Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VetMed Year 4- Term 1 > Week 3 27/5/14 LOCOMOTION (WEEK 1) > Flashcards

Week 3 27/5/14 LOCOMOTION (WEEK 1) Flashcards

1
Q

The head sinks when weight is on the ___limb

A

Head sinks ‘nodding’ when weight is on sound limb e.g. the lameness is on the contralateral limb Head raises on affected limb

Drop on the sound!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Signs of hindlimb lameness in dogs (2 things)

A

CHECK ANSWER!!!!!!!

??????!!!!!!!!

Think hip dips on lame leg BUT raises in horses?????

Hock drops more on __ side???

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In horses, which gait is not useful for detecting subtle lameness

A

The walk is NOT useful for detecting subtle lameness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is pelvic hike?

A

Pelvic limb lameness in horses. Pelvic hike (raise of the pelvis) when affected limb is weight bearing When sound limb is weight bearing there is a drop of pelvis

c.f. DOG= DROP OF PELVIS WHEN AFFECTED LIMB BEARS WEIGHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is drifting?

A

Horse moves away fro affected limb (underbody placement of the affected limb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does increasing in speed increase the force?

A

Increase in speed–> shorted stance –> higher force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of forces do a) bones b) tendon?

A

a) Bones: Tension, Compression, Bending b) Tendon: Tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which are the two high stress structures in the equine distal limb?

A

SDFT and SL (suspensory ligament) ‘S’tress more ‘S’uperficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the low strain structures?

A

DDFT and DAL (Accessory ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the SDFT injured more than the suspensory ligament?

A

SDFT and SL are both high stress tendons and have SIMILAR FORCE but the SDFT has a HIGHER STRESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does the change in surface compliance affect horses DIFFERENTLY from humans?

A

Humans: have muscles therefore can change ‘stiffness’ Horses: No muscles therefore can’t alter ‘stiffness’ of muscles therefore can’t adjust to different surface compliances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The type of muscles in flexor tendon muscles

A

Flexor tendon muscles are highly pennate with 1cm muscle fibres. Limited capacity for length change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the slip and glip mechanism a) on soft surface b) turf

A

The hoof lands on a soft surface then slides along to reduce impact (soft surface). On turf there is less sliding and therefore more impact on the hoof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the protective mechanisms of the hoof?

A

-Shape of solar surface -Suspension of distal phalanx: forces transferred via distal border of hoof wall -Digital cushion -Hoof sliding -Rotation/ Translation of the DIP joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the duty factor (related to locomotion)

A

The duty factor is the RATIO of the stance and stride time. e.g. higher forces when trotting as shorter stride length (and duty factor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During the gallop, the front limb of the horse experiences forces of up to ____ x body weight

A

Walk: 1/2 times body weight Gallop: 2.5 times body weight 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Aetiological theories for sole ulcers in cows

A

Loss of laminar suspension around calving Loss of dat bad Long standing times Laminitis and drop/ rotation of PIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Aetiological theories for white line disease

A

Little evidence published. - Biotin deficiency - Loss of fat pad - Soft claws during high rainfall (NZ cows) - Over trimming - Sharp turns on concrete - Rough, stoney tracks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aetiological theories for Digital dermatitis

A

Three families of treponeme, gaining entry through hair follicles. Sequalae: Interdigital hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which bacterium causes foul foot?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum Sequlae: Interdigital hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aetiological theories of toe necrosis

A

Treponemes invading from coronary band in interdigital space. Entry through over- trimmed toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Laminitis

A

Laminitis is characterised by failure of the attachment of the epidermal cells of the epidermal (insensitive) laminae to the underlying basement membrane of the dermal (sensitive) laminae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Risk factors for Laminitis

A

Associated with -Sepsis/ Systemic inflammation (GI disease, pneumonia, septic metritis), endocrine disease (PPID/EMS), mechanical overload or access to pasture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pathogenesis of Laminitis

A

Developmental –> Acute Laminitis –> Resolution or progression to Chronic Laminitis (depending on effectiveness of treatment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How long is the developmental stage in the pathogenesis of laminitis

A

Developmental stage is the contact with the trigger and lasts around 72 hours. It is impossible to determine when a horse is in the development stage of laminitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In dogs, head raises when weight is placed on the

A

Affected limb. Head drops when weight in placed on sound limb i.e. affected in contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do lameness scales vary in dogs and horses

