Week 4: Cognition, Sleep and Pain Flashcards

1
Q

what is cognition?

A

all processes that refer to human thought
how people are aware of their our surrounding
how information is received, processed, stored and then used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the definition of cognition according to Giddens textbook?

A

the mental action or process of acquiring knowledge and understanding through thought, experience and the senses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the six domains of cognitive function?

A

Perceptual motor function
Language
Learning and memory
social cognition
complex attention
executive function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does perception connect to cognition?

A

mind, brain and information processing
interpretation of the environment
related to awareness, consciousness
depends on sensory input
attention is directed on a particular area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is memory?

A

retention and recall of the past

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the different types of memory?

A

declarative episodic memory - specific events
declarative sematic memory - knowledge, words, facts
^ these two are long term
immediate memory attention span - short term
working memory - small amt of info can be recalled
procedural memory - muscle memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what falls under the executive function?

A

higher order thinking: flexibility, adaptability, goal directedness
determines contents of consciousness
supervises voluntary activity
future oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the different levels of cognition?

A

higher order cognitive function - learning, comprehensive, problem solving

basic order cognitive function: perception pattern recognition

cognitive impairment: mild, moderate and severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some risk factors for cognitive impairment?

A

advanced age
brain trauma
disease or disorder
environmental exposure
substance use disorder
genetic diseases
depression
medications
fluid and electrolytes imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are some consequences of cognitive impairment?

A

loss of short and or long term memory, impaired language skills, delusions and hallucinations, uncontrollable or inappropriate emotions such as severe agitation and aggression, impaired reasoning and decision making ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some general management related to cognition?

A

Primary prevention - ex. how can we avoid drugs that cause this?
Secondary prevention (screening)
Collaborative management
Pharmacologic Agents (meds)
Family and Caregiver Support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What falls under Primary Prevention?

A
  • promote a healthy lifestyle
  • Genetic counselling (how genetic conditions might affect you or your family)
  • Educating healthcare providers about latest evidence (ex. catheter use, patients restraint)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two screening tool that can be used? (secondary prevention)

A

General Survey
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
Mini Mental (you will learn in Older Client)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where in the General Survey does observation of cognition fall into?

A

Physical appearance - level of consciousness (LOC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you assessing level of consciousness?

A

Found in: general survey
in the hospital - Alert and oriented - A&Ox4
person, place, time and context
easily follows commands (hand grasps quick and easy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain what falls under Alert and Oriented x4?

A

Alert - awake and readily aroused, oreintedx4, responds appropriately

Lethargic(Somnolent-sleepy) - drifts off to sleep when not stimulated, looks drowsy, aroused when name called, thinking slow/fuzzy, looses train of thought

Obtunded: Mainly asleep, difficult to arouse - loud shout or vigorous shake, confused, speaks in monosyllables, mumbled/incoherent

Stupor (semicoma) - Spontaneously unconscious, responds only to pain or vigorous shake, withdraws from pain, groan, mumbles

Coma - Completely unconscious, no response to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the difference between A&Ox4 and A&Ox2

A

A&Ox4 - alert and oriented to person, place, time and situation

A&Ox2 - alert and oriented to person and place, but does not know the time and what’s happening to them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale?

A

responses from: eye opening, verbal and Motor

scores - eyes: 1-4 points
verbal - 1-5 points
motor - 1-6 points

Minor brain injury- 13-15 points
Moderate brain injury - 9-12 points
Severe Brain injury - 3-8 points
8 or less = intubate, no longer can control breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are some responses to painful stimuli?

A

Localizes
Withdraws
grimances (making a face)
Abnormal posture (decerebrate posture - results from damage to brains stem, Decorticate - results from damage to one of both corticospinal tracts)
No response, flaccid(soft and hanging loosely or limply)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What would decerebrated and decorticate posture look like?

A

decerebrate- arms are adducted (towards midline) and extended, wrist inward with fingers flexed, legs are stiffly extended with plantar flexion of feet

Decorticate - arms are adducted and flexed, wrists and fingers flexed on the chest, legs are stiffly extended and internally rotated and plantar flexion of feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which type of posture is most serious and indicated a poorer prognosis?

A

Decerebrate posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the Mini Mental State Examination?

