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UCLA Phlebotomy > Week 3 > Flashcards

Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Anatomy is defined as:
A. The science of biological activities in our systems
B. The study of the structure of an organism
C. The study of how the body functions
D. None of the above

A

Anatomy is defined as:
A. The science of biological activities in our systems
B. The study of the structure of an organism
C. The study of how the body functions
D. None of the above

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2
Q

Physiology is defined as:
A. The study of the structure of an organism
B. The study of electrolyte balance in the body
C. The study of how the body functions
D. None of the above

A

Physiology is defined as:
A. The study of the structure of an organism
B. The study of electrolyte balance in the body
C. The study of how the body functions
D. None of the above

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3
Q

Homeostasis is:
A. A steady, balanced state of the body; remaining the same
B. An unbalanced state
C. Lab test to determine the time it takes to clot
D. None of the above

A

Homeostasis is:
A. A steady, balanced state of the body; remaining the same
B. An unbalanced state
C. Lab test to determine the time it takes to clot
D. None of the above

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4
Q

The integumentary system components include:
A. The skin, sweat glands, oil glands, fingernails and hair
B. Neurons, muscles and glands
C. Tendons and ligaments
D. All of the above

A

The integumentary system components include:
A. The skin, sweat glands, oil glands, fingernails and hair
B. Neurons, muscles and glands
C. Tendons and ligaments
D. All of the above

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5
Q

The skeletal system consists of:
A. Muscles, nerves and alveoli
B. Bones, cartilage, tendons and ligaments
C. Blood vessels, electrolytes and hormones
D. All of the above

A

The skeletal system consists of:
A. Muscles, nerves and alveoli
B. Bones, cartilage, tendons and ligaments
C. Blood vessels, electrolytes and hormones
D. All of the above

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6
Q

Skeletal system functions include:
A. Providing support, protection of organs, hematopoiesis, storage of minerals
B. Production of heat
C. Supporting the cardiovascular system by preserving the integrity of blood vessels
D. None of the above

A

Skeletal system functions include:
A. Providing support, protection of organs, hematopoiesis, storage of minerals
B. Production of heat
C. Supporting the cardiovascular system by preserving the integrity of blood vessels
D. None of the above

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7
Q

Muscular system components are:
A. The heart, lungs and blood vessels
B. Skeletal (voluntary), cardiac (autonomic, heart), smooth muscle
C. Blood vessels, electrolytes and hormones
D. None of the above

A

Muscular system components are:
A. The heart, lungs and blood vessels
B. Skeletal (voluntary), cardiac (autonomic, heart), smooth muscle
C. Blood vessels, electrolytes and hormones
D. None of the above

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8
Q

Muscular system functions include:
A. Helps the digestive system to eliminate wastes
B. Assists the endocrine system to maintain homeostasis
C. Permits movement, produces heat and maintains posture
D. None of the above

A

Muscular system functions include:
A. Helps the digestive system to eliminate wastes
B. Assists the endocrine system to maintain homeostasis
C. Permits movement, produces heat and maintains posture
D. None of the above

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9
Q

The nervous system components include:
A. The nose, the trachea and the spinal cord
B. The brain, spinal cord and nerves
C. The eye, the nose and the tongue
D. None of the above

A

The nervous system components include:
A. The nose, the trachea and the spinal cord
B. The brain, spinal cord and nerves
C. The eye, the nose and the tongue
D. None of the above

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10
Q

Respiratory system functions are:
A. Filtering air and exchanging gases (O2 and CO2). Help regulate blood pH
B. Elimination of waste products such as urea and pyruvic acid
C. Directs sensations (pain, pressure) and controls intellectual processes
D. All of the above

A

Respiratory system functions are:
A. Filtering air and exchanging gases (O2 and CO2). Help regulate blood pH
B. Elimination of waste products such as urea and pyruvic acid
C. Directs sensations (pain, pressure) and controls intellectual processes
D. All of the above

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11
Q

Digestive system components are:
A. The mouth, salivary glands
B. Liver, gall bladder, teeth
C. Esophagus, stomach, intestines
D. All of the above

A

Digestive system components are:
A. The mouth, salivary glands
B. Liver, gall bladder, teeth
C. Esophagus, stomach, intestines
D. All of the above

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12
Q

Digestive system functions include:
A. Breaking down of food physically and chemically, and absorbing nutrients
B. Exchanging O2 and CO2
C. Maintenance of body temperature constant
D. None of the above

A

Digestive system functions include:
A. Breaking down of food physically and chemically, and absorbing nutrients
B. Exchanging O2 and CO2
C. Maintenance of body temperature constant
D. None of the above

