Week 2 Lab: Lab Safety Flashcards

1
Q

OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CLSI

A

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (NCCLS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CDC

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CAP

A

College of American Pathologists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TJC

A

The Joint Commission (formerly JCAHO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

It is within the U.S. Department of Labor to set levels of safety and health for all workers in the United States. It covers all different professions.

A

OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A nonprofit organization that sets voluntary consensus standards for all areas of clinical laboratories. Standardizes procedure and for certification of controls.

A

CLSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A Federal agency that carries out mandated public health laws and reporting requirements. It releases guidelines.

A

CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Provides accreditation and proficiency testing for laboratories.

A

CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An independent, not-for-profit organization that accredits and certifies health-care organizations and programs in the United States.

A

TJC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

OSHC

A

Occupational Safety and Health Commission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who mandates OSHC in the PH?

A

DOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does OSHC do?

A

Training of Safety Officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the responsibilities of safety officers?

A
  • identify different risks and hazards in the laboratory
  • ensure several controls and measures are in place
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

People included in the Infection Control Team?

A
  • physicians specialized in infectious diseases
  • representative nurses
  • representative medtechs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The Infection Control Team is involved in ensuring that the _____________________ by the DOH are met.

A

National Standards in Infection Control for Healthcare Facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

It refers to the quality assurance checking of a laboratory with other laboratories.

A

Proficiency Testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who is responsible for the proficiency testing/NEQAS (National External Quality Assurance Scheme)?

A

NRLs/National Reference Laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which NRL is for drug and toxicology?

A

East Avenue Medical Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Each professional must be ___________ at all times!

A

safety conscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Source of chemical hazards?

A

Preservatives and reagents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Possible injuries from chemical hazards?

A

Exposure to toxic, carcinogenic, or caustic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Source of sharps?

A

Needles, lancets, broken glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Possible injuries from sharps?

A

Cuts, punctures or blood-borne pathogen exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Source of electrical hazards?

A

Ungrounded or wet equipment; frayed cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Possible injuries from electrical hazards?

A

Burns or shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Source of fire/explosives?

A

Bunsen burners, organic chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Possible injuries from fire/explosives?

A

Burns, dismemberment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Source of physical hazards?

A

Wet floors, heavy boxes, patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Possible injuries from physical hazards?

A

Falls, sprains or strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Source of radiation hazards?

A

Equipment and radioisotopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Possible injuries from radiation hazards?

A

Radiation exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Source of biological hazards?

A

Infectious agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Possible injuries from biological hazards?

A

(infections) bacterial, fungal, viral, or parasitic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the types of laboratory hazards?

A
  • chemical
  • sharps
  • electrical
  • fire/explosives
  • physical
  • radiation
  • biological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Risk factors that includes pathogens on the hands of medical personnels, invasive procedures (intubation, indwelling vascular lines, urine catheterization).

A

Iatrogenic risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Risk factors that include contaminated air-conditioning systems, contaminated water systems, staffing and physical layout of the facility.

A

Organizational risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Risk factors that include severity of illness, underlying state of the patient and length of stay.

A

Patient risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Potential hazards in the laboratory?

A
  • electric shock
  • toxic vapors
  • compressed gases
  • flammable liquids
  • radioactive material
  • corrosive substances
  • mechanical trauma
  • poisons
  • inherent risks of handling biologic materials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Primary cause of accidents?

A
  • unsafe acts
  • unsafe environmental conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

First rule of self-protection?

A

alertness at all times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Things to always remember while working in the laboratory?

A
  • stay informed
  • use common sense and presence of mind
  • listen to any instructions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Psychology of Safety?

A
  1. Laboratory safety necessitates the effective control of all hazards that exists in the clinical laboratory at any time.
  2. Safety begins with the recognition of hazards and is achieved through:
    - Application of common sense
    - Safety-focused attitude
    - Good personal behavior
    - Good housekeeping in all laboratory work and storage areas
    - Continual practice of good laboratory technique
  3. Inexperience may cause some accidents; others are results of ignoring known risks, haste carelessness, fatigue or mental preoccupation.
  4. Preventive Measures:
    • Annual safety reviews
    • Safety drills
    • General consciousness
    • Appropriate orientation to safety rules
    • Safe work environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which states that blood and body fluid precautions should be consistently used for all patients?

