Exam 2 Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Yeasts can be described as _________________.

Select one:

a. multicelled eukaryotes
b. single celled eukaryotes
c. multicelled prokaryotes
d. single celled prokaryotes

A

b. single celled eukaryotes

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2
Q

A collection of hyphae is referred to as a/n ____________________.

Select one:

a. septate structure
b. mycelium
c. aseptate structure
d. thallus

A

b. mycelium

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3
Q

What is a mycoses?

A

A fungal disease

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4
Q

Which of the following fungi is responsible for Spelunker’s disease?

Select one:

a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Coccidioides imitis
c. Blastomyces dermatitis
d. Mucor sp.

A

a. Histoplasma capsulatum

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5
Q

Coccidioides immitis causes the disease known as _________________.

A

Valley Fever

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6
Q

Localized infection of the nasal passages that has the potential to spread to the bloodstream is characteristic of _____________.

A

Mucormycosis

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7
Q

What IV antifungal is used to treat systemic fungal infections? And how does it work?

A

amphotericin B

Binds to primary fungal cell membrane sterol called ergo sterol and causes the cell to lyse

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8
Q

Which of these occupations is most likely to put an individual at risk for contracting sporotrichosis?

Select one:

a. greenhouse technician
b. sewage treatment
c. butcher
d. veterinarian

A

a. greenhouse technician

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9
Q

Identify the appropriate location on the body for each tinea infection.

  1. tinea pedis
  2. tinea corporis
  3. tinea capitis
  4. tinea unguium
A
  1. tinea pedis - foot
  2. tinea corporis - body
  3. tinea capitis - head
  4. tinea unguium - nails
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10
Q

Which organism is mostly to be causative of tinea pedis?

Select one:

a. Trichophyton tonsurans
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
d. Sporothrix schenckii

A

a. Trichophyton tonsurans

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11
Q

Which type of tinea infection is NOT contagious?

A

b. tinea versicolor

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12
Q

Ringworm is the common name for a _________________________.

A

superficial fungal infection

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13
Q

What is thrush?

A

an oral Candida albicans infection

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14
Q

Which of the following pathogens is often responsible for meningoencephalitis in AIDS patients?

Select one:

a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Pneumocystis jiroveci
d. Staphylococcus pneumoniae

A

b. Cryptococcus neoformans

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15
Q

The host in which a parasite reproduces is known as the ________________ host.

A

Definitive

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16
Q

The host in which the parasite grows, but does not reproduce, is known as the ________________ host.

A

intermediate

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17
Q

Gastrointestinal parasites are most often diagnosed by using _________________.

A

fecal samples

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18
Q

What is the infective form of Entamoeba histolytica, that is the life stage that infects humans?

A

Cyst

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19
Q

Which organ is impacted in the most serious form of E. histolytica infection?

A

Liver

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20
Q

What is the most common way to acquire E. histolytica?

A

eating contaminated food

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21
Q

Unlike many other protozoan parasites the infective form of N. fowleri is the __________________.

A

Trophozoite

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22
Q

What results from N. fowleri infection?

A

meningoencephalitis

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23
Q

What is the route of transmission for Giardia lamblia?

A

Fecal-oral

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24
Q

Giardia lamblia typically causes bloody diarrhea. True or false

A

False

G. lamblia only prevents reabsorption. No bleeding occurs

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25
Q

G. lamblia only prevents reabsorption. No bleeding occurs

A

sexual contact

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26
Q

True or false. The cyst form of Trichomonas vaginalis is responsible for the itching and green discharge seen in female patients.

A

False

There is no cyst form present in T. vaginalis. The trophozoite form is passed between humans and causes the symptoms.

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27
Q

What is the vector for Trypanosoma brucei?

A

Tse-Tse fly

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28
Q

What symptoms would you anticipate in a patient suffering from a T. brucei infection?

A

mental confusion

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29
Q

What is the vector for Typanosoma cruzi?

A

kissing bug

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30
Q

What is a chagoma?

A

a red nodule at the site of the bite

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31
Q

Chronic Chagas’ disease is most often damaging to the ______________.

A

heart

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32
Q

What is the vector for visceral leishmaniasis?

A

Sand fly

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33
Q

The name Jericho boil or Baghdad boil refer to:

Select one:

a. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
b. Visceral leishmaniasis
c. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
d. Kala zaar

A

a. Cutaneous leishmaniasis

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34
Q

What is the most likely reservoir of B. coli for human infection?

A

Pigs

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35
Q

What is the most likely symptom to be observed in a patient with a B. coli infection?

A

Bloody diarrhea

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36
Q

What is the infective form of Plasmodium sp. parasites?

A

Sporozoite

37
Q

What is the consequence of the production of hemozoin (malarial pigment) in the patient?

A

Anemia

38
Q

What is the consequence of the production of hemozoin (malarial pigment) in the patient?

A

P. falciparium

39
Q

The “signet ring” formation in red blood cells is characteristic of which species of malaria?

A

P. falciparium

40
Q

What is the vector for Babesia microti?