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13
Q

Name some laboratory tests performed on stool specimens:
A. C&S, O&P, Occult blood
B. Amylase, lipase and glycogen
C. BUN, CNS and PSA
D. All of the above

A

Name some laboratory tests performed on stool specimens:
A. C&S, O&P, Occult blood
B. Amylase, lipase and glycogen
C. BUN, CNS and PSA
D. All of the above

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14
Q

Urinary system components are:
A. Lungs, trachea and alveoli
B. Esophagus, stomach and intestines
C. Kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra
D. None of the above

A

Urinary system components are:
A. Lungs, trachea and alveoli
B. Esophagus, stomach and intestines
C. Kidneys, ureters, bladder and urethra
D. None of the above

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15
Q

A 10-ml sample taken from an infant is
equal to:
a. Half the volume of the infant’s blood
b. 90% of the infant’s blood
c. 5-10% of the total volume of infant’s
blood
d. 45% of the infant’s blood

A

A 10-ml sample taken from an infant is
equal to:
a. Half the volume of the infant’s blood
b. 90% of the infant’s blood
c. 5-10% of the total volume of infant’s
blood
d. 45% of the infant’s blood

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16
Q

EMLA is:
a. Education and Medical Laboratory
Assessment
b. Eutectic Mixture of Local Anesthetics –
contains lidocaine and prilocaine and
it’s used to relieve pain
c. Environmental Management of Los
Angeles county
d. None of the above

A

EMLA is:
a. Education and Medical Laboratory
Assessment
b. Eutectic Mixture of Local Anesthetics –
contains lidocaine and prilocaine and
it’s used to relieve pain
c. Environmental Management of Los
Angeles county
d. None of the above

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17
Q

In dealing with pediatric patients, the
following statement is true:
a. Parents can assist in restraining and
providing comfort to the child
b. Only explain the procedure to the
parents
c. Ask the parent to step out of the room
d. Capillary draws are the only methods of
blood draw allowed

A

In dealing with pediatric patients, the
following statement is true:
a. Parents can assist in restraining and
providing comfort to the child
b. Only explain the procedure to the
parents
c. Ask the parent to step out of the room
d. Capillary draws are the only methods of
blood draw allowed

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18
Q

Process of aging (geriatrics) presents physical
and emotional problems. Name some problems:
a. Hearing loss, failing eyesight, loss of taste
and smell, loss of memory
b. Epithelial tissue become thinner, making
skin less elastic, venipuncture more difficult
c. Muscles become smaller
d. All of the above

A

Process of aging (geriatrics) presents physical
and emotional problems. Name some problems:
a. Hearing loss, failing eyesight, loss of taste
and smell, loss of memory
b. Epithelial tissue become thinner, making
skin less elastic, venipuncture more difficult
c. Muscles become smaller
d. All of the above

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19
Q

The following are true with geriatric
patients, EXCEPT:
a. They may be taking blood-thinning
medications that prolong bleeding time
b. Their veins have tendency to collapse
and have poor blood flow
c. Their immune system is stronger and
more tolerant to infections
d. May have iatrogenic anemia

A

The following are true with geriatric
patients, EXCEPT:
a. They may be taking blood-thinning
medications that prolong bleeding time
b. Their veins have tendency to collapse
and have poor blood flow
c. Their immune system is stronger and
more tolerant to infections
d. May have iatrogenic anemia

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20
Q

Define hematopoiesis

A
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21
Q

Which of the following options is correct regarding patients with syncope (fainting) possibilities:
a. Ask the patient if they had a previous experience with fainting/dizziness
b. Make sure the patient is sitting or lying down
c. If the patient faints, your primary concern is to protect the patient
d. All of the above

A

Which of the following options is correct regarding patients with syncope (fainting)
possibilities:
a. Ask the patient if they had a previous
experience with fainting/dizziness
b. Make sure the patient is sitting or lying down
c. If the patient faints, your primary concern is to protect the patient
d. All of the above

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22
Q

Treatment of patients with syncope or near
syncope include:
a. Have the patient take a few deep breaths
and lower the head between the legs
b. Slap the patient a few times until
he/she/they start(s) responding
c. Give the patient alka-seltzer to relieve
symptoms of fainting
d. Apply a hot compress to forehead and neck

A

Treatment of patients with syncope or near
syncope include:
a. Have the patient take a few deep breaths
and lower the head between the legs
b. Slap the patient a few times until
he/she/they start(s) responding
c. Give the patient alka-seltzer to relieve
symptoms of fainting
d. Apply a hot compress to forehead and neck

