Week 13 (exam 4) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 distinct test types for genetic testing

A

direct examination
culture
antigen detection
nucleic acid amplification tests
serology

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2
Q

What color stain is gram-positive

A

blue/purple

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3
Q

What color stain is gram-negative

A

red/pink

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4
Q

Describe what cultures are

A

mainstay of microbiologic diagnosis

sensitive and specific

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5
Q

What is a negative aspect of cultures

A

only detect typical bacteria
- mycobacteria, fungi, parasites, and viruses must request appropriate tests

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6
Q

Where can cultures be taken from

A

multiple sites
- throats, nasal, cervical/urethral, wound, synovial fluids, tissue

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7
Q

What is culture sensitivity

A

determine the organism’s abx susceptibility

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8
Q

What does a urine culture sensitivity report contain

A

RIS
- r = resistant
- i = intermediate
- s = sensitive

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9
Q

What is an antigen detection test

A

rapid detection of infectious agents

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10
Q

What is a nucleic acid amplification test

A

detect difficult-to-grow or slow-growing organisms

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11
Q

What organisms does NA amplification detect

A

chlamydia, gonorrhea, HIV viral load, HSV encephalitis, MRSA, TB

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12
Q

Describe what an antistreptolysin O titer test is

A

blood test to measure antibodies against streptolysin O (a substance produced by group A strep)

used to detect if patient has had a recent infection by group A strep

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13
Q

An antistreptolysin O titer is used in diagnosis of

A

group A strep

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14
Q

What are the complications of antistreptolysin O titer

A

rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, glomerulonephritis

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15
Q

Antistreptolysin O titer uses serology to determine…

A

possible streptococcus disease

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16
Q

Antistreptolysin O titer present in serum…

A

1 week to 1 month post-infection onset

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17
Q

When do we order blood cultures

A

routine order on patients presenting with sepsis

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18
Q

What should you do to prevent specimen contamination when getting a blood culture

A

draw cultures 1st prior to any other tubes

obtain 2 culture specimens from 2 different sites 15 minutes apart

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19
Q

What is an indication for throat cultures

A

taken to diagnose bacterial, viral, gonococcal, candida phayngitis

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20
Q

Throat swabs are used to isolate which bacteria

A

streptococci
meningococci
gonococci
bordetella pertussis (nasopharyngeal swab)
corynebacterium diphtheria

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21
Q

What test is available to minimize antibiotic overuse

A

rapid strep screens
- rapid antigen detection test
- less sensitive than posterior pharynx swab

22
Q

What is a urine culture and what do you need to make sure of

A

initially conducted as a urine dip or urinalysis

make sure it is a clean catch

23
Q

What are the indications for cervical/urethral testing

A

patients with vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, urethritis, penile discharge

patients with STD risk

24
Q

Compare and contrast wound cultures

A

aerobic
- with oxygen
- wounds closer to the surface

anaerobic
- without oxygen
- deeper wounds

25
Q

How do you collect a wound culture

A

should “roll” swab

26
Q

What are the types of indications for stool testing

A

stool culture
c. diff
ova and parasite

27
Q

What are the indications for tuberculosis testing

A

Frequent close contact with someone who has a known infection

Have lived in a country where many people have TB

Work or live in a nursing home/health care facility, prison, or homeless shelter

Have HIV infection or poor immune system (on immunosuppressive drugs)

28
Q

What do you use to diagnose tuberculosis

A

TB culture

Quantiferon GOLD test
- interferon-gamma release assay IGRA

29
Q

What do we use since we are unable to make an acid-fast bacillus diagnosis with a positive AFB alone

A

need TB cultures

30
Q

How is the procedure of an acid-fast bacillus done

A

done via sputum sample (same as TB)

31
Q

How many blood tubes are used for a quantiferon gold test

32
Q

Why do we use quantiferon gold test and not a culture

A

culture is the gold standard, IGRA is quicker and sensitive

33
Q

If a quantiferon golf test is positive what do we do

A

order chest x-ray and cultures

34
Q

What are other names for tuberculin skin testing

A

Mantoux test
PPD test

35
Q

What shouldn’t you do after a tuberculin skin test

A

cover it up with a bandaid

36
Q

Where do we find histoplasmosis

A

soil, bird, and bat droppings

37
Q

What do we see on a CXR of histoplasmosis

A

miliary infiltrates

38
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis of histoplasmosis

A

bone marrow culture

39
Q

What do we see on a CXR of aspergillosis

A

fungus ball

40
Q

What is the standard for HSV detection

41
Q

What dermatological finding is associated with measles (rubeola)

A

Koplik spots

42
Q

How do we detect measles

A

Measles virus RNA revers transcription PCR-preferred method

43
Q

What virus is associated with Mumps and how do we diagnose it

A

paramyxovirus

viral culture: saliva, throat, CSF, urine\
PCR: rapid diagnosis

44
Q

Cytomegalovirus infects what

A

virus infects leukocytes

45
Q

Parvovirus B19 is associated with what dermatological finding

A

erythema infectioussum

“slapped cheek appearance”

46
Q

How do we diagnose Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

A

diagnosed via heterophile Ab test
- “monospot”

47
Q

How do we diagnose cryptococcus

A

diagnosed via CSF an serum testing

48
Q

What is the bacteria that causes syphilis called

A

treponema pallidum

49
Q

Compare and contrast the 2 groups of antibodies of syphilis

A

nontreponemal = reagin antibody

treponemal = antibodies directed towards treponema

50
Q

What tests do we run for nontreponemal (syphilis)

A

RPR - rapid plasma reagin

VDRL: venereal disease research laboratory

51
Q

What tests do we run for treponemal (syphilis)

A

fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test (FTA-ABS)
- more accurate than RPR/VDRL

52
Q

What do we see on KOH testing

A

budding yeast with hyphae