Week 4 (1) Flashcards

1
Q

Is urine normally sterile?

A

Yes

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2
Q

What is the lower end of the urethra colonised by?

A

Coliforms and enterococci from the large bowel

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3
Q

Name some causal organisms of UTI

A
Coliforms:
E.coli
klebsiella
enterobacter
proteus
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4
Q

What coliform is associated with the formation of stones (calculi)?

A

Proteus

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5
Q

What does proteus smell like?

A

Foul

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6
Q

What does proteus produce?

A

Urease which breaks down urea to form ammonia, which increases urinary pH - precipitation of salts

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7
Q

Name two enterococcus spp. that cause UTI - they are present in hte GI tract

A
  1. Enterococcus faecalis

2. Enterococcus faecium

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8
Q

What organism affects women of child bearing age?

A

Staphylococcus saphrophyticus - coagulase negative staph

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9
Q

What type of organism is pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Gram negative bacillus

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10
Q

What is pseudomonas aeruginosa associated with?

A

Catheters and UT instrumentation

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11
Q

What antibioitic treats pseudomonas aeruginosa (orally)?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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12
Q

Give three symtpoms and signs of UTI?

A
  1. Dysuria
  2. Frequency
  3. Haematuria
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13
Q

What is a Boricon container?

A

Contains boric acid (preservative) to stop bacteria multiplying - for urine

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14
Q

How long is there to deliver a urine sample in an sterile universal container?

A

2 hours

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15
Q

What - found of dipstick - ma indicate the presence of leukocytes in the urine?

A

Leukocyte esterase

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16
Q

What do nitrites found on dipstick suggest?

A

Presence of bacteria in urine

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17
Q

When doing microscopy of urine what should be looked for?

A

Presence of polymorphs (pus cells), bacteria and red cells

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18
Q

What is the Kass’s criteria?

A

Descibes the likelihood of UTI from a mid stream urine specimen

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19
Q

What does > 10^5 organisms in urine suggest?

A

Significant/probable UTI

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20
Q

What causes resistance to antibioitics in UTI?

A

ESBL - extended spectrum beta-lactamase

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21
Q

What is ESBL resistant to?

A

ALL cephalosporins and almost all penicillins

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22
Q

Where does ESBL come from?

A

Imported chicken

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23
Q

What antibiotics might be useful in ESBL UTI?

A
  1. Nitrofurantoin
  2. Pivmecillinam
  3. Fosfomycin
  4. Temocillin,. meropenem and ertapenem (IV)
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24
Q

Name organisms resistant to meropenam?

A

Carbapenemase-producing enterobacteriaceae (CPE) - gram negative coliform bacilli