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23
Q

A hematoma:
a. Occurs when blood leaks from an artery
and collects in tissues near the puncture
site
b. Occurs when you shake the vial vigorously
instead of mixing it gently
c. Is the most common complication of
venipuncture
d. Is the least common complication of
venipuncture

A

A hematoma:
a. Occurs when blood leaks from an artery
and collects in tissues near the puncture
site
b. Occurs when you shake the vial vigorously
instead of mixing it gently
c. Is the most common complication of
venipuncture
d. Is the least common complication of
venipuncture

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24
Q

Petechiae are all BUT:
a. Are a sign of platelet defects and
capillary wall defects
b. May be a sign that the patient will
bleed excessively
c. Are always a sign of latex allergy
d. Are red spots under the skin

A

Petechiae are all BUT:
a. Are a sign of platelet defects and
capillary wall defects
b. May be a sign that the patient will
bleed excessively
c. Are always a sign of latex allergy
d. Are red spots under the skin

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25
Q

How do you handle patients who have had a
double mastectomy?
a. Let the patient’s physician handle the
procedure
b. Ask nurse to hold the patient down while
you are performing an arterial stick
c. Use back of hand or do a finger stick –
legs are OK with physician’s permission,
document all action
d. All of the above

A

How do you handle patients who have had a
double mastectomy?
a. Let the patient’s physician handle the
procedure
b. Ask nurse to hold the patient down while
you are performing an arterial stick
c. Use back of hand or do a finger stick –
legs are OK with physician’s permission,
document all action
d. All of the above

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26
Q

Edema is defined as:
a. Inflammation of the edematous tissue
b. Swelling due to anemia
c. Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the
intracellular spaces of the body
d. All of the above

A

Edema is defined as:
a. Inflammation of the edematous tissue
b. Swelling due to anemia
c. Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the
intracellular spaces of the body
d. All of the above

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27
Q

Hemolysis:
a. Is a form of hematoma seen mainly in
arterial punctures
b. Is lysis (rupture) of WBCs which weakens
our immune system
c. Is lysis (rupture) of RBCs causing leakage
of hemoglobin into serum or plasma –
gives plasma or serum pink to red
appearance
d. Is a buildup of proteins within the
extracellular cells

A

Hemolysis:
a. Is a form of hematoma seen mainly in
arterial punctures
b. Is lysis (rupture) of WBCs which weakens
our immune system
c. Is lysis (rupture) of RBCs causing leakage
of hemoglobin into serum or plasma –
gives plasma or serum pink to red
appearance
d. Is a buildup of proteins within the
extracellular cells

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28
Q

What causes hemolysis?
a. Using a needle that has a very narrow
bore (i.e. gauge 25)
b. Pulling syringe plunger back too fast or
expelling blood vigorously in tube
c. Shaking or mixing tubes vigorously
d. All of the above

A

What causes hemolysis?
a. Using a needle that has a very narrow
bore (i.e. gauge 25)
b. Pulling syringe plunger back too fast or
expelling blood vigorously in tube
c. Shaking or mixing tubes vigorously
d. All of the above

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29
Q

Hemoconcentration is:
a. Excessive concentration of hemoglobin in
patients with polycythemia
b. A condition in which plasma enters the
tissues, resulting in a higher than normal
concentration of cellular components of
blood
c. Hemolysis causing a high concentration of
cellular components in blood
d. None of the above

A

Hemoconcentration is:
a. Excessive concentration of hemoglobin in
patients with polycythemia
b. A condition in which plasma enters the
tissues, resulting in a higher than normal
concentration of cellular components of
blood
c. Hemolysis causing a high concentration of
cellular components in blood
d. None of the above

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30
Q

Definer Hemolysis

A

Is lysis (rupture) of RBCs causing leakage
of hemoglobin into serum or plasma –
gives plasma or serum pink to red
appearance

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31
Q

Define **Hemoconcentration **

A

A condition in which plasma enters the
tissues, resulting in a higher than normal
concentration of cellular components of
blood