A

used to assessment cognitive disfunction (learn more in older client)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

true of false: cognition impacts all areas of healthcare

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

true of false: collaborative approach is a critical element for communication and determining care plans

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

true or false: collaborative approach is a mono disciplinary approach to care for those with cognitive impairment

A

false; multi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Is delirium an example of cognitive impairment?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is delirium?

A

delirium is essentially an acute confessional state - sudden decline (hours to few days). includes - memory, thinking, language, behaviour and mood/personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

true of false: nearly 30% of older medical patient experience delirium at some time during hospitalization

A

true!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

True or false: delirium is a state of disturbed consciousness and is not a medical emergency

A

false; it IS a medical emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are some individual experiences to delirium?

A

dulled awareness
reduced ability to focus, sustain and shift attention
Memory and judgment impaired
Disorientation
Change in speech
Emotional swings
Restlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what assessment can you use to diagnosis delirium?

A

Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what does the CAM consist of?

A

*If feature 1 and 2 and either 3 or 4 are present - a diagnosis of delirium is suggested
Feature 1: Acute onset and fluctuating course
This feature is usually obtained from a family member or nurse and is shown by positive responses to the following questions:
* Is there evidence of an acute change in mental status from the patient’s baseline?
* Did the (abnormal) behaviour fluctuate during the day, that is, tend to come and go, or
increase and decrease in severity

Feature 2: Inattention
* This feature is shown by a positive response to the following question:
* Did the patient have difficulty focusing attention, for example, being easily distracted, or having difficulty keeping track of what was being said

Feature 3: Disorganized thinking
* This feature is shown by a positive response to the following question:
* Was the patient’s thinking disorganized or incoherent, such as rambling or irrelevant conversation, unclear or illogical flow of ideas, or unpredictable switching from subject to subject?

Feature 4: Altered level of consciousness
* This feature is shown by any answer other than “alert” to the following question:
* Overall, how would you rate this patient’s level of consciousness? Alert (normal), vigilant (hyper-alert), lethargic (drowsy, easily aroused), stupor (difficult to arouse), or coma (unarousable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are some differences between delirium and dementia within onset?

A

delirium - Intermittent, abrupt onset

dementia - progressive cognitive decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are some differences between delirium and dementia within the description?

A

delirium - Acute change in cognitive functioning - short term

dementia - Chronic confusion - long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are some differences between delirium and dementia within the etiology?

A

delirium - Underlying imbalance; Physiological condition

dementia - Alzheimer’s disease; vascular dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are some differences between delirium and dementia within the common clinical manifestations?

A

delirium - Difficult concentrating, restlessness, irritability, disturbed sleep, tremulousness, poor appetite, hallucinations, mood swings, violent, decreased LOC

dementia - Memory loss, impaired learning, depression, anxiety, muscle rigidity, mood changes, apathy, agitation, wondering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are some ways to manage delirium?

A

prevention of delirium: avoid factors known to aggravate delirium
-polypharmacy, dehydration, immobilization, sensory impairment, disruption of sleep-wake cycle

promote - sleep, fluid intake, nutrition, comfort

Recognize the condition AND uncover and treat the underlying condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are some causes of delirium?

A

Infection - antibiotics
Pain-analgesia
Sleep related sedatives
dehydrate-nutrition-fluid/electrolytes
decreased O2 - may need IV O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are some common supplement for delirium?

A

sedatives hypnotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are some reasons why pharmacological treatment would be necessary?

A

to control behavioural alterations
sleeplessness
anxiety
agitation
depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

true or false: are sedative hypnotics relate to dose dependent effect

A

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

at low doses what can sedative hypnotics do?

A

calm the CNS WITHOUT inducing sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

at high doses what can sedative hypnotics do?

A

Calm the CNS TO the point of causing sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are two meds we will be studying that fall under Sedative Hypnotics?

A

Benzodiazepines and Barbiturates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what drug don’t we critically study anymore? why?

A

Barbiturates - because its dangerous and is no longer/rarely used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

please explain in depth how benzodiazepine works?