A

Dogs: 1-10 (if you can see it must be >grade 2) Horses 1-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In horses the pelvis drops when the ___ limb is weight bearing

A

Pelvis drop occurs when sound limb weight bearing Pelvis hike occurs when lame limb is weight bearing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which tissues undergo tension

A

Tendon and bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Dystrophic calcification

A

Necrotic/ damaged tissue calcification. = calcinosis circumscripta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which DAMNITT is very unusal in bone

A

Autoimmune very uncommon Degenerative: more related to joints Inflamm: more related to joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Osteromyelitis is

A

infection of the cortical bone and medullary cavity . Osteitis is inflamm of the cortex without the involvement of the red/yellow bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2 most used Bone antibiotics

A
  1. Clindamycin 2. Tetracyclines.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Treatment of Osteomyelitis

A

Early intervention with broad spec antibiotics (clindamycin/tetracycline). Change on basis of culture Consider local selivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Radiographic changes associated with osteomyelitis and osterosarcoma (similar)

A

Combination of lysis and bone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

10 yr old greyhound, unilat forelimb lameness 3 week duration. Non responsive to analgesia/ restriction in exercise. Pain on deep palpation of distal radius. Swelling at distal radius. Likely diag

A

Lateral radiograph showed lysis, loss of cortical density and aggressive perisoteal bone formation. Bone biopsy = osteosarcoma. ANALGESIA WILL NOT BE SUFFICIENT= UNREMMITING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Prognosis of osteosarcoma

A

Discuss with owner as NEARLY ALL osteosarc have micro mets in lungs at time of diagnosis (might not be visible) Osteosarcs can be lameness to life ending in 3 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Osteosarcoma treatment

A

Amputation (4 months) Amputation and Chemo (12 months) NSAIDs/Bisphosphates (palliative) Radiotherapy (palliative only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does massage work

A

Relaxation (lowered stress) Pain relief via lowered stress and possible endorphine release Direct activation of neuropeptide release Improved circulation and lymphatic flow (and return)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Difference between stroking and Effleurage

A

Stroking: Proximal to Distal Effleurage: Medium pressure Distal to Proximal

41
Q

Compression and Wringing is known as How long to compress muscles for

A

Petrissage. Higher pressure at individual muscles. Compress and hold for 15 minutes

42
Q

How long should Cryotherapy be used for

A

20 minutes. Affects vasculature (constriction) and nerves (analgesia) directly. Can be used when patient is NOT AMBULATORY i.e. can be used in ACUTE PHASE

43
Q

Thermotherapy cannot be used when?

A

Thermotherapy cannot be used in the ACUTE phase. Also affects vasculature (constriction) and nerves (analgesia). If used in acute phase will make swelling, heat and pain worse. Helps vasodilation

44
Q

Thermotherapy is contraindicated

A

IN ACUTE PHASE. WILL MAKE SWELLING ETC WORSE. Use Cryotherapy

45
Q

Passive Range of Motion vs Active Assited ROM

A

Passive ROM can be used before patient wants to stand (analgesia?) Active Assisted ROM used once patient starts to walk.

46
Q

Passive ROM number of repetitions

A

Can be used before patient wants to stand (analgesia?) 15-20 repetitions, 2-4 times daily.

47
Q

Active ROM

A

Patients that are walking/trotting normally do not use full ROM. Change exercise to encourage use of full ROM.

48
Q

Stretching =

A

Taking joint past normal ROM. Designed to opposite shortening of tissues and to break down fibrosis and adhesions. Hold for 15 seconds and gently release. Up to 20 x per session

49
Q

How does Ultrasound work in rehab?

A

Primarily works through a heating effect and has the capacity to heat deeper tissues (microwave!) Short treatments (10 minutes) Tendinits, Bursitis, Joint contracture

50
Q

Electrical stimulation

A

Neuromuscular electrical stimulation. Increases muscle mass, strength and oxidative capacity. May have analgesic effect.

51
Q

Difference in hertiability values in Elbow dysplasia and Hip dysplasia

A

ED: 50-70% HD: 20-30% (still v. high) Polygenic disease

52
Q

Pathogenesis of Hip dysplasia

A

Ligament hypertrophy -slack ligaments Subluxation - ball and socket not together Destruction of cartilage Change of shape of joint surface LEADS TO SECONDARY OSTEOARTHRITIS Both primary changes and secondary changes can be picked up by radiograph.