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32
Q
  1. THE HEART IS A MUSCULAR PUMP
    THAT HAS
    a) Two chambers, upper and lower
    b) Three chambers, upper, lower and middle
    c) Four chambers – 2 atria (upper) and 2 ventricles (lower)
    d) None of the above
A
  1. THE HEART IS A MUSCULAR PUMP
    THAT HAS
    a) Two chambers, upper and lower
    b) Three chambers, upper, lower and middle
    c) Four chambers – 2 atria (upper) and 2 ventricles (lower)
    d) None of the above
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33
Q
  1. THE HEART BEATS NORMALLY:
    a) 60 to 100 times/minute
    b) 60 to 70 times/minute
    c) 80 to 100 times/minute
    d) 100 to 120 times/minute
A
  1. THE HEART BEATS NORMALLY:
    a) 60 to 100 times/minute
    b) 60 to 70 times/minute
    c) 80 to 100 times/minute
    d) 100 to 120 times/minute
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34
Q
  1. THE THREE LAYERS OF THE HEART ARE:
    a) Tunica intima, tunica media and tunica adventitia
    b) Endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm
    c) Endocardium, myocardium and epicardium
    d) All of the above
A
  1. THE THREE LAYERS OF THE HEART ARE:
    a) Tunica intima, tunica media and tunica adventitia
    b) Endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm
    c) Endocardium, myocardium and epicardium
    d) All of the above
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35
Q
  1. CIRCULATORY SYSTEM IS MADE UP OF:
    a) The lungs, the heart and the blood vessels
    b) The heart, blood vessels, and blood
    c) The heart, superior vena cava and inferior vena cava
    d) The heart, the intestines and muscles
A
  1. CIRCULATORY SYSTEM IS MADE UP OF:
    a) The lungs, the heart and the blood vessels
    b) The heart, blood vessels, and blood
    c) The heart, superior vena cava and inferior vena cava
    d) The heart, the intestines and muscles
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36
Q
  1. THE FOUR VALVES OF THE HEART ARE
    a) Tricuspid
    b) Mitral
    c) Pulmonary
    d) Aortic
    e) All of the above
A
  1. THE FOUR VALVES OF THE HEART ARE
    a) Tricuspid
    b) Mitral
    c) Pulmonary
    d) Aortic
    e) All of the above
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37
Q
  1. THE PACEMAKER OF THE HEART IS THE:
    a) Sinoatrial node
    b) Atrioventricular node
    c) Bundle of His
    d) Atrium
A
  1. THE PACEMAKER OF THE HEART IS THE:
    a) Sinoatrial node
    b) Atrioventricular node
    c) Bundle of His
    d) Atrium
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38
Q
  1. CARDIAC CYCLE:
    a) Is the amount of time it takes blood to travel throughout the body
    b) Is the complete sequence of events in the heart from the
    beginning of one beat to the beginning of the following beat
    c) Includes systole and diastole
    d) B and C only
A
  1. CARDIAC CYCLE:
    a) Is the amount of time it takes blood to travel throughout the body
    b) Is the complete sequence of events in the heart from the
    beginning of one beat to the beginning of the following beat
    c) Includes systole and diastole
    d) B and C only
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39
Q
  1. CARDIAC OUTPUT IS:
    a) The volume of blood ejected from the left side of the heart in 1minute
    b) The volume of blood ejected from the heart in 24 hours
    c) The amount of blood ejected from the right side of the heart in 1minute
    d) None of the above
A
  1. CARDIAC OUTPUT IS:
    a) The volume of blood ejected from the left side of the heart in 1minute
    b) The volume of blood ejected from the heart in 24 hours
    c) The amount of blood ejected from the right side of the heart in 1minute
    d) None of the above
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40
Q
  1. STROKE VOLUME IS:
    a) The volume of blood pumped from the heart in 1 second
    b) The volume of blood pumped from the heart in 1 hour
    c) The volume of blood pumped from the heart in one beat
    d) None of the above
A
  1. STROKE VOLUME IS:
    a) The volume of blood pumped from the heart in 1 second
    b) The volume of blood pumped from the heart in 1 hour
    c) The volume of blood pumped from the heart in one beat
    d) None of the above
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41
Q
  1. BRADYCARDIA MEANS:
    a) Heartbeat below 40
    b) Heartbeat below 60
    c) Heartbeat above 100
    d) Heartrate below 120
A
  1. BRADYCARDIA MEANS:
    a) Heartbeat below 40
    b) Heartbeat below 60
    c) Heartbeat above 100
    d) Heartrate below 120
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42
Q
  1. TACHYCARDIA MEANS:
    a) Heartbeat below 60
    b) Heartbeat above 60
    c) Heartbeat above 100
    d) Heartbeat below 100
A
  1. TACHYCARDIA MEANS:
    a) Heartbeat below 60
    b) Heartbeat above 60
    c) Heartbeat above 100
    d) Heartbeat below 100
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43
Q
  1. CHOOSE THREE PULSE SITES:
    a) Brachial, cephalic and median cubital
    b) Radial, brachial and femoral
    c) Arterial, venous and capillary
    d) Atrium, Ventricles and vena cava
A
  1. CHOOSE THREE PULSE SITES:
    a) Brachial, cephalic and median cubital
    b) Radial, brachial and femoral
    c) Arterial, venous and capillary
    d) Atrium, Ventricles and vena cava
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44
Q
  1. THE THREE LAYERS OF A BLOOD VESSEL (VEINS AND ARTERIES)
    ARE:
    a) Tunica interna, tunica central and tunica externa
    b) Tunica adventitia, tunica media and tunica intima
    c) Tunica atrium, Tunica externa and tunica medium
    d) All of the above
A
  1. THE THREE LAYERS OF A BLOOD VESSEL (VEINS AND ARTERIES)
    ARE:
    a) Tunica interna, tunica central and tunica externa
    b) Tunica adventitia, tunica media and tunica intima
    c) Tunica atrium, Tunica externa and tunica medium
    d) All of the above
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45
Q
  1. HOW MANY LITERS OF BLOOD DOES AN AVERAGE ADULT HAVE?
    a) 5-6 liters
    b) 8-9 liters
    c) 4.5-5.5 liters
    d) 6-7 liters
A
  1. HOW MANY LITERS OF BLOOD DOES AN AVERAGE ADULT HAVE?
    a) 5-6 liters
    b) 8-9 liters
    c) 4.5-5.5 liters
    d) 6-7 liters
46
Q
  1. THE CELLULAR ELEMENTS OF BLOOD
    ARE:
    a) Thrombocytes, erythrocytes and leukocytes
    b) Platelets, red blood cells and white blood cells
    c) Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
    d) A and B only
A
  1. THE CELLULAR ELEMENTS OF BLOOD
    ARE:
    a) Thrombocytes, erythrocytes and leukocytes
    b) Platelets, red blood cells and white blood cells
    c) Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils
    d) A and B only
47
Q
  1. NAME THE 5 TYPES OF LEUKOCYTES:
    a) Neutrophils
    b) Eosinophils
    c) Platelets
    d) Megalocytes
    e) Basophils
    f) Lymphocytes
    g) Monocytes
A
  1. NAME THE 5 TYPES OF LEUKOCYTES:
    a) Neutrophils
    b) Eosinophils
    c) Platelets
    d) Megalocytes
    e) Basophils
    f) Lymphocytes
    g) Monocytes
48
Q
  1. NAME THE MOST COMMON BLOOD
    TYPE
    a) A
    b) AB
    c) O
    d) B
A
  1. NAME THE MOST COMMON BLOOD
    TYPE
    a) A
    b) AB
    c) O
    d) B
49
Q
A
50
Q
A
51
Q