A

within the GABA receptor lies binding sites, when Benz binds it acttaches and ENHANCES what the natural GABA does - opens the door and chloride flows in, neutron stops firing - CNS is calmed down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how does barbiturate work? (not studied anymore)

A

the GABA receptor contains barb binding sites, and when it binds it essentially keep them open for prolonged period of time - thats why it can be dangerous (therapeutic index is more narrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are some GOOD benzodiazepines (anxiolytics - anti anxiety) remember it increases power
hint: think of the suffix

A

Diazepam(Valium)
Iorazepam(Ativan)
Midazolam(Versed)

other benzo like effects-
zoplicone (Immovane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are some BAD barbiturates (anti-convulsants, anaesthesia)

A

phenobarbital - (po)
pentobarbital - (IV IM)
thiopental - (IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are some cons for barbiturates?

A

too many side effects, addictive, respiratory depression. too much drug drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

name the drug - commonly prescribed drug class, minimal tolerance or physical dependence

A

Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what part of the anatomical systems does Benzodiazepines affect?

A

hypothalamic, thalamic and limbic systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what happens when someone withdraws from Benzodiazepines?

A

Insomnia, anxiety, agitation, tremor, tachycardia, anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

does Benzodiazepines increase metabolism of other drugs?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

true of false: Benzodiazepines causes less REM sleep suppression

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

which one of these Benzodiazepines drugs are long acting, intermediate acting or short acting?

A

diazepam - long
lorazepam - inter
midazolam - short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

DRUG CARD: Diazepam (Valium)

A

long acting
route: po
dose: 0.5-2mg/h
half life of 100h
usually used for alcohol withdrawal
someone used to alcohol in body: used to CNS being depressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

DRUG CARD: Iorazepam (Ativan)

A

intermediate
Route: po
Dose:2-4mg/h
route and frequency: sl 1 h, IV 5-10 min
half life of 10-20hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

DRUG CARD: midazolam(Versed)

A

short acting
route:IV
dose: 1.5-5mg/min
half life 1-4 hours
temazepam (Restoril), alprazolam (Xanax), triazolam (Halcion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

why is PO/SL route preferred for Benzos?

A

IV may have a profound BP drop (cardiac arrest) or respiratory depress, have emergency equiptment nearby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what does a mild OD look like for Benzos

A

drowsiness, impaired coordination confusion, lethargy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does a serious OD look like for Benzos?

A

ataxia, hypotonia, hypotension, respiratory depression, coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does a rare OD look life for Benzos?

A

cardiac arrest when combined with alcohol/other CNS depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what drug is used as an antidote for Benzos?

A

Flumanzenil - effect fades in 1hr (repeat may be necessary)

if no long term use of BZD - otherwise withdrawal occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

select all that is true: Benzodiazepines do not induce hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes

Additive with other CNS depressants such as alcohol, opioids

Enzyme inducers can reduce effect of Benzo by speeding its breakdown such as Carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, St John’s wort

Enzyme inhibitors can increase effect of Benzo by delaying breakdown ex. Grapefruit (diazepam), diltiazem, verapamil, macrolide antibiotics, fluconazole, omeprazole, oral contraceptives

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is the drug: short term use, po, short term use for insomnia

A

Zopiclone (Immovane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

can sedative drugs increase risk for falls?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are some things to monitor while a patient is taking sedative drug

A

Monitoring patients we have been sedating with drugs

Monitor during sedation – and to track recovery

Respiration (Deep/cough, dyspnea/ shallow, apnea)

Oxygen Saturation (O2 Sats)

Consciousness/Communication (awake/
rouseable/no response)

Circulation (BP – full VS generally assessed)

Activity (Moving extremities) – Risk for Falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

does sleep enable physiological restoration?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is a normal physiological process(sleep)

A

period of wakefulness
period of rest and sleep the enables physiological restoration
sleep - 4 stages and REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what are the stages of sleep?

A

stage 1 - N1 (light sleep)
Stage 2 - N2 (no eye movement)
Stage 3 - N3 (deep sleep) - slow delta waves and small fast waves
Stage 4 - N4 (deep sleep) - mostly slow delta waves
Rapid eye movement (REM) - 90 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what are some other concepts sleep is connected to?

A

cognition
gas exchange
perfusion - (to brain)
hormonal reguation
pain
elimination
stress and coping
fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is insomnia?

A

impaired sleep, inability to sleep well
short term for some, chronic for others
could be result of medical condition
common causes: Psychiatric disorders and pain are two common causes
treatment: depends on cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are some consequences of not sleeping?

