84
Q

What are the interfering factors of Hgb

A

pregnancy - slight decrease

values highest in the AM and lower in the PM

heavy smokers have higher Hgb levels

living in high attitudes

drugs

85
Q

If Hgb is critically low, what are we at risk for

A

fainting, angina (chest pain), myocardial infarction, cardio heart failure, and stroke

86
Q

If Hgb is too high/much, what are we at risk for

A

intravascular sludging this leads to a stoke and other organ infarction
- due to being backed up, oxygen/blood doesn’t get delivered to specific sites

87
Q

What is Hct

A

Indirect measure of RBC number and volume

measures % of total blood volume made up of RBC

88
Q

Write out the red cell indices chart (slide 74)

89
Q

define -cytic

A

refers to size

90
Q

define -chromic

A

refers to color

91
Q

What are interfering factors for red cell indices

A

abnormal RBC size

increased WBC

elevation in lipid levels

92
Q

Define mean corpuscular volume

A

measures the average volume/size of a single RBC
- used to classify anemias

93
Q

What does increased MCV mean

A

macrocytic

abnormally large rbc size

94
Q

What does decreased MCV mean

A

microcytic

abnormally small rbc size

95
Q

What causes macrocytic anemia

A

vitamin B12

folate deficiency (most common cause)

96
Q

What increases MCV

A

pernicious anemia

folic acid deficiency
- most common cause of macrocytic anemia

alcoholism
- secondary to malnutrition

chronic liver disease

97
Q

What causes microcytic anemia

A

iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia, lead poisoning, and anemia of chronic illness/disease

98
Q

What does MCH mean

A

mean corpuscular Hg

measures average amount of hemoglobin within an RBC

99
Q

What increases and decreases MCH

A

increases: macrocytic anemias
- MCH increases as size of RBC increases

decreases: microcytic anemias and hypochromic anemias
- MCH decreases as size of RBC decreases

100
Q

What does MCHC mean

A

measure of the average concentration or percentage of hemoglobin within a single RBC

101
Q

Decreased MCHC means

A

deficiency of hemoglobin
- hypochromic

102
Q

What increases and decreases MCHC

A

increases: spherocytosis, IV hemolysis, cold agglutinins

decreases: iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia

103
Q

What is RDW

A

red blood cell distribution width
- indicates variation in RBC size

measured using MCV and RBC values

indicates a degree of anisocytosis
- blood condition characterized by RBC’s of variable and abnormal size

104
Q

What can increase RDW

A

iron deficiency ANEMIA

hemoglobinopathies
- sickle cell