Hematology is the:
a) Study of circulation including the heart,
blood vessels, and blood
b) Study of blood and blood-forming
tissues (bone marrow)
c) Study of lymphatic system in correlation
with the circulatory system
d) Study of the urinary system

A

Hematology is the:
a) Study of circulation including the heart,
blood vessels, and blood
b) Study of blood and blood-forming
tissues (bone marrow)
c) Study of lymphatic system in correlation
with the circulatory system
d) Study of the urinary system

52
Q

An average person has:
a) 4.5 – 5.5 liters of blood
b) 3.0- 4.0 liters of blood
c) 2.0 - 3.0 liters of blood
d) None of the above

A

An average person has:
a) 4.5 – 5.5 liters of blood
b) 3.0- 4.0 liters of blood
c) 2.0 - 3.0 liters of blood
d) None of the above

53
Q

Whole blood composed of 2 basic parts
and they are:
a) Serum and plasma
b) White blood cells and red blood cells
c) Liquid portion (Plasma) and cellular
portion (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets)
d) None of the above

A

Whole blood composed of 2 basic parts
and they are:
a) Serum and plasma
b) White blood cells and red blood cells
c) Liquid portion (Plasma) and cellular
portion (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets)
d) None of the above

54
Q

A completely blood count (CBC) includes:
a) RBC, WBC, Hemoglobin, Hematocrit,
Platelet count, and Differential
b) RBC, WBC, Differential, and
Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
c) Glucose leels
d) Lipid levels

A

A completely blood count (CBC) includes:
a) RBC, WBC, Hemoglobin, Hematocrit,
Platelet count, and Differential
b) RBC, WBC, Differential, and
Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
c) Glucose leels
d) Lipid levels

55
Q

Red blood count determines the number
of circulating red blood cells and is helpful
in diagnosing:
a) Leukemia
b) Lymphoma
c) Anemia and Erythrocytosis
d) Diabetes