A

too much daytime sleepiness
Psychological and emotional impacts
Reguatory mech of body impaired (hypertension, heart disease, stroke, obesity)
reproductive disorders
increased mortality
developmental and behaviour abnormal in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are some clinical management for sleep

A

primary prevention - sleep hygiene strategies
secondary prevention: screening
common pharmaceuticals: melatonin, zopiclone, zolpidem

76
Q

explain the concept of pain

A

AN UNPLEASANT SENSORY AND EMOTIONAL EXPERIENCE ASSOCIATED WITH ACTUAL OR POTENTIAL TISSUE DAMAGE

77
Q

what is one important thing to remember about pain?

A

Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever they say it does - ONLY an individual can determine where the pain is and how severe it is

78
Q

what are some concepts that connect to pain

A

sleep
fatigue
tissue integrity
mobility
functional ability
development
culture
spirituality
mood affect

79
Q

true or false: chronic pain is the most common cause of long term disability

A

true

80
Q

true or false: as the population ages, the number of people who will need treatment from pain is expected to decrease

A

false; increase

81
Q

true of false: pain
Most common reason individuals seek health care

Major cause of absenteeism, underemployment and unemployment

Significant physical, psychological, emotional, social, spiritual, and financial consequences

A

true

82
Q

true of false: pain is universal but is also individual and subjective

A

true

83
Q

which one resonates with pain:
It is a normal physiologic response to tissue injury
It is a symptom of pathology associated with a disease
process
Is a result of an alteration of the somatosensory system

A

all of them

84
Q

is pain normally protective?

A

yes it is

85
Q

is pain often referred to as the 6th vital sign?

A

yes it is

86
Q

no pain - minimal pain back and forth from acute to chronic?

A

true

87
Q

minimal pain to moderate pain back and forth from localized to generalized

A

true

88
Q

moderate pain to severe pain back and forth from intermittent to constant

A

yes

89
Q

what are the four categories that fall under neurological system and pain?

A

transduction, transmission, perception and modulation

90
Q

can you explain what transduction consists of?

A

this is when noxious stimuli causes cell damage with the release of chemicals such as: prostaglandins, bradykinin, serotonin, substance P, Histamine - activate nocireceptors and lead to generation of action potential

AWARENESS OF PAIN

91
Q

can you explain what transmission consists of?

A

Action potential continues from - the site of injury to spinal cord, spinal cord to brain stem and thalamus, thalamus to cortex for processing

PNS - sends neurons out to our bodies, A fibers - sharp fast pain (myelinated) and C fibers (slow acting burning sensations) (unmyelinated), pain then transmits to CNS

92
Q

can you explain what perception consists of?

A

this is where the understanding that the stimulus is painful
the conscious experience of pain - brain

93
Q

can you explain what modulation consists of?

A

internal treatment - body will release chemicals to protect/block the CNS from receiving this action potential

neurons originating in the brain stem descend to the spinal cord and release substances (ex. endogenous opioids) that inhibit nociceptive impulses

94
Q

how to treat pain?

A

to block the dermatomes - C 2-8, T1-12, L1-5, S1-4

95
Q

what are some sources of nociception?

A

somatic: joints, muscles, bone, tissue pain

visceral: from the organs, leading to dull, cramping pain (difficult to pinpoint)

referred: from an organ but felt elsewhere

Neuropathic: damage to nerve cells (ex. diabetic neuropathy - nerve endings are damaged, burning shooting)

96
Q

what are some nociceptive pain that is normal?

A

somatic pain - arises from nerve receptors in the skin or close to the surface (bones, muscles, joints or CT)

Visceral pain and Referred pain

97
Q

what are some neuropathic pain (pathologic)

A

abnormal processing of the sensory input as a result of injury of the PNS or the CNS

centrally generated pain - Deafferentation Pain- injury to either the peripheral or CNS (e.g., Phantom Pain)

Sympathetically maintained pain-associated with dysregulation of the Autonomic Nervous System

Peripherally Generated Pain - Painful polyneuropathies-pain is felt along the Peripheral Nerves (e.g., Diabetic Neuropathy)

Painful mononeuropathies- associated with peripheral nerve injury (e.g., nerve root compression, trigeminal neuralgia)

98
Q

biggest difference between acute and chronic pain?