A

Tick

41
Q

Red blood cells infected with B. microti will display which of the following distinctive patterns?

Select one:

a. a signet ring
b. a band
c. a tetrad
d. a rosette

A

c. a tetrad

42
Q

What is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Cat

43
Q

Ingestion of the ______________ is the most common mode of infection in humans.

A

oocyst

44
Q

Toxoplasmosis is most risky for which group of individuals?

A

neonates

45
Q

What is the typical route of transmission for Cryptosporidium parvum?

A

ingestion of contaminated water

46
Q

An important feature of C. parvum is it’s ability to resist __________________.

A

chlorine

47
Q

How is Ascaris lumbricoides contracted by the human host?

A

ingestion of ova

48
Q

Where do A. lumbricoides larvae grow and molt in the human host?

A

the lung

49
Q

What symptoms would be anticipated in a human host with a low worm burden?

A

no symptoms

50
Q

What is the route of transmission of Trichuris trichiura?

A

fecal- oral

51
Q

Where do the adult worms of T. trichiura live in the human host?

A

the large intestine

52
Q

What is the consequence of a heavy worm burden of T. trichiura?

A

prolapsed rectum

53
Q

Where are the adults of Ancylostoma duodenale found in the human host?

A

in the small intestine

54
Q

Which of the following might allow a human to acquire a hookworm infection?

Select one:

a. walking barefoot
b. being bitten by a mosquito
c. drinking contaminated water
d. having unprotected sex

A

a. walking barefoot

55
Q

When the eggs produced by a female worm are hatched very soon after being released, the female is said to be ______________________.

A

ovoviviparous

56
Q

Which nematode has the ability to persist as free-living adult worms?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

57
Q

Which of the following might put a human at risk of contracting Anisakis sp.?

Select one:

a. being bitten by a mosquito
b. eating undercooked fish
c. eating undercooked pork
d. drinking contaminated water

A

b. eating undercooked fish

58
Q

How is anisakisis treated?

A

physical removal via endoscopy

59
Q

Eating undercooked pork puts an individual at risk for contracting _________________.

A

Trichinella spiralis

60
Q

Where would you expect to find the larvae of Trichinella spiralis in the human host?

A

In muscle tissue

61
Q

How does an individual become infected with Dracunculus medinensis?

A

by drinking water containing infected copepods

62
Q

How is D. medinensis treated?

A

by mechanically extracting the worm

63
Q

What is the vector for Wuchereia bancrofti?

A

Mosquito

64
Q

When should blood be drawn to test for elephantiasis?

A

during the night

65
Q

What is the vector of the parasite that causes river blindness?

A

the black fly

66
Q

Where are the adults of Onchocerca volvulus found in the human host?

A

in subcutaneous tissue

67
Q

What life stage of F. hepatica infects a human host?

A

cercariae

68
Q

The most common reservoirs for F. hepatica are?

A

sheep

69
Q

Which of the following lunch choices would put you at risk for F. hepatica?

Select one:

a. sushi
b. a salad
c. a cheeseburger
d. fish sandwich

A

b. a salad

70
Q

What is most likely food to harbor C. sinensis?

Select one:

a. sushi (raw fish)
b. rare cheeseburger
c. raw eggs
d. a salad

A

sushi (raw fish)

71
Q

What is the intermediate host for C. sinensis?

A

snail

72
Q

Where in the human host would you expect to find the adults of Fasciolopsis buski?

A

small intestine

73
Q

What is the intermediate host for F. buski?

A

snail

74
Q

What is the usual host of F. buski?

A

pigs

75
Q

Unlike other flukes, schistosomes:

Select one:

a. are of both sexes, male and female
b. have a cyst form
c. have a fish as an intermediate host
d. do not lay eggs

A

a. are of both sexes, male and female

76
Q

Where would you find adult schistosomes in a human host?

A

Veins

77
Q

The larval cercariae of schistosomes enter the human via:

A

penetration of skin

78
Q

A patient presents with eosinophila? What should you consider in your diagnosis?

A

helminthic (worm) infection

79
Q

What would be the most likely source of a Taenia saginata infection?

A

a rare steak

80
Q

Upon being treated for a tapeworm, a patient should be certain to pass the head of the worm in their feces. What is the name given to the head of a tapeworm?

A

scolex

81
Q

What is the most likely source of a T. solium infection?

A

a rare pork chop

82
Q

What is the name given to the fluid filled larval structures in Taenia infections?

A

cysticerci

83
Q

Cystercerosis occurs only with the pork tapeworm. How is it most likely to present in a patient?

A

as meningitis

84
Q

What is the most likely source of a Diphyllobothrium latum infections?

A

sushi

85
Q

What is the intermediate host of D. latum?

A

a copepod

86
Q

Long term infection with D. latum is characterized by weight loss and _____________.

A

vitamin B12 deficiency

87
Q

Human infection with Echinococcus granulosus usually results from contact with an infected _________________.

A

dog

88
Q

The name given to the fluid filled larval structures of an E. granulosus infection is_______________.

A

hydatid cyst