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Clin Micro > Week 2 Review Qs — Exam 1 > Flashcards

Week 2 Review Qs — Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is seen in response to a M. tuberculosis infection?

Select one:

a. Type I- immediate hypersensitivity
b. Type II- cytotoxic hypersensitivity
c. Type III- immune complex hypersensitivity
d. Type IV- delayed hypersensitivity

A

d. Type IV- delayed hypersensitivity

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2
Q

How would you interpret a TST test that measured 17 mm in diameter?

Select one:

a. negative for TB
b. doubtful for TB
c. Weakly positive for TB
d. Strongly positive for TB

A

d. Strongly positive for TB

  • Less than 5 mm = Negative
  • 5 mm to 9.9 mm = Doubtful
  • 10 mm to 14.9 mm = Positive
  • 15 mm or more = Strongly positive
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3
Q

Which of these antibiotics is used preferentially used to treat tuberculosis?

Select one:

a. isoniazid
b. streptomycin
c. ampicillin
d. amoxicliin

A

a. isoniazid

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4
Q

If a patient acquires a M. tuberculosis strain that is resistant to antibiotic treatment how might you describe this infection?

Select one:

a. as an atypical infection
b. as a primary resistant infection
c. as a secondary resistant infection
d. as a tertiary resistant infection

A

b. as a primary resistant infection

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5
Q

Which of the following vaccinations is given to prevent tuberculosis?

Select one:

a. DTaP
b. Hib
c. BCG
d. MMR

A

c. BCG

Note: Bacillus of Calmette and Guérin (BCG) is prepared from a strain of the attenuated live bovine tuberculosis bacillus, Mycobacterium bovis that has lost its virulence in humans by specially culturing in artificial medium for years.

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6
Q

Mycobacterium avium intercellulare is an opportunistic infection seen primarily in which group of individuals?

Select one:

a. pregnant women
b. AIDS patients
c. newborns
d. cancer patients

A

b. AIDS patients

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7
Q

Which drug was developed to treat Hansen’s disease (leprosy)?

Select one:

a. isoniazid
b. rifampin
c. dapsone
d. ampillicin

A

c. dapsone

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8
Q 
M. leprae can be cultured in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
Select one:
a. nutrient broth
b. nutrient agar plates
c. chicken eggs
d. armadillos
A

d. armadillos

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9
Q

The granulomas associated with multibacillary leprosy are most often found on the __________________.

Select one:

a. skin
b. liver
c. brain
d. kidneys

A

a. skin

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10
Q

What is characteristic of paucibacillary leprosy?

Select one:

a. lesions are symmetrical
b. nerve involvement is patchy
c. bacteria are easy to culture from lesions
d. cartilage of the nose is often destroyed

A

b. nerve involvement is patchy

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11
Q

Which of the following microorganisms is part of the normal flora of some humans?

Select one:

a. Actinomyces sp.
b. Salmonella sp.
c. Shigella sp.
d. Bordetella sp

A

a. Actinomyces sp.

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12
Q

Which of the following microorganisms is always pathogenic?

Select one:

a. E. coli
b. S. aureus
c. Nocardia sp.
d. Haemophilus sp.

A

c. Nocardia sp.

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13
Q

Nocardia sp. infection often mimics which disease?

A

tuberculosis

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14
Q

What is the function of axial filaments of T. Pallidum?

A

locomotion

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15
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission of T. pallidum?

A

sexual

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16
Q

What is the name given to the lesion of primary syphilis?

Select one:

a. chancroid
b. chancre
c. condyloma lata
d. condyloma acuminata

A

b. chancre

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17
Q

What is the cause of gummas?

Select one:

a. necrosis due to T. pallidum
b. action of the naive macrophages
c. an autoimmune response
d. swelling of regional lymph nodes

A

c. an autoimmune response

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18
Q

“Skin rash” is the sign of secondary syphilis with what location on the body?

A

Soles of feet

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19
Q

“Condyloma lata” is the sign of secondary syphilis with what location on the body?

A

Mouth

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20
Q

“Neurosyphilis” is the sign of secondary syphilis with what location on the body?

A

Brain

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21
Q

“Tabes dorsalis” is the sign of secondary syphilis with what location on the body?

A

Spinal cord and dorsal roots

22
Q

A non-specific test for syphilis is looking for antibodies to ______________.