A

acute - abrupt sudden onset
chronic - pain over 3-6 months to years

99
Q

what is acute pain

A

abrupt sudden onset
SNS response (HR, BP, diaphoresis)
■ Cause/source can be determined
■ Time-limited (brief)-dissipates with time
■ Variations in the intensity, frequency, and duration of pain between individuals
■ Can be associated with acute anxiety
■ Hope of recovery

100
Q

what is chronic pain?

A

Ongoing pain > 3-6 months to years No effect on SNS
Cause difficult to pinpoint Depression, anxiety
Behaviour is adapted to modify pain
Sense of hopelessness and helplessness Interferes with quality of life, ADL
Varies in intensity, frequency, and duration
People with chronic pain can experience acute pain at the same time

101
Q

true or false: People with chronic pain can not experience acute pain at the same time

A

FALSE; they can!!

102
Q

what are some normal and abnormal clinical manifestations of acute pain?

A

Normal:
Mild to moderate severity
▪ Should be able to identify how much they can tolerate
▪ Assess for nausea, vomiting and pruritis
▪ Consider medications for pain before painful procedures

Abnormal:
Increased heart rate and/or blood pressure
■ May have hypoventilation or hypoxia
■ May report joint stiffness

103
Q

what are some normal and abnormal clinical manifestations of chronic pain?

A

Normal:
Pain present for extended time after acute phase
▪ Should be manageable
▪ Should be able to participate in ADLs
▪ Social supports in place
▪ Financial and psychological supports in place

Abnormal:
Fear, anxiety, depression
■ Isolation
■ Limited mobility
■ Family distressed
■ Decreased quality of life
■ Hard time completing tasks
■ Reports increased levels of fatigue

104
Q

what are some normal and abnormal clinical manifestations of neuropathic pain?

A

Normal:
May have increased or decreased sensation over affected area
▪ Inspect skin and tissue for colour, warmth, deformity or masses
▪ May have increased neuropathic pain during night

Abnormal:
Lesions
■ Open wounds
■ Changes in hair distribution
■ Tissue damage

105
Q

state if this is true about tolerance of drug: In the tolerant user, doses must be increased to produce the same intensity of response that could formerly be achieved with smaller doses.

A

true

106
Q

true of false: Individuals who are physically dependent on barbiturates exhibit cross- dependence with other general CNS depressants. Because of cross-dependence, a person physically dependent on barbiturates can prevent withdrawal symptoms by taking any other general CNS depressant (e.g., alcohol, benzodiazepines).

A

true

107
Q

true of false: Abrupt withdrawal from general CNS depressants is less dangerous than withdrawal from opioids

A

false: more

108
Q

what is the goal for a pain assessment?

A

Describe the patient’s sensory, affective, behavioural, and
sociocultural response to pain
Identify the patient’s goal for therapy and resources and strategies for self-management

109
Q

what is the GOLD standard of pain assessment?

A

the patients subjective report of their pain experience

110
Q

what is the primary role for the nurse within pain assessment?

A

to ADVOCATE for the patient by accepting their reports of pain and acting quickly to relieve it while respecting their values and preferences. start by ASKING the patient

111
Q

what is one pain assessment that we have previously learned?

A

OPQRSTUV
onset, provoking/palliative factors
quality and quantifying intensity
region and radiation
signs and symptoms associated
timing: duration, recurrence, pattern
understanding of cause and impact
VALUES - expect to have no pain, cause of pain etc.

112
Q

what assessment expands on OPQRSTUV and that can be helpful for chronic pain?

A

Brief pain inventory-In the past 24 hours, how has pain impacted the patient’s general activities, mood, walking ability, work, and sleep

113
Q

is there another ways where subjective information can not be documented verbally (in terms of pain assessment)?

A

yes - through the FLACC pain assessment for infants and toddlers (facial expression, leg movement, activity, crying, consolability)

114
Q

true of false: pain is a sign of aging

A

false; nope but the incident is higher in older adults

115
Q

true or false: many older adults are reluctant to report pain (some believe is as normal)

A

sadly true

116
Q

what are some challenges in assessment ?

A

people that cant report their pain using a self assessment tool
cognitively impaired
critically ill
comatose (decrease LOC)
Imminently dying
language
sedated
too young

117
Q

what are some things you would observe in a patient ?