A

Universal Precautions (1987)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Who mandated the Universal Precautions?

A

CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Potentially infectious materials?

A

Body fluids (semen, vaginal secretions, amniotic fluid, saliva, tears, CSF, urine and breast milk); Unfixed tissues, organs or blood slides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Precautions for safety awareness for clinical laboratory personnel?

A
  • Appropriate barriers (gloves, gowns or laboratory coats)
  • Appropriate engineering controls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Universal practices for safety awareness for clinical laboratory personnel?

A
  • Wearing of gloves (reusing is not allowed)
  • Handwashing
  • Laboratory coats (on site)
  • Prohibited: eating, drinking, smoking, applying cosmetics, touching contact lenses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Inactivation methods for safety awareness for clinical laboratory personnel?

A
  • Heat sterilization (250C for 15 minutes)
  • Ethylene Oxide (450-500 mg/L at 55-60C )
  • 2% Glutaraldehyde
  • 10% hydrogen peroxide
  • 5.25 hypochlorite (bleach)
  • 10% (v/v with tap water) of common household bleach: HBV (10 minutes), HIV (2 minutes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Other information for safety awareness for clinical laboratory personnel?

A
  • Vaccination against HBV (medical technologists, phlebotomists, pathologists)
  • Appropriate signs to identify hazards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Safety showers, eyewash stations, fire extinguishers are _________ tested and inspected.

A

periodically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

______________________ must be used to manipulate liquids.

A

Mechanical pipetting device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Safety showers deliver ______ gallons of water per minute at ______ pounds per square in. (psi) and be located in areas where corrosive liquids are stored or used.

A

30 - 50 gallons; 20-50 pounds per square in. (psi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Eyewash stations must be accessible (i.e., within __________)

A

100 ft or 10 s travel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

They are required to expel noxious and hazardous fumes from chemical reagents.

A

Fume Hoods

56
Q

How to check airflow direction of fume hood?

A

tissue paper placed at the hood opening

57
Q

Face Velocity of fume hood?

A

Velocity meter: 100 – 120 ft. per minute

58
Q

What testing is done to locate no flow or turbulent areas in the working space?

A

Smoke Testing

59
Q

This engineering control removes particles that may be harmful to the employee who is working with potentially infectious biologic specimens.

A

Biosafety Cabinet

60
Q

What type of filter is present in a biosafety cabinet?

A

high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter

61
Q

All Clinical Lab should have?

A
  • Chemical hygiene plan
  • Exposure control plan
  • Copy of MSDS
62
Q

Specimens should be _______ during centrifugation.

A

capped

63
Q

Use __________ to pick-up broken glass or other sharp objects.

A

mechanical devices

64
Q

Absorb spills with ________, ________ or ________.

A

paper towels, gauze pad, or tissue

65
Q

Clean the spill site using a common __________________.

A

aqueous detergent

66
Q

Disinfect the spill site using approved disinfectant or _______ using appropriate contact time.

A

10% bleach

67
Q

Category __ Exposure: daily exposure to blood and body fluids

A

I

68
Q

Category _ Exposure: regular exposure to blood and body fluids

A

II

69
Q

Category _ Exposure: no exposure to blood and body fluids

A

III

70
Q

OSHA Blood-Borne Pathogens standard requires written ______________.

A

Exposure Control Plan

71
Q

Employers must offer ______ to all personnel
(Category I and II)

A

HBV/Hepatitis B Vaccine

72
Q

__________________ should be installed to facilitate manipulations of infectious materials.

A

Biological Safety Cabinets

73
Q

Hazard Communication Standard includes?

A
  1. Hazard communication program
  2. Chemical Hygiene Plan
  3. Inventory of hazardous substances
74
Q

Toxic chemicals (Communication) includes?

