Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 types of APCs?

A
  • Dendritic cells (most effective)
  • Macrophages
  • B cells
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2
Q

What 2 classes of drugs are both CCS?

A
Plant alkaloids (G2-M)
DNA synthesis inhibitors (S)
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3
Q

What 2 classes of drugs are CCNS?

A

Crosslinking agents

Anthracycline antibiotics

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4
Q

What enzyme creates somatic mutation in forming both Ig and T cell receptor molecules?

A

Rag 1 and 2

-no somatic hypermutation in T cell receptor formation

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5
Q

What type of reactions are hypersensitivity type 1-4?

A
  • type 1 = immediate (anaphylaxis, IgE antibody)
  • type 2 = antibody mediated (production of IgG, IgM leading to phagocytosis or lysis- Goodpasture Syndrome)
  • type 3 = immune complex mediated (deposition Ag-Ab complex recruits leukocytes - SLE, serum sickness)
  • type 4 = T cell mediated (contact dermatitis, type 1 diabetes, MS, TB, granuloma formation)
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6
Q

What drug can be used to treat breast cancer patients positive for HER-2/NEU gene?

A

-monoclonal Ab to Her2/neu receptor = trastuzumab (Herceptin)

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7
Q

Where does a T cell receptor receive its 2 activating “hits”?

A
  • 1 via TCR/CD3 complex

- 1 from dendritic cell cytokines

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8
Q

What cytokine do CTLs need to become activated? convert to memory cells?

A
  • activated by IL-2 from Th1

- convert to memory cells by IL-21

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9
Q

Co-receptors bind on TCR for MHC/peptide complex bind what?

  • CD2
  • LFA-1
  • CD28
  • CD45R
A

CD2 binds LFA-3
LFA-1 binds ICAM-1
CD28 binds B7 (CD80/86)
CD45R binds CD22

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10
Q

HLA-B27 individuals at risk for what?

A
  • alkylosing spondylities (destruction of vertebral cartilage)
  • also psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease, Reiter’s syndrome
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11
Q

HLA-DR2 individuals at risk for?

A

narcolepsy

-also MS, hay fever, and SLE

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12
Q

HLA-A3/B14 individuals at risk for?

A

hemochromatosis

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13
Q

HLA-DQ2/GQ2 individuals at risk for?

A

Celiac disease

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14
Q

HLA-DR3 is linked to…

A

diabetes mellitus type 1, Grave’s disease

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15
Q

HLA-DR4 is linked to….

A

rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes melliuts type 1

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16
Q

What drug(s) are most likely to cause Radiation Recall Reaction?

A

-“rubicin” drugs (especially Doxorubicin in breast cancer treatment)

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17
Q

What 2 main drug categories are CCS?

A
  • Plant alkaloids (G2/M)

- Antimetabolites (S)

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18
Q

What 2 main drug categories are CCNS?

A
  • alkylating agents

- anthracycline antibiotics

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19
Q

What enzyme is needed to converte UMP to UDP in the pyrimidine synthesis pathway and is important in resistance to 5-FU?

A

-pyrimidine monophosphate kinase

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20
Q

What enzyme is involved in degradation of pyrimidines and without it, patient is more sensitive to 5-FU?

A

-dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase

21
Q

What is used for treatment of cyanide poisoning?

A

hydroxocobalamin

22
Q

What action in cells gives MTX differential sensitivity for cancer cells?

A

-polyglutamination (traps folate in cell and increases affinity for enzyme thymidylate synthase

23
Q

Antimetabolites: analogues of what?

-CCS or CCNS?

A
  • analogues of folate, pyrimidine, or purine

- CCS for S phase

24
Q

What drugs cause Tumor Lysis Syndrome?