53
Q

Which two ligaments are primariliy effected by hip dysplasia

A

Capsular ligament and Teres ligament. Subluxation - cartilage surfaces still in contact)

54
Q

Where would you find the capsular ligament and the Teres ligament

A

Capsular most important

55
Q

In a dog with HD when would pain be expected

A

Hip ROM normal. Bilateral pain at full extention.

56
Q

Why do dogs with HD have a circumducting gait

A

Circumduction legs to keep pelvis flat and avoid subluxating.

Lux via Sublux (cartialge still in contact)

57
Q

Which ligament is most involved in pathogenesis of hip dysplasia

A
58
Q

If angle and luxation and angle of subluxation are close then _______

A

Shallow acetabulem

59
Q

How do signs of HD differ at a) 0-6 months b) 6-16 months c) > 16 months

A

a) 0-6 months: Subluxation / Abnormal gait
b) 6-16 months: Sublux/Abnormal gait. Sublux/ Damage & Damage/ Inflamm/ Pain, Lameness
c) Muscular fibrosis/ fibrosus stabilisation.

Painfree restricted range

60
Q

Can Hip Dysplasia by non painful?

A

Yes.

0-6 months: abnormal gait due to sublux

16 months on

Abnormal joint, secondary OA, Pain, Lameness

OR

Pain free / restricted range due to Muscular/fibrosis stabilisation

61
Q

When does restricted range develop in HD?

A

16 months on due to muscular/fibrosis stabilisation.

Pain free restricted range.

62
Q

What is the Ortolani test?

A

Ortolani test: do Barlow sign then abduct the limb to see if there is a palpable clunk noted as the femoral head reduces into the acetabulum. Most young dogs have some hip laxity so the accuracy of palpation is poor in puppies at 6-18 weeks of age but improves as dogs approach 6 months old.

ORTOLANI: TRY TO REPLACE

BARLOW: TRY TO DISPLACE

63
Q

Treatment of Hip Dysplasia

a) 0-6months
b) 6-16 months
c) 16 months +

A

0-6 months: Conservaitve Diet/Exercise

6-16 months: Conservative Diet/Exervise

Surfical correction Anat. correction*

16months+ Conservative / Hip replacement/ Ex Arthroplasty

* OVER 15-20 KG

64
Q

Conservative treatment for Hip Dysplasia

A

Exercise control NOT restriction.

65
Q

When can surgical treatment of hip dysplasia be considered

A

hip replacement at 16 months

Dogs over 15-20kg

66
Q

Cartilage properties

A

Collagen

Proteoglycans

Water

Resident cells: Chrondrocytes responsible for turnover

Hyaline cartilage provides interface btween bones at synovial joint

67
Q

Damage to the Metaphysis/Physis/Epiphysis can cause shortening/ deformity

A

Damage to the Physis (only present in Juvenile) can cause temporarly or permenant arrest

68
Q

Osteochondrosis

A

Term for group of conditions of developing cartilage and supporting bone.

e..g Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)

Osteochrondrosis is initiated by a vascular problem in the epiphysis. Failure of the normal cartilage to bone succession

69
Q

Osteochrondritis dissecans (OCD) pathogenesis

A

Detachment of a chondral or osteochondral fragment from the articular surface

Osteochondrosis (group of conditions of developing cartilage + supporting bone) initiated by a cascular problem in the epiphysis.

Normal growth bone suceeds cartilage growth normally

70
Q

3 examples of Osteochondrosis’

A

1 Osteochrondritis Dissecans

  1. Subchondral bone cysts (SBC)
  2. Peri-articular fragmentation/fracture
    e. g.medical coronoid fragmentation
71
Q

Which species get subchondral bone cysts

A

Horses (also get Osteochondritis dissicans)

Fast growing high performance patient

72
Q

Which species get OCD

A

Osteochondritis dessicans.

Initiated by a vascular problem in the epiphysis. Failure of the normal cartilage to bone succession.

Dogs/ Horses (SBC)/ Pigs (esp hip) Broiler chickens (stifle)

73
Q

Where does Osteochondritis dessicans occur in pigs vs chickens

A

Chickens: OCD stifle

Pigs: OCD hip

74
Q

Presentation of osteochondrosis

A

Young, fast growing large pure bred.

Joint effusion

Often bilat

Variable lameness.