A
  1. Labelling of containers
  2. Information and training
  3. Program of Hazard communication
75
Q

Sample chemical label includes?

A

(1) statement of hazard
(2) hazard class
(3) safety precautions
(4) NFPA hazard code
(5) fire extinguisher type
(6) safety instructions
(7) formula weight
(8) lot number

76
Q

Hazard Rating Scheme: blue means?

A

health

77
Q

How is health (blue portion) categorized in the hazard rating scheme?

A

4 - severe hazard
3 - serious hazard
2 - moderate hazard
1 - slight hazard
0 - minimal hazard

78
Q

Hazard Rating Scheme: red means?

A

flammability

79
Q

How is flammability (red portion) categorized in the hazard rating scheme?

A

4 - flammable liquids, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials
3 - ignites at ambient temperatures
2 - ignites when moderately heated
1 - must be preheated to burn
0 - wil not burn

80
Q

Hazard Rating Scheme: yellow means?

A

reactivity/instability

81
Q

How is reactivity/instability (yellow portion) categorized in the hazard rating scheme?

A

4 - Readily capable of detonation or explosion
3 - Capable of detonation or explosion
2 - Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressures
1 - Normally stable but become unstable if heated
0 - Normally stable

82
Q

Hazard Rating Scheme: white means?

A

personal protection/special

83
Q

How is personal protection/special (white portion) categorized in the hazard rating scheme?

A

₩ - Avoid Use of Water
OX - Oxidizer
SA - Simple Asphyxiant

84
Q

HMIS

A

Hazardous Materials Identification System

85
Q

A voluntary hazard rating scheme developed by American Coatings Association (ACA). It communicates chemical hazard information through the use of colors, numbers and letters of the alphabet.

A

Hazardous Materials Identification System (HMIS)

86
Q

ACA

A

American Coatings Association

87
Q

SDS contents?

A

Section 1: Identification
Section 2: Hazard identification
Section 3: Ingredients information
Section 4: First aid procedures
Section 5: Fire-fighting procedures
Section 6: Accidental-release measures
Section 7: Handling and storage
Section 8: Exposure controls and personal protection
Section 9: Physical and chemical properties
Section 10: Stability and reactivity
Section 11: Toxicological information
Section 12: Ecological information
Section 13: Disposal considerations
Section 14: Transport information
Section 15: Regulatory information
Section 16: Other information, including date of preparation or last revision

88
Q

The temperature at which sufficient vapor is given off to form an ignitable mixture with air.

A

Flash point

89
Q

Flammable/combustible chemicals are classified according to ____________.

A

flash point

90
Q

Injurious to the skin or eyes by direct contact or to the tissue of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts if inhaled or ingested.

A

Corrosive Chemicals

91
Q

Spontaneously explode or ignite or that evolve heat or flammable or explosive gases.

A

Reactive Chemicals

92
Q

Non-conductive materials include__________________.

A

paper, glass, rubber, procelain, ceramic, plastic, wood

93
Q

___________________ malfunctioning electrical or mechanical equipment until serviced.

A

Lock-out or tag

94
Q

Records for radioactive materials must be maintained for _______________________________.

A

the length of employment plus 30 years

95
Q

Radiation monitoring utilizes _________________.

A

film badge or survey meter

96
Q

Maximum permissible dose for radiation monitoring using film badge or survey meter is ________________.

A

5000 mrem/year whole body

97
Q

The __________________ involves wiping laboratory surfaces with moistened absorbent material and the radiation contained in each wipe is counted.

A

wipe test (leak test)

98
Q

Compressed Gases Hazards?

A
  • Danger of fire
  • Explosion
  • Asphyxiation
  • Mechanical injuries
99
Q

Store tanks in a _______ position.

A

vertical

100
Q

PASS acronym stands for?

A

P - pull pin
A - aim nozzle
S - squeeze trigger
S - sweep nozzle

101
Q

Class A fires involve?

A

common combustibles such as:
- wood
- paper
- cloth
- rubber
- trash
- plastics

102
Q

Class A fire symbol shape and color?

A

green triangle

103
Q

Class B fires involve?