Select one:

a. T. pallidum DNA
b. T. pallidum cells
c. a carbohydrate released by damaged cells
d. a lipid released by damaged cells

A

d. a lipid released by damaged cells

23
Q

Which of the following is a commonly utilized non-specific test for syphilis?

Select one:

a. Wasserman test
b. VDRL slide test
c. Kahn test
d. Hinton test

A

b. VDRL slide test

24
Q

Treponema pertenue is the causative agent of

A

Yaws

25
Q

Treponema carateum is the causative agent of

A

Pinta

26
Q

Treponema vincentii is the causative agent of

A

Trench mouth

27
Q

Lice are the vector for ___________________.

A

Borrelia recurrentis AKA relapsing fever

28
Q

Which of the following serves as the vector for endemic relapsing fever (borrelia recurrentis)?

Select one:

a. lice
b. ticks
c. mosquitoes
d. mites

A

b. ticks

Note: vector for Borrelia recurrentis is lice and ticks. If it is epidemic, likely lice. But endemic is ticks.

29
Q

The typical vector for Lyme disease is _________________.

A

c. ticks

Note: Lyme disease = Borrelia burgdorferi

30
Q

What’s the typical presentation of the primary stage of Lyme disease?

A

b. bulls-eye rash

31
Q

Tertiary Lyme disease may present as _____________.

A

Chronic arthritis

32
Q

The most likely source of a Leptospira sp. infection is _______________.

A

A dog

33
Q

Bacterial infectious jaundice due to Leptospira sp. infection is known as _________.

A

Weil’s disease

34
Q

The disease most often associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae is:

A

Walking pneumonia

35
Q

The disease most often associated with infection with Ureaplasma urealyticum is:

Select one:

a. urethritis
b. PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)
c. genital warts
d. kidney infection

A

a. urethritis

36
Q

Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall?

Select one:

a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Borrelia burgdorferi

A

a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

37
Q

Bacteria: “rickettsia prowazekii”
Vector: __________
Disease: __________

A

Lice

Epidemic typhus

38
Q

Bacteria: “orientia tsutsugamushi”
Vector: __________
Disease: __________

A

Chiggers

Scrub typhus

39
Q

Bacteria: “rickettsia rickettsii”
Vector: __________
Disease: __________

A

Tick

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

40
Q

Bacteria: “rickettsia typhi”
Vector: __________
Disease: __________

A

Flea

Endemic typhus

41
Q

Bacteria: “rickettsia akari”
Vector: __________
Disease: __________

A

Mites

Rickettsialpox

42
Q

Bacteria: “Rickettsia quintana”
Vector: __________
Disease: __________

A

Body lice

Trench fever

43
Q

Bacteria: “Coxiella burnetii”
Vector: __________
Disease: __________

A

No vector

Q fever

44
Q

Which of the following bacteria are capable of forming an endospore?

Select one:

a. Rickettsia typhi
b. Coxiella burnetii
c. Orienta tsutsugamushi
d. Rickettsia akari

A

b. Coxiella burnetii

45
Q

What is the infective form of Chlamydia trachomatis?

Select one:

a. reticulate body
b. elementary body
c. endospore
d. cyst

A

b. elementary body

46
Q

Trachoma is a ____________.

Select one:

a. chronic conjunctivitis
b. genital infection
c. GI disease
d. respiratory infection

A

a. chronic conjunctivitis

47
Q

A common presentation of Chlamydia trachomatis infection in females is called ____________.

Select one:

a. PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)
b. trachoma
c. pyelonephritis
d. hepatitis

A

a. PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)

48
Q

Infection with Chlamydia psittaci presents in the patient as a ___________.

Select one:

a. urinary tract infection
b. kidney infection
c. respiratory infection
d. GI infection

A

c. respiratory infection

49
Q

Legionella pneumophila is transmitted by_________________.

Select one:

a. person to person contact
b. inhalation of water droplets
c. sexual contact
d. drinking contaminated water

A

b. inhalation of water droplets

50
Q

Typical symptoms associated with Legionella pneumophila infection include:

Select one:

a. diarrhea and nausea
b. dry cough and fever
c. jaundice and fever
d. pain on urination

A

b. dry cough and fever

Clin Micro (9 decks)

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