A

position of comfort
guarding areas of pain
facial expression(stress)
movement/gestures
behaviour
vital signs (HR, BP, pupils)

118
Q

what are some questions we can ask the patient, during a social determinants of health- cultural assesment? ( give at least 5 on the list)

A

do you have any fears about pain and pain management ?
what traditional remedies have you tried to help with your pain?
how do you usually behave while your in pain?
why do you think you’re having pain?
how would people recognize pain in you?

119
Q

Consequences of unrelieved pain give the stress responses of the following functional domain:

Endocrine/Metabolic
Cardiovascular
Respiratory
Gastrointestinal
Musculoskeletal
Immune
Genitourinary

A

altered release of hormones
increased in HR, BP, and oxygen demand, and clotting
decreased in airflow limited respiratory effort
decreased rate of emptying and motility
muscle spasm, impaired muscle mobility
impaired immune function
abnormal release of hormones

120
Q

Consequences of unrelieved pain give the clinical manifestations of the following functions:

Endocrine/Metabolic
Cardiovascular
Respiratory
Gastrointestinal
Musculoskeletal
Immune
Genitourinary

A

weight loss , fever, increased respiration rate and heart rate, shock
unstable angina, MI DVT ( CLOTTING)
atelectasis, pneumonia
decreased in gastric emptying and motility , ileus ( lack of movement in the intestine), anorexia, constipation,
immobility, weakness, fatigue
infection
decreased in urinary output, hypertension, electrolyte imbalances

121
Q

What are the psychological consequences of unrelieved pain?

A

chronic pain may be associated with pyschological and social consequences
underrated or untreated pain can negatively impact nearly every aspect of a person’s life
treating pain with opioids can have pyschosical consequences, including opoid use disorder
addiction can impact every aspect of a person’s life

122
Q

Hierarchy of pain assesment
A
C
O
E
C

A

attempt= attempt to obrain self- report
consider= consider underlying pathology/condtion that might be painful-assume pain present
observe= observe behaviour
evaluate= evaluate physiologic indicators
conduct = conduct an analgestic trial

123
Q

true or false. Pain management is much more complex than pharmaceuticals?

A

yes, that is true

124
Q

define if the characteristics amongst multimodal therapy is true or false.

there is no single, universal treatment for pain

using two or more classes of analgesis or interventions to target pain mechanims in the PNS or CNS.

purposeful combination of pain medication to maximize relief, and prevent gaps in treatment if effective

may allow higher doses to each of the drugs. Higher doses may lead to few side effects.

offers promise of reducing the incidence of pronlonged or persistant post-surgical pain

for complex chronic pain, combining analgesics such as anticonvulsants, antidepressants, and local anesthetics to target differing underlying mechanism

A

all true except 4th one, it’s lower dose not higher.

125
Q

What are the 3 analgesic groups?

A

nonopoid
opoid
adjuvant

126
Q

true or false. the broad categories of medications of the 3 analgesic group works to block the transmission of noireception into the cns , in other words they block the noiception from being perceived.

A

true

127
Q

true or false: lower doses may lead to more side effects

A

false; fewer

128
Q

what drugs were placed on the 1-3 mild WHO step ladder?

A

Acetaminophen
NSAID’s - ibuprobin, ASA (aspirin)
naproxen
+- adjuvants

129
Q

what drugs were placed on the 4-6 moderate WHO step ladder?

A

Codeine
Hydrocodone
Oxycodone
Dihydrocodeine
Tramadol
+-adjuvants

130
Q

what drugs were placed on the 7-10 severe WHO step ladder?

A

Morphine
Hydromorphone
Methadone
Levorphanol
Fentanyl
Oxycodone
+-Adjuvants

131
Q

what class of drugs would be given if the pain is mild?

A

non-opioids such as Acetaminophen

132
Q

what’s an example of a selective COX 2 inhibitor?

A

celecoxib

133
Q

what pathway specifically does the NSAIDS such as ASA and ibuprofen block?

A

blocks arachidonic acid to Cyclooxygenase 1 and 2 pathways

134
Q

what pathway specifically does the COX 2 inhibitors block?

A

Cyclooxygenase 1 and 2 pathways to prostaglandins 1 and 2

135
Q

if COX 2 inhibitors block prostaglandin 1, what are some side effects that can take place?