75
Q

Surgical treatment of Osteochondrosis

A

Symtomatic/ Conservative/ Surgical open or arthroscopy (gracment removal.

Prognosis guarded specific to joint

76
Q

Primary disease in Canine Elbow Dysplasia

A

Osteochonrosis.

ED includes: Humeral Osteochondritis dissecans

Fragmented Cornoid process

Ununited anconeal process

Secondary osteoarthritis.

77
Q

Main classification of canine arthritis

A

Non-inflammatory and Inflammatory (>3000WBCS)

Non-Inflamm further divided into traumatic, hemarthrosis, DJD

78
Q

Inflammatory canine arthritis is further divided to

A

Infectious (bacterial, fungal, viral, rickettsial, protozoal)

Non-infectious- Immune based (erosive- rheumatoid)

Non-erosive )Idiopathic, polyarthritis)

Non immune based- neoplastic/ crysyal

79
Q

Hemathrosis

A

Bleeding into joint space (form of non inflamm (WBC <3000) arthritis

80
Q

Type of arthrocentesis for suspected polyarthritis (much more common than Rhumatoid arthritis)

A

Sample multiple joints as POLYarthritis

81
Q

WBC from arthrocentesis from non-inflammatory arthritis e.g. DJD

A

<3000 and few neutrophils (<20%)

82
Q

Macrophages in the synovial sample are indicitive of

A

Non-inflammatory.

Also synoviocytes are normal for both samples

83
Q
A

Inflammatory joint disease.

Synoviocytes= normal

84
Q
A

Degenerate joint disease.

Non-inflamm

Macrophages

85
Q

What happens to the synvovial fluid: blood concentration in septic arthritis

A

Synovial fluid to blood ratio is normally 0.8-1

In septic arthritis it DECREASES.

86
Q

TP in synovial fluid is normally <

A

TP in synovial fluid is normally <1g/dL

Increased in inflammatory arthritis

87
Q

Why should care be taken when culturing synovial fluid

A

23% negative in spite of infection (false negative)

Careful with false positives.

To improve use culture medium / synovial membrane biopsy

88
Q

Most common cause of infection arthritis

A

Bacteria

Direct penetration, spread from adjacent tissues/ Haemtogeneous.

Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Pastuerlla

89
Q

How can radiology help you differentiate acute and chronic

A

Acute: Effusion

Chronic: Degenerative Changes

90
Q

Infectious arthritis when suspecting immune-mediated polyarthritis. Serology tests for…

A
  1. Borrelial arthritis (Lyme disease)
  2. Rickettsial arthritis (Tick not endemic to uk)

3/ Protozoal arthritis (Leishmaniasis) - tick not endemic to UK

TRAVEL HISTORY!

91
Q

Diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rheymatoid factor.

Antibodies against IgG.

High titres in IgG.

Radiographic changes

92
Q

When suspecting immune-mediated polyarthritis. Which tests are appropriate

A

ANA titers: Anti-nuclear antibodies, High titres is Systemic Lupus Erythematosis (SLE)

Other inflamm/infectious processes can lead to low titres

SLE: Skin lesion, glomerulonephritis, haemolytic anaemia, polymyositis

93
Q

Dog with skin lesions and arthritis affecting more than one limb- most likely Ddx

A

Systemic Lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Appropriate test for polyarthritis is the ANA test.

Also with SLE: Glomerulnephitis, haemolytic anaemia, polymyositis, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

94
Q

4 subtypes for immune-mediated polyarthritis

A

Type 1: Idiopathic (50%)

Type 2: Infection (25 %)

Type 3: GI gz

Type 4: Neoplasia

95
Q

How does Polyarthritis differ in the greyhound from other dog breeds

A

Polyarthritis is normally non-erosive but in the Greyhound is erosive

Other erosive: Rheumatoid arthritis. PA of feline

96
Q
A

Downwards rotation of pedal bone. Clear gas line.

= laminitis

97
Q

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteopathy

A

periosteal new bone growth occurs on the distal limb bones in association with a chronic, usually intrathoracic, inflammatory or neoplastic lesion. Pathogenesis is unknown, but theories include reflex vasomotor changes mediated by vagus increasing blood flow to extremities

HEART WORM??

98
Q

If the primary pulmonary hypertrophic osteopathy lesion is removed will the periosteal bone growth regress?

A

The lesions may regress

99
Q
A

VetMed Year 4- Term 1 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions