Week 10 formative quiz Flashcards

1
Q

The classic triad of the presentation of Aortic stenosis is syncope, angina and heart failure.

A

True - however this does not mean all patients will present this way. These are all features of SEVERE aortic stenosis.

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2
Q

Mitral regurgitation radiates to the carotids.

A

False - Mitral regurgitation is a pan systolic murmur heard best at the apex and radiates to the left axilla. Aortic stenosis radiates to the carotids.

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3
Q

The classic pulse of aortic regurgitation is collapsing.

A

True - a collapsing pulse reaches its peak volume quickly and then “falls away”, as blood refluxes back through an incompetent aortic valve.

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4
Q

Kussmaul’s sign may be seen in constrictive pericarditis.

A

True - JVP normally falls on inspiration. Kussmaul’s sign is a rise in JVP on inspiration. It may be seen in constrictive pericarditis.

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5
Q

The classic pulse of aortic stenosis is collapsing

A

False - The classic pulse of aortic stenosis is described as small volume and slow rising.

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6
Q

Fat emboli are associated with fractures of long bones.

A

True - Fat embolism syndrome is a complication which may present after a fracture of long bones.

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7
Q

Malignancy is a risk factor for thrombus formation.

A

True - Malignancy is an associated risk for thrombus formation and diagnosis of a thrombus may raise suspicion of underlying malignancy, especially if no other risk factors are present.

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8
Q

Williams syndrome is classically associated with aortic regurgitation.

A

False - It is classically associated with Supravalvular Aortic stenosis.

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9
Q

When investigating a suspected case of infective endocarditis, it is important to take multiple blood cultures all at the same time and site.

A

False - It is important to take multiple sets, typically 3 sets, all from different sites. They should be taken 6 or more hours apart. If the patient is very unwell, 2 sets from different sites should be taken within 1 hour.

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10
Q

Virchow’s triad consists of changes in the vessel wall, the blood components and the blood flow.

A

True - Above is Virchow’s triad. These are the risk factors which contribute to a thrombus forming.

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11
Q

A 60 year old patient with renal failure presents as an emergency with sharp chest pain which is eased by leaning forward. On auscultation a faint rub can be heard. The diagnosis is likely to be an acute myocardial infarction.

A

False - The diagnosis is likely to be acute pericarditis, possibly secondary to high urea levels seen in renal failure.

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12
Q

Aortic stenosis is an ejection systolic murmur.

A

True - Aortic stenosis is an ejection systolic murmur which is heard best in the second intercostal space on the right of the sternum and radiates to the carotids.

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13
Q

Long QT syndrome is a possible cause of nocturnal seizures

A

Particularly SCN5A – associated Long QT can present with nocturnal “seizures”. A 12 lead ECG is an essential part of the investigation of a first seizure. The “seizure” is associated with self-terminating ventricular tachycardia (Torsades de Pointes type). Patients with KCNQ1 and KCNH2 associated Long QT tend to have episodes of arrhythmia associated with exertion (including diving into cold water) or sudden fright (such as an alarm bell) respectively. Arrhythmia can be prevented by beta-blockers and other therapies. Certain antibiotics and antipsychotics drugs can cause acquired Long QT.

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14
Q

The aortic and pulmonary valves are the two most common valves operated on in adults.

A

False - The aortic and MITRAL valves are the most common two valves operated on in adults.

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15
Q

During a Coronary Artery Bypass Graft the patient is required to be placed on cardiopulmonary bypass.

A

Bypass is required to take over the function of the heart and lungs.

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16
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is rare and usually fatal in young adults.

A

Hyerptrophic cardiomyopathy is a common disorder affecting 1/500 people, and in most cases is relatively mild becoming symptomatic in older people, although it is occasionally severe in younger adults. 4 genes for sarcomere proteins (MYBPC3, MYH7, TTNT2 and TNNI3) are commonly implicated in the disorder (although a number of other types have been described) and most patients will have a variant on one of these genes. The severely affected younger patients often have two variants, which may explain their severity.

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17
Q

A patient presents after a road traffic accident with a tachycardia, hypotension, raised JVP and muffled heart sounds. The likely cause of these signs is constrictive pericarditis.

A

False - The likely diagnosis is pericardial tamponade secondary to trauma. Becks triad is seen above, a collection of signs seen in acute pericardial tamponade. These are hypotension, raised JVP and muffled heart sounds.

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18
Q

In mitral valve disease, valve replacement is always required

A

False - Mitral valve repair is often used in mitral valve disease and can be effective. For example in mitral valvuloplasty, a small hallow tube is advanced via blood vessels to the heart. A balloon is inflated to stretch open the stenosed mitral valve.

Some people with mild mitral valve disease may not require any treatment at all.

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19
Q

Pericardial tamponade is a large collection of fluid in the pleural space.

A

False - This is a large collection of fluid in the pericardial space which causes cardiac compression and as a result leads to a reduction in cardiac output.

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20
Q

A sternotomy is required during a Coronary Artery Bypass Graft procedure.

A

True - Sternotomy (midline incision through the sternum) allows access to the heart to carry out the procedure.

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21
Q

Marfan syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder of chromosome 15.

A

False - It is an Autosomal dominant disorder.

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22
Q

The pulse pressure in Aortic regurgitation is narrow.

A

False - The pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure. In Aortic regurgitation the pulse pressure is wide.

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23
Q

Alcoholic heart disease is always irreversible.

A

False - In the early stages complete abstinence from alcohol can possibly reverse the effects.

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24
Q

Aortic surgery should be offered in Marfan syndrome if the Sinus of Valsalva exceeds 3cm.

A

False - Aortic surgery should be offered in Marfan syndrome if the Sinus of Valsalva exceeds 5.5cm or exceeds 5% growth per year.

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25
Q

An IV drug user is referred after his GP heard a murmur over the left lower sternal edge. He has been feeling “hot” for the last three weeks. The likely diagnosis is pericarditis.

A

False - The most likely diagnosis is infective endocarditis. The classic presentation in IV drug users is infective endocarditis most commonly affecting the tricuspid valve and caused by staph aureus. IV drug abuse is a risk factor as bacteria from the skin are introduced into the bloodstream through non-sterile needle use.

26
Q

Mitral valve disease can cause enlargement of the left atrium.

A

True - both mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation can cause enlargement of the left atrium.

27
Q

Aortic stenosis can lead to left ventricular hypertrophy.

A

True - There is increased afterload on the left ventricle due to the back-pressure from the stenosed aortic valve. This means the ventricle has to work harder and can become hypertrophied.

28
Q

The risk of a thrombus forming post operatively is not related to the degree of tissue damage during surgery.

A

False - Damage to tissue leads to tissue factor release, a step in the clotting cascade. In invasive operations or ones which involve a lot of damage to tissue (eg Orthopaedic operations) there would be higher concentrations of tissue factor released and therefore an increased risk of thrombus formation.

29
Q

Echocardiogram is the imaging investigation of choice in infective endocarditis.

A

True - Echo allows visualisation of the heart structure and a view of the heart valves for signs of the infection such as septic vegetations. It can aid diagnosis and is a part of the Dukes criteria for diagnosing infective endocarditis.

30
Q

Myocarditis can be caused by drugs.

A

True - For example certain chemotherapy and anti psychotic drugs can cause myocarditis.

31
Q

Osler nodes are a sign which may be seen in infective endocarditis.

A

True - These are painful, erythematous nodules found on the hands and soles of feet. They are associated with infective endocarditis as well as other conditions.

32
Q

Arteries can’t be used as conduits in a Coronary Artery Bypass Graft.

A

False - Arteries such as the internal mammary or the radial artery can be used as conduits in a CABG.

33
Q

Patients with Marfan syndrome should have an annual review with echocardiogram

A

True - this is to monitor the aortic root diameter.

34
Q

Heparin may be given to prevent a deep vein thrombosis in certain surgical patients at risk

A

True - Anticoagulants such as Heparin/LMWH or newer agents can be given to prevent thrombus forming.

35
Q

The incidence of infective endocarditis is lower in diabetic patients.

A

False - The incidence of infective endocarditis is higher in diabetic patients.

36
Q

An indication for a Coronary Artery Bypass Graft is Left main stem disease.

A

True - this artery supplies a huge portion of the left ventricle, and so severe disease is an indication for CABG

37
Q

Antibiotics should be routinely given for dental procedures for prophylaxis against infective endocarditis.

A

False - Guidelines advise against extensive use of antibiotic prophylaxis. Only in very specific cases where patients are at high risk.

38
Q

Pericarditis can be caused by high urea levels.

A

True - Uraemia, for example in renal failure, can be a cause of acute pericarditis.

39
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy is the end stage of many disease processes

A

Ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, some drugs, and some metabolic disorders can all cause dilated cardiomyopathy. However, when no other disease process is evident, a genetic cause can be found in about 20% of cases, and of these the most commonly affected gene is Titin. Interestingly, a proportion of patients with dilated cardiomyopathy attributed to alcohol excess or pregnancy also have a variant in TTN. Dilated cardiomyopathy may therefore have more than one cause even in a single individual.