A
  • flammable liquids
  • solvents
  • oil
  • gasoline
  • paint
  • lacquers
  • other oil-based products
104
Q

Class B fire symbol shape and color?

A

red square

105
Q

Class C fires involve?

A
  • energized electrical equipment
  • wiring
  • controls
  • motors
  • machinery
  • appliances
106
Q

Class C fire symbol shape and color?

A

blue circle

107
Q

Class D fires involve?

A

combustible metals (ex: magnesium, lithium, titanium)

108
Q

Class D fire symbol shape and color?

A

yellow star

109
Q

Class D fire extinguisher agent?

A

dry powder

110
Q

Class K fires involve?

A

combustible cooking media such as oils and grease

111
Q

Class K fire symbol shape and color?

A

black hexagon

112
Q

Class K fire extinguisher agent?

A

wet chemical

113
Q

JCAHO

A

Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations

114
Q

The _____________________ requires that all health-care institutions post evacuation routes and detailed plans to follow in the event of a fire.

A

Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)

115
Q

RACE acronym stands for?

A

Rescue - rescue anyone in immediate danger
Alarm - activate the institutional fire alarm system
Contain - close all doors to potentially affected areas
Extinguish- attempt to extinguish the fire, if possible; exit the area

116
Q

_________ is the most widely used cryogenic fluids (liquefied gases) in the laboratory

A

Liquid nitrogen

117
Q

Liquid nitrogen or any cryogenic material may cause?

A
  • fire or explosion
  • asphyxiation
  • pressure buildup
  • embrittlement of materials
  • tissue damage similar to that of thermal burns
118
Q

____________ help eliminate bumping/boilover when liquids are heated.

A

Glass beads

119
Q

5 Hierarchy of Controls?

A
  1. Elimination - blue, most effective
  2. Substitution - green
  3. Engineering Controls - yellow
  4. Administrative Controls - orange
  5. PPE - red, least effective
120
Q

Hierarchy of Control: Completely remove the hazard from the workplace or the process, thus eliminating the risk entirely.

A

Elimination

121
Q

Hierarchy of Control: Replace the hazardous material, process, or equipment with a safer alternative.

A

Substitution

122
Q

Hierarchy of Control: Implement physical modifications to the workplace or equipment to isolate workers from the hazard or reduce exposure.

A

Engineering Controls

123
Q

Hierarchy of Control: Develop and implement safety policies, procedures, and training to reduce the likelihood of exposure to hazards.

A

Administrative Controls

124
Q

Hierarchy of Control: Provide workers with appropriate PPE, such as gloves, respirators, or protective clothing, to protect against the identified hazard.

A

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

125
Q

4 Basic Waste Disposal Technique?

A
  1. Flushing down the drain
  2. Incineration
  3. Landfill burial
  4. Recycling
126
Q

Strong acids and bases should be ___________ before disposal.

A

neutralized

127
Q

Flammable solvents are collected in _________.

A

approved containers

128
Q

Flammable material waste are put in ___________.

A

specially designed incinerators

129
Q

Solid waste chemicals are brought to the ______.

A

landfill

130
Q

Radioactive wastes are disposed depending on:

A
  • type of waste (soluble/nonsoluble)
  • level of radioactivity
  • radiotoxicity
  • half-life of isotopes involved
131
Q

___________ are special waste from health care facilities. They are solid waste that, if improperly treated or handled, may transmit infectious diseases.

A

Medical waste

132
Q

Medical wastes may be disposed in one of the following ways?

A
  • steam sterilization
  • incineration
  • thermal inactivation
  • burial
  • chemical disinfection
  • encapsulation in a solid matrix
133
Q

Class E fires involve?

A

detonation fire and arsenal fire

134
Q

What is the maximum amount of flammable liquid that can be stored?

A

5 gallons

135
Q

A manufactured carcinogenic chemical used in clinical laboratories for detecting blood as a rubber-compounding agent.

A

Benzidine

136
Q

Temperature for flammables?

A

lower than 37.8 degrees Celsius

137
Q

Temperature for combustibles?

A

greater than 37.8 degrees Celsius