A

Red blood count determines the number
of circulating red blood cells and is helpful
in diagnosing:
a) Leukemia
b) Lymphoma
c) Anemia and Erythrocytosis
d) Diabetes

56
Q

White blood count is the total number of
leukocytes and is helpful in diagnosing:
a) Anemia
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Leukocytosis and leukopenia
d) Sickle cell anemia

A

White blood count is the total number of
leukocytes and is helpful in diagnosing:
a) Anemia
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Leukocytosis and leukopenia
d) Sickle cell anemia

57
Q

Differential is:
a) A test performed on a blood smear under
the microscope, in which the percentage,
type and characteristic of each leukocyte
is reported
b) A test that differentiates red blood cells
from white blood cells
c) A test that identifies different types of red
blood cells
d) All of the above

A

Differential is:
a) A test performed on a blood smear under
the microscope, in which the percentage,
type and characteristic of each leukocyte
is reported
b) A test that differentiates red blood cells
from white blood cells
c) A test that identifies different types of red
blood cells
d) All of the above

58
Q

Platelet count determines the amount of
platelets in peripheral blood and is useful
in diagnosing:
a) Thrombocytosis and thrombocytopenia
b) Anemia
c) Hyperlipidemia
d) Hypothyroidism

A

Platelet count determines the amount of
platelets in peripheral blood and is useful
in diagnosing:
a) Thrombocytosis and thrombocytopenia
b) Anemia
c) Hyperlipidemia
d) Hypothyroidism

59
Q

Hematocrit:
a) Compares the volume of RBCs with the
volume of whole blood
b) Is the ratio of red blood cells versus
total volume of blood
c) Is also called Packed Cell Volume (PCV)
d) All of the above

A

Hematocrit:
a) Compares the volume of RBCs with the
volume of whole blood
b) Is the ratio of red blood cells versus
total volume of blood
c) Is also called Packed Cell Volume (PCV)
d) All of the above

60
Q

The chemistry department is the most
automated and largest department in the
laboratory; an example of its function is:
a) Measuring analytes (glucose, BUN,
cholesterol, Na, K, etc) on serum or
plasma samples
b) Running Complete Blood Counts
c) Running blood culture tests
d) None of the above

A

The chemistry department is the most
automated and largest department in the
laboratory; an example of its function is:
a) Measuring analytes (glucose, BUN,
cholesterol, Na, K, etc) on serum or
plasma samples
b) Running Complete Blood Counts
c) Running blood culture tests
d) None of the above

61
Q

Routine urinalysis has three parts. Name
them.
a) Physical exam, chemical exam, and
microscopic exam
b) Routine exam, visual exam, and
microscopic exam
c) Initial exam, chemical exam, and final
exam
d) All of the above

A

Routine urinalysis has three parts. Name
them.
a) Physical exam, chemical exam, and
microscopic exam
b) Routine exam, visual exam, and
microscopic exam
c) Initial exam, chemical exam, and final
exam
d) All of the above

62
Q

For a urine culture, what type of urine
sample is required?
a) Random specimen
b) 24-hour collected specimen
c) Clean-catch midstream specimen
d) Fasting urine sample

A

For a urine culture, what type of urine
sample is required?
a) Random specimen
b) 24-hour collected specimen
c) Clean-catch midstream specimen
d) Fasting urine sample