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25
What mediates resistance in CPE and what are they resistant to?
ALL current antibiotics and resistance is plasmid-mediated
26
Name four first line antibiotics for treating a UTI?
1. Amoxicillin 2. Trimethoprim 3. Nitrofurantoin 4. Gentamicin
27
What antibiotic inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis?
Trimethoprim (oral)
28
When should trimethoprim be avoided?
In first trimester (3months) of pregnancy
29
What is there a risk of with co-trimoxazole?
SJS syndrome from sulphonamide
30
When should nitrofurantoin be avoided?
In late pregnancy (can cause neonatal haemolysis), breast feeding and children
31
When should gentamicin be avoided?
In pregancy. Risk of toxicity causing renal and 8th nerve damage
32
Does gentamicin treat pseudomonas?
Yes - should be prescribed for 3 days only
33
What antibiotic is 2nd line for UTIs, very betalactamase stable and is esterified form of mecillinam?
Pivmecillinam
34
What can cefalexin (broad spectrum) cause?
C.diff
35
What does ciprofloxacin (C.diff) inhibit?
DNA gyrase which prevents supercoiling of bacterial DNA
36
Name the only oral pseudomonas antibiotic?
Ciprofloxacin
37
What is the empirical treatment for Female lower UTI?
Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin orally (3days)
38
What is the empitical treatment for uncatheterised male UTI?
Trimethoprim or nitrofuratoin orally (7days)
39
What is the empirical treatment for complicated UTI or pyelonephritis?
Co-amoxiclav or co-trimoxazole
40
What is the empirical treatment for complicated UTI or pyelonephritis (hospital)?
Amoxicillin and gentamicin IV (3 days)
41
Do you treat aysmptomatic bacteriuria?
Not if you dont have to, but treat in pregnancy
42
If asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy is not treated - what two complications result?1
1. 20-30% lead to pyelonephritis | 2. Intra uterine growth retardation/premature labour
43
What are three causes of abacterial cystitis/urethral syndrome?
1. Early phase of UTI 2. Honeymoon cystitis 3. / Chlamydia or gonorrhoea
44
How might abacerial cystitis symtoms be relieved?
Alkalising the urine
45
When should you give antibiotics to a catheter related UTI case?
ONLY if with fever or symptoms
46
Whast renal tumours are found in renal pelvis?
TCC
47
What renal tumours are found in renal parenchyma?
RCC
48
Name an embryonic renal tumour?
Nephroblastoms (Wilm's tumour)
49
What causes a central scar on CT?
Oncocytoma
50
What is RCC classic triad?
1. Loin pain 2. Renal mass 3. Haematuria
51
What staging is used for RCC?
Robson - mets: lungs, liver, bone and brain
52
Name two pre-malignanty penile cancer cutaneous lesions?
1. Balanitis xerotica obliterans | 2. Leukoplakia
53
What is balanitis xerotica obliterans?
White patches, fissuring, bleeding and scarring
54
What is erythroplasia of Queyraty?
SCC in situ on glans, prepuce or shaft
55
What are red velvety pathes on peis related to?
Zoon's balanitis
56
What can be used to treat SCC in situ on penis?
Topical 5 fluorouracil
57
Give three clinical features of carcinoma of penis?
1. Red raised area penis 2. Fungating mass, foul smelling 3. Phimosis
58
What investigation is advisable for primary tumour carcinoma of penis?
Ultrasound
59
When is peak incidence of carcinoma of penso?
80 years
60
In relation to carcinoma of penis - what lymph nodes might need to be sentinel biopsied or removed?
Inguinal
61
How are testicular tumpurs diagnosed?
Ultrasound and markers - AFT, HCG and LDH
62
What does HCG mark?
5-10% pure seminoma | 60% teratoma
63
What does AFP mark?
Never raised in pure seminoma
64
What increases the risk of testicular tumours?
X30 with undescended testis
65
What do 100% of trophoblastic teratomas have raised?
HCG
66
What does heavy proteinuria present with?
Frothy urine
67
Is uraemia with pericarditis serious?
Yes
68
What should be examined in the presentation of renal disease?
BP and urinalysis
69
What should you mention in a renal systemic enquirey?
1. Dyspepsia 2. Dyspnoea 3. Joint pains and arthralgia 4. Skin rashes
70
What drug is hyperkalcaemia ia side effect of?
ACE inhibitors and arbs
71
What type of examinatin can cause acute kidney injury?
Radiology contrast
72
What is leukonychia?
White bands on nails suggesting hypoalbuminuria
73
What do granular urinary casts suggeset?
Indicative of chronic disease
74
What GFR in stage 1 kidney damage?
> 90
75
What GFR in stage 2 kidney damage
60-89
76
What GFR in stage 3 kidney damage?
30-59
77
What GFR in stage 4 kidney damage?
15-29
78
What GFR in stage 5 kidney damage?
Kidney failure
79
What is the nephrotic syndrome triad?
1. Proteinuria 2. Hypoalbuminaemia 3. Oedema
80
What is defined as acute kidney injury, oliguria, oedema, hypertension and active urinary sediment?
Nephritic syndrome