A

side effects - GI upset, kidney problems (decrease renal perfusion)
clotting

136
Q

by mixing opioids with non opioids, what can we decrease?

A

the use of opioids (less addict risk)

137
Q

what is the difference between physical dependence and addiction?

A

physical dependence: increase in Tolerance and Dependence in which negative consequences occur despite continued use

addiction: use of drugs or alcohol to the point where it causes problems in your life.

138
Q

which kind of drug does not have a ceiling?

A

pure opioid agonists, it is subject to abuse!!

139
Q

what are some examples of pure opioid agonists?

A

Morphine, Fentanyl, hydromorphone

140
Q

true or false: opioids are not designed for long term use - unless palliative care

A

true

141
Q

true or false: opioids are different from other drugs because they are treating the pain rather then masking the clinical manifestation

A

false; just masking aint no healing

142
Q

what the antidote for morphine?

A

naloxone - competing for the same binding site

143
Q

under the category of 2 analgesic groups :
name the following medications that
nonopiod analgesics
opioid analgesics
adjuvant analgesics

A

nonopiod analgesics :
acetaminophen
nonselective NSAIDs ( e.g, ibuprofen, naprofen, ketorolac)
COX-2 selective NSAIDS ( e.g, celecoxib)

opiod analgesics
- morphine
-fentanyl
-hydromorphone
-oxycodone

Adjuvant analgesics
-local anesthethics ( e.g bupivacaine, ropivacaine, lidocaine)

  • anticonvulsants ( e.g, gabapentin, pregabalin)
  • antidepressants ( e.g desipramine, nortiptyline, duloxetine)
144
Q

true or false.Opioids with non-opioids. you wanna combine these, in order to treat that pain in two different ways.

A

true

145
Q

True or false. With any opioids any body can develop a tolerance meaning any time that medication is not going to be effective for treating that patients pain.

A

true

146
Q

determine if the following are true or false.
opioids with non opioids:

is the second rung on the pain ladder

less effective and primary drugs for moderate to severe pain

weak opioids with acetaminophen

can not cause sedation, euphoria but can cause constipation, respiratory depression, and urinary retention

with continuous use, tolerance does not develop

can also result in physical dependance

physical dependance is not the same as addiction

A

true

false ( it is most effective)

true

false, it can cause all of them

true

true

true

147
Q

opioid analgesics are used for acute, and are not intended for long term use for abuse, addiction, and effects. true or false

A

true

148
Q

this is mainstay in management of moderate to severe nociceptive types of pain (postoperative, surgical, trauma, and burn pain).

A

opioid analgesics

149
Q

what produces effects by interacting with opioid receptor sites located throughout the body ( peripheral tissues, GI system, spinal cord, and brain).

A

opioid analgesics

150
Q

true or false. _____ binds to receptor sites, produces analgesia and unwanted side effects.

A

opioid analgesics

151
Q

true or false.

opioid analgesics. produce effects by interacting with opioid receptor sites located throughout the body ( peripheral tissues, GI system, spinal cord, and brain).

the biggest one is in Gi they causes constipation, and the other one is respiratory depression.

A

true

152
Q

This is not for long term use unless it’s a palliative care patient who has terminal cancer but back pain or knee pain, we do not use opioids.

A

pure opioid analgesics

153
Q

true or false. pure opioid analgesics is a pure opioid antagonist.

A

false, it is pure opioid agonists

154
Q

Pure opioid analgesics : name characteristics

A

binds primarily to the mu- type receptors in the CNS. First line for mild- moderate. ( stoping that transmission process from occurring )

No ceiling - increasing dose produces increased pain relief

can adjust based on pain severity

subject to abuse
- rare when used appropriately

155
Q

pure opioid analgesics : name the mediation under the category

A

morphine, fentanyl , hydromorphone

156
Q

true or false. opioids is not treating the underlying cause of the pain they are simply making the symptom/ clinical manifestation.

A

true

157
Q

what is the antidote for morphine ?

A

naloxene

158
Q

what does naloxene do to morphine?