63
Q
  1. Name a test that a newborn baby must have to rule out hereditary disorder of phenylalanine metabolism which can lead to mental retardation
    a) TDM
    b) PKU
    c) CNS
    d) CBC
A
  1. Name a test that a newborn baby must have to rule out hereditary disorder of phenylalanine metabolism which can lead to mental retardation
    a) TDM
    b) PKU
    c) CNS
    d) CBC
64
Q
  1. The following statements are true about drawing blood samples for PKU testing EXCEPT:
    a) Fill all circles completely with one full drop of blood
    b) Air dry for several hours (3 hours)
    c) It is OK to take a drop of blood from an EDTA tube to fill the circles
    d) Drawn by performing a heel stick
A
  1. The following statements are true about drawing blood samples for PKU testing EXCEPT:
    a) Fill all circles completely with one full drop of blood
    b) Air dry for several hours (3 hours)
    c) It is OK to take a drop of blood from an EDTA tube to fill the circles
    d) Drawn by performing a heel stick
65
Q
  1. The following statements are true with a pediatric patient
    (children) EXCEPT:
    a) The veins in pediatric patients usually tend to collapse
    b) Children over that age of 2 may have venipuncture in the arm
    c) For infants use 23-25 gauge butterfly needle and micro-tubes
    d) For terrified/uncooperative children one can use EMLA
A
  1. The following statements are true with a pediatric patient
    (children) EXCEPT:
    a) The veins in pediatric patients usually tend to collapse
    b) Children over that age of 2 may have venipuncture in the arm
    c) For infants use 23-25 gauge butterfly needle and micro-tubes
    d) For terrified/uncooperative children one can use EMLA
66
Q
  1. The following steps are ways to handle pediatric patients
    –children:
    a) With uncooperative children it may be necessary to immobilize
    them – The blanket method
    b) Get help from another phlebotomist
    c) Parent can help – child on their lap
    d) All of the above
A
  1. The following steps are ways to handle pediatric patients
    –children:
    a) With uncooperative children it may be necessary to immobilize them – The blanket method
    b) Get help from another phlebotomist
    c) Parent can help – child on their lap
    d) All of the above
67
Q
  1. With geriatric patients all answers below are correct EXCEPT:
    a) Blood vessels become fragile and lose elasticity
    b) The epidermis, outer layer, non-living cells – are not replaced readily causing bruises
    c) Tap a little harder on the vein to get proper dilation
    d) More susceptible to infections
A
  1. With geriatric patients all answers below are correct EXCEPT:
    a) Blood vessels become fragile and lose elasticity
    b) The epidermis, outer layer, non-living cells – are not replaced readily causing bruises
    c) Tap a little harder on the vein to get proper dilation
    d) More susceptible to infections
68
Q
  1. Geriatric patients might have increased coagulation time,
    you may have to:
    a) Apply pressure on the puncture site longer than 5 minutes
    b) Since geriatrics have poorer circulation, they stop bleeding very quickly
    c) You must ensure that the blue top tube is drawn last
    d) Apply pressure for a total of 2 minutes
A
  1. Geriatric patients might have increased coagulation time,
    you may have to:
    a) Apply pressure on the puncture site longer than 5 minutes
    b) Since geriatrics have poorer circulation, they stop bleeding very quickly
    c) You must ensure that the blue top tube is drawn last
    d) Apply pressure for a total of 2 minutes
69
Q
  1. In dealing with hearing impaired patients:
    a) You must be compassionate, never shout or frown
    b) Speak slowly and clearly. Rephrase the statement
    c) Change your phrases and modify your tone of speech
    d) All of the above
A
  1. In dealing with hearing impaired patients:
    a) You must be compassionate, never shout or frown
    b) Speak slowly and clearly. Rephrase the statement
    c) Change your phrases and modify your tone of speech
    d) All of the above
70
Q
  1. In dealing with visually impaired patients:
    a) Do not approach the patient quietly and do not touch him/her
    b) Speak to announce your presence when you are near the patient
    c) Do not leave the patient alone for any length of time
    d) All of the above
A
  1. In dealing with visually impaired patients:
    a) Do not approach the patient quietly and do not touch him/her
    b) Speak to announce your presence when you are near the patient
    c) Do not leave the patient alone for any length of time
    d) All of the above
71
Q
  1. In dealing with a non-English speaking patient:
    a) The patient must consent, so make sure that he/she understands
    you
    b) Since he/she/they do not understand, you do not need to
    “educate the patient”
    c) Use non-verbal gestures and sign language
    d) A and C only
A
  1. In dealing with a non-English speaking patient:
    a) The patient must consent, so make sure that he/she understands you
    b) Since he/she/they do not understand, you do not need to
    “educate the patient”
    c) Use non-verbal gestures and sign language
    d) A and C only
72
Q
  1. In order to handle an angry patient properly:
    a) Do not take patient’s comments personally
    b) Remain calm and professional
    c) Be sympathetic – use phrases like “I’m sorry to hear that” etc.
    d) All of the above
A
  1. In order to handle an angry patient properly:
    a) Do not take patient’s comments personally
    b) Remain calm and professional
    c) Be sympathetic – use phrases like “I’m sorry to hear that” etc.
    d) All of the above
73
Q
  1. Answer True or False:
    a. Dialysis is performed on patients with liver disease
    b. Dialysis patient will have either cannula or a fistula
    c. Blood should not be draw from a fistula
    d. Specially trained person must draw from a cannula
A
  1. Answer True or False:
    a. Dialysis is performed on patients with liver disease False – End stage-renal disease
    b. Dialysis patient will have either cannula or a fistula TRUE
    c. Blood should not be draw from a fistula True – Venous & arterial blood are mixed
    d. Specially trained person must draw from a cannula True
74
Q