-treatment

A
  • any drug that causes sudden, rapid death of millions of cells (Ex: leukemia and lymphoma drugs)
  • Allopurinol to treat (prevents hyperuricemia)
25
What are the main resistance mechanisms for folic acid analogues (MTX, Pemetrexed, Pralatrexate)
- change target enzyme - increase DHFR expression - decrease polyglutamination - decrease accumulation (decrease RFC expression)
26
Can Leucovorin be given intrathecally?
No. that would be fatal
27
What are main resistance mechanisms of pyrimidine analogues? (5-FU and Capecitabine) -blocking which enzyme can block drug?
- change target enzyme (TS) - decrease activation of drug (enters pathway as UMP or dUMP) - increase inactivation - blocking pyrimidine monophosphate kinase= resistance
28
What are the 2 ways to make purines? How do 6-MP and 6-TG fit in?
1. primary purine synthesis pathway (enzymes PRPS and GPAT) 2. salvage pathway (enzyme HGPRT) - 6MP and 6TG block guanylyl kinase (when activated by HGPRT to T-IMP and 6-thioGMP- poor substrates for guanylyl kinase); IMP and GMP accumulate triggering "pseudofeedback inhibition" of PRPS, GPAT, HGPRT enzymes
29
What drug can cause hemorrhagic cystitis? How to treat
- Cyclophosphamide | - add Mesna
30
What is the common unique side effect of Anthracycline Antibiotics?
- cardiomyopathy corresponding with total amount of drug taken - ex: doxorubicin
31
What is unique about Bleomycin's mechanism? What major toxicity?
- generates free radicals to cut DNA strands ("blasts DNA") | - causes skin and lung damage (those tissues lack hydrolase enzyme to metabolize Bleomycin)
32
What are the common resistance mechanisms for crosslinking agents? -MOA?
-increased DNA repair -increased glutathione production (trapping agent) -oral = decreased activation MOA: must be activated so nucleophile can attack DNA and cause damage
33
What are main resistance mechanisms for intercalating agents- anthracycline antibiotics?
- decreased accumulation due to P-glycoprotein (MDR) - decreased topo 2 activity (temporarily) - increased inactivation
34
What drug is associated with nephrotoxicity?
Cisplatin | -should also be avoided with renal insufficiency)
35
``` What drug class is associated with neurons/ RBCs -peripheral neuropathy ```
vinca alkaloids | -ex: Vincristine
36
Which species of malaria are the most common?
-P. vivax and P. falciparum
37
Which specie of malaria is the most deadly?
Plasmodium flaciparum (able to infect RBCs of any age; Rosettes form, impede blood flow)
38
Which 2 species of malaria cause relapses?
-P. vivax and P. ovale
39
Basic life cycle of malaria?
injected as sporozoites, released from liver as merozoites -enter RBC, trophozoite (ring form), schizont, merozoites released from RBC and either infect new RBC or become gametocytes
40
What is the main prophylactic drug for malaria? Alternative?
Chloroquine | -alternative: Atavaquone/ proguanil
41
What drug is for the "radical cure" but may cause hemolytic anemia in people with G6PD deficiency?
Primaquine
42
What drugs are used for treating chloroquine resistant P. falciparum?
- Mefloquine (also for prevention) | - Quinine and Quinidine
43
What is the main drug for prevention of malaria in Chloroquine resistant areas?
- Atovaquone/ proguanil | - alternative: Doxycycline or Mefloquine
44
What classification of AML has Auer rods?
-AML M1 | acute myeloblastic leukemia without maturation
45
What AML classification has Faggot cells?
-AML M3 (acute promyelocytic leukemia) -all have t(15;17) translocation
46
Which AML classification is associated with t(8;21) translocation?
-AML-M2 | acute myeloblastic leukemia with maturation
47
Which AML classification is associated with inv(16) inversion?
-AML M4 (acute myelomonocytic leukemia) -extramedullary tumors
48
Which new classification of AML is associated with the elderly and pancytopenia?
- AML with multi-lineage dysplasia | - poor prognosis
49
Most common acute leukemia in children?
Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)