A

naloxene is the antidote for morphine and what it’s going to do is that it’s going to compete for the same binding site

159
Q

Morphine : contraindications and adverse effects

A

contraindications

known drug allergies
severe asthma
caution in patients with
-respiratory insufficiency
-elevated intracranial pressure
-morbid obesity
-sleep apnea

adverse effects
-cns-sedation , disorientation , euphoria
-cvs- hypotension, palpitations, flushing
-resp- respiratory depression, asthma exacerbation
-GI- Nausea, vomiting, constipation , biliary tract spasm
-GU- Urinary retention
-Integumentary ( skin ) - itching, rash

160
Q

other strong opioid agonists :
true or false.
morphine is the least potent out of all the three ( out of morphine, fentanyl , hydromorphone ).

A

true

161
Q

other strong opioid agonists

A

fentanyl ( duragesic )
- 100 times the potency of morphine
- formulations given via three routes
- parenteral
- surgical anesthesia
Transdermal ( duragesic )
- Patch : Heat acceleration
Transmucosal
- Lozenge on a stick

162
Q

true or false. morphine has been done by a path.

A

true

163
Q

true or false ( lozenge on a stick can be absorb)
primarily for cancer patients.

A

true

164
Q

this act as antagonists at mu and kappa receptors

A

opioid antagonists

165
Q

this bind to opioid receptors but produce no analgesia ( naloxene)

A

opioid antagonists

166
Q

true or false.
Opioid antagonists :
If an antagonist is present, it competes with opioid molecules for binding sites on the opioid receptors

A

true

167
Q

true or false.
Opioid antagonists : has no potential to block analgesia and other effects

A

false; they have potential to block analgesia and other effects

168
Q

used most often to reverse opioid effects like sedation and respiratory depression

A

opioid antagonists

169
Q

this is using other medication that are not analgesic to help treat a patients pain.

A

adjuvant theraphy

170
Q

Those on the second step should also receive adjuctive therapy with :

A

acetaminophen
anti- inflammatory medications
both

171
Q

true or false. pain is something that is perceived

A

true

172
Q

Those with chronic pain may also take other adjunctive therapy :

A

gabapentinoids
pregabalin ( lyrical)
tricyclic antidepressants ( amitriptyline)
benzodiazepines
other opioids
- cannabinoid
-methadone

173
Q

cannabis is increasingly used for a various reasons : name the reasons :

A

including persistent and neuropathic pain management

174
Q

cannabis contains numerous cannabinoids : what are they ?

A

the most common is THC ( Tetrahydrocannabinol), cannabidiol ( CBD) , Cannabinol ( CBN)

175
Q

cannabis : evidence exists that it can effective for persistent : what?

A

persistent cancer pain
rheumatoid arthritis
fibromyalgia
as well as neuropathies associated with MS

176
Q

cannabis : can be inhaled via smoking, vaporization, ingestion?

A

true yes it can be

177
Q

what are the side effects of cannabis ?

A

side effects increased heart rate, increased appetie, dizziness, decreased blood pressure, dry mouth, hallucination, paranoia, alteration in motor function, and impaired attention

178
Q

Tolerance

Tolerance with prolonged opioid use…

A

develops to come pharmacologic effect but not to others ( euphoria. respiratory depression, and nausea)

179
Q

No tolerance develops to constipation and constricted pupil. the longer you take that medication, you build tolerance

A

true

180
Q

Long-term use ( medication) produces physical dependance

A

true

181
Q

Physical dependance can develop acute abstinence syndrome- withdrawal that can last up to 10 days, It is unpleasant but not dangerous.

A

true

182
Q

Addiction : what are the five terms we have to know

A

substance- induced disorders
substance use disorder
craving
tolerance
withdrawal

183
Q

describe these five terms :

substance induced disorders
substance use disorders
craving
toelrance
withdrawal

A

temporary and reversible caused by immediate use of substance and the immediate effect that occurs when subtance is stopped

as a result from continued, frequent use of substance. combines abuse and dependance

describes the desire to use a substance and is a symptom of SUD

another symptom of SUD increasing need for the substance to achieve its reward

syndrome of symptoms that occurs from a sudden cessation of the substance

184
Q

non pharmacological interventions - pain

A

heat-ice
massage
TENS - electrical treatment
physiotherapy
imagery
distraction
deep breathing
cultural practices

185
Q

what should we consider as nurses?

A

10 rights of medications administration
accurate assessment
knowledge safe dose, side effects, contraindications
anticipate adverse effects
evaluate patient
patient teaching

patient safety, start low, go slow