The tourniquet should be placed ____________inches above the intended venipuncture site:

A

3-4”

75
Q

Define palpate:

A

Examine by feel or touch

76
Q

You should clean the intended site of venipuncture with 70% isopropyl alcohol in a:

A

Back and forth motion

77
Q

Per CLSI, the tourniquet should not be left on longer than:

A

1 minute

78
Q

The most commonly drawn vein is the:

A

Median Cubital Vein

79
Q

For antecubital site venipunctures, you should insert the needle into the skin at an angle of:

A

15-30 degrees

80
Q

When using a butterfly needle on a hand vein, you should insert the needle into the skin at an angle of:

A

10-15 degrees

81
Q

When making a routine blood smear, the “pusher slide” is normally used at an angle of how many degrees?

A

30 degrees

82
Q

When performing a capillary puncture, which microtube would be collected first?

A

Lavender top

83
Q

Phototherapy(UV-therapy) is used to reduce levels of which substance?

A

Bilirubin

84
Q

An infant bilirubin specimen is collected in an amber microtube to:

A

Protect the specimen from light

85
Q

The medial plantar surface of the heel is located:

A

On the big toe side of the bottom of the heel

86
Q

On an adult a capillary sample is collected most commonly from which part of the body?

A

Third or Fourth finger

87
Q

What is the most important thing to remember when doing a capillary puncture?

A

Excessively milking the finger during a skin puncture can result in hemolysis and contamination of the specimen with tissue fluids

88
Q

Penetration of the bone during a dermal puncture can cause:

A

Osteomyelitis

89
Q

You have been given a requisition to perform a capillary puncture on an infant; the tests ordered are CBC, bilirubin, and electrolytes. Which of the following shows the correct order of draw/collection?

A

CBC, electrolytes, bilirubin

90
Q

A bleeding time test detects:

A

Platelet function disorders

91
Q

Which of the following tests must have a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant in the collection tube?

A

Protime(PT)

92
Q

After collection, which blood test requires the specimen to be protected from light:

A

Bilirubin

93
Q

Thrombotic veins are:

A

Veins that contain a blood clot. They feel hard, inflexible and tender

94
Q

Name a test that a newborn baby must have to rule out a hereditary disorder of phenylalanine metabolism:

A

PKU

95
Q

In case of a discrepancy between the patients statement and the wrist band or the label:

A

Solve the problem before you proceed. Get the nurse involved to make proper correction. Document all action taken

96
Q

What is the most common site for venipuncture?

A

The antecubital fossa of the arm

97
Q

The circulatory system is made up of the following:

A

The heart, blood vessels and blood

98
Q

What are the cellular components of blood?

A

Red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets

99
Q

Name the 3 categories of labs that the federal regulations through CLIA have created:

A

Waived (Level I), Moderate (Level II), High (Level III)

100
Q

What are the two most commonly requested coagulation tests? Identify what color tube they are collected in as well as the action of the anticoagulant in the tube.

A

Prothtrombin Time (PT) and Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) - Blue top tube - sodium citrate - binds calcium ion

101
Q

The best tube for collecting an ETOH(ethanol) specimen has which color stopper?

A

Gray top

102
Q

Which of the following tests is affected the most if collected from a crying infant?

A

White Blood Cell (WBC) count

103
Q

Hematology

A

Term for the study of the blood and blood-forming tissues.

It is also the laboratory department that performs tests that discover, identify, and monitor diseases and other problems associated with the blood and blood forming tissues.

104
Q

Hematocrit

A

(Hct)

Percentage by volume of red blood cells in whole blood

105
Q

Hemoglobin

A

An iron-containing pigment in RBC’s that enables them to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide; it also gives them their red color

106
Q

Hamatopoeisis

A

The blood cell production process

107
Q

Hemostasis

A

Process by which the body stops the leakage of blood from the vascular system after injury; also known as the coagulation process.

108
Q

Homeostasis

A

The “steady state” (state of equilibrium or balance) of the internal environment of the body, which is maintained through feedback and regulation in response to internal and external changes

109
Q

Hemolysis

A

Damage or destruction of RBC’s and release of hemoglobin in the fluid portion of a specimen, causing the serum color to range from pink (slight hemolysis) to red (gross hemolysis)

110
Q

Hemoconcentration

A

A decrease in the fluid content of the blood, with a subsequent increase in non-filterable large molecule or protein-based blood components such as red blood cells.

UCLA Phlebotomy (6 decks)

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