40
Q

Turner syndrome is associated with coarctation of the aorta.

A

True - there are several congenital heart defects associated with Turner’s Syndrome, including coarctation of the aorta and bicuspid aortic valve.

41
Q

The commonest cause of splinter haemorrhages is infective endocarditis.

A

False - This is a sign seen in infective endocarditis however there are a variety of causes, the commonest being trauma.

42
Q

A Roth spot is a sign which may be seen in infective endocarditis. They may be seen on the palms of hands and the soles of feet.

A

False - Roth spots are seen in infective endocarditis, but they are retinal haemorrhages with a pale centre. Therefore they may be seen on fundoscopy of the eyes.

43
Q

The combined oral contraceptive pill is a risk factor for a venous thrombus formation.

A

True - The OCP is a risk factor for venous thrombus formation as it contains oestrogen which can increase levels of clotting factors.

44
Q

Rheumatic fever can lead to valvular heart disease. It is related to staphylococcal infections.

A

False - Rheumatic fever is associated with streptococcal pyogenes infection.

45
Q

Infective endocarditis is infection involving the myocardial layer of the heart.

A

False - Infective endocarditis is infection involving the endocardial layer of the heart, which includes the valves.

46
Q

Myocarditis is a degenerative disorder of heart muscle.

A

False - This is the term for an inflammatory process involving the heart muscle.

47
Q

Di Georges syndrome is due to a deletion on 22q11.

A

True - Remember CATCH 22 - Cardiac malformation, Abnormal facies, Thymic hypoplasia, Cleft palate, Hypoparathyroidism, 22 q11 deletion.

48
Q

Aortic stenosis is a systolic murmur.

A

True - Aortic stenosis is an ejection systolic murmur which is heard best in the second intercostal space on the right of the sternum and radiates to the carotids.

49
Q

Mitral stenosis is a diastolic murmur.

A

True - Mitral stenosis is a mid-diastolic murmur.

50
Q

Turner syndrome is a condition where a person with a male phenotype is missing an X chromosome (45,X)

A

False - It is a condition where a person with a FEMALE phenotype is missing an X chromosome (45,X)

51
Q

Prosthetic heart valves are a risk factor in Infective endocarditis.

A

True - Prosthetic heart valves are a risk factor in infective endocarditis as infection can adhere to the prosthetic material

52
Q

Down’s syndrome is due to a deletion on chromosome 21.

A

False - Down’s syndrome is Trisomy 21 - an extra chromosome.

53
Q

The murmur of Aortic stenosis radiates to the axilla.

A

False - Aortic stenosis is an ejection systolic murmur which is heard best in the second intercostal space on the right of the sternum and radiates to the CAROTIDS. Mitral regurgitation radiates to the axilla.

54
Q

Pulsus paradoxus is a sign which may be seen in patients with pericardial tamponade.

A

True - This is a sign that may be seen in patients with pericardial tamponade. On inspiration, the radial pulse may not be palpated but a heart beat may still be heard on auscultation, hence the paradox. The term “pulsus paradoxus” refers to a significant fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration.

55
Q

Once a thrombus is formed in a vein it cannot move to a different site.

A

False - A thrombus can dislodge and embolise to a distal site. This can be seen when a clot from the deep veins in the legs, embolises to the lungs (Pulmonary embolism).

56
Q

Mitral regurgitation is a pan systolic murmur heard best in the right 5th intercostal space in the mid clavicular line.

A

False - Mitral regurgitation is a pan systolic murmur heard best in the LEFT 5th intercostal space in the mid clavicular line.

57
Q

Warfarin is required in patients with mechanical heart valves.

A

True - Warfarin is required for life as there is an increased risk of a thrombus forming. At the time of writing, this remains one of the few conditions where warfarin is still used in preference over newer oral anticoagulant drugs.

58
Q

A post op patient complains of a tender, hot, swollen and erythematous calf. The most likely diagnosis is lymphoedema.

A

False - The most likely diagnosis in this presentation is a deep vein thrombosis.

59
Q

A parasternal heave palpated on the left side of the sternum may be due to left ventricular hypertrophy

A

False - A parasternal heave is palpated when the heel of the hand is lifted upwards when placed on the chest. A parasternal heave on the left of the sternum may be caused by RIGHT ventricular hypertrophy as the right ventricle lies deep to this area.

60
Q

An indication for a Coronary Artery Bypass Graft is triple vessel disease.

A

True - these are all your coronary arteries! Triple vessel disease is therefore an indication for CABG.