Weather Flashcards
1
Q
A
2
Q
A
3
Q
A
4
Q
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A) Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes.
B) One microburst may continue for as long as an hour.
C) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
A
C) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
5
Q
If severe turbulence is encountered, you should strive to maintain a constant
A) altitude.
B) attitude and appropriate airspeed.
C) constant airspeed and altitude.
A
B) attitude and appropriate airspeed.
6
Q
What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence (CAT)?
A) Extend flaps to decrease wing loading.
B) Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability.
C) Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.
A
C) Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.
7
Q
The practice developed and accepted by the North American air carrier industry using traditional North American fluids is to ensure that the freeze point of the remaining film is below ambient temperature by at least
A) 10 °F.
B) 20 °F.
C) 20 °C.
A
B) 20 °F.
8
Q
Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?
A) Increased stall speed.
B) Increased pitchdown tendencies.
C) Increased angle of attack for stalls.
A
A) Increased stall speed.
9
Q
Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing
A) provide ice protection during flight.
B) are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.
C) on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.
A
B) are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.
10
Q
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can
A) reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent.
B) increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent.
C) reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.
A
C) reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.
11
Q
Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids
A) need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
B) must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
C) must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.
A
B) must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
12
Q
Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids are highly soluble in water; however,
A) ice is slow to absorb it but fast to melt when in contact with FPD.
B) ice absorbs it very fast but is slow to melt when in contact with it.
C) ice is slow to absorb it, and slow to melt when in contact with it.
A
C) ice is slow to absorb it, and slow to melt when in contact with it.
13
Q
Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades
A) can increase performance and cause stalls or surges.
B) has no affect on engine thrust or power.
C) can decrease performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.
A
C) can decrease performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.
14
Q
The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and
A) increased thrust.
B) a decreased stall speed.
C) an increased stall speed.
A
C) an increased stall speed.
15
Q
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A) 1,500 ft/min.
B) 4,500 ft/min.
C) 6,000 ft/min.
A
C) 6,000 ft/min.
16
Q
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of
A) 40 knots.
B) 80 knots.
C) 90 knots.
A
B) 80 knots.
17
Q
Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
A) Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.
B) Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases.
C) Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
A
C) Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
18
Q
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?
A) Sudden decrease in a headwind component.
B) Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.
C) Sudden increase in a headwind component.
A
C) Sudden increase in a headwind component.
19
Q
Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?
A) Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
B) Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
C) Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
A
C) Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
20
Q
Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?
A) Decreasing headwind or tailwind.
B) Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
C) Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind.
A
B) Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
21
Q
Which is a definition of ‘severe wind shear?
A) Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted.
B) Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots.
C) Any change of airspeed greater than 20 knots which is sustained for more than 20 seconds.
A
B) Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots.
22
Q
Doppler wind measurements indicate that the windspeed change a pilot may expect when flying through the peak intensity of a microburst is approximately
A) 15 knots.
B) 25 knots.
C) 45 knots.
A
C) 45 knots.
23
Q
How will an increasing tailwind shear affect aircraft performance on takeoff?
A) Airspeed will continue to decrease after the aircraft lifts off.
B) The aircraft will rotate at a slower airspeed and require less runway.
C) An aircraft’s climb performance will increase after rotation.
A
A) Airspeed will continue to decrease after the aircraft lifts off.
24
Q
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 144.) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?
A) 3.
B) 2.
C) 1.
A
C) 1.
25
What is a characteristic of the troposphere?
A) It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere.
B) There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.
C) The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles.
B) There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude.
26
What characterizes a ground-based inversion?
A) Convection currents at the surface.
B) Cold temperatures.
C) Poor visibility.
C) Poor visibility.
27
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A) A stable layer of air.
B) An unstable layer of air.
C) Air mass thunderstorms.
A) A stable layer of air.
28
When does minimum temperature normally occur during a 24-hour period?
A) After sunrise.
B) About 1 hour before sunrise.
C) At midnight.
A) After sunrise.
29
At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction
A) decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.
B) decreases pressure gradient force.
C) creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.
A) decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.
30
Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer?
A) Land breeze.
B) Valley wind.
C) Katabatic wind.
C) Katabatic wind.
31
What is a feature of air movement in a high pressure area?
A) Ascending from the surface high to lower pressure at higher altitudes.
B) Descending to the surface and then outward.
C) Moving outward from the high at high altitudes and into the high at the surface.
B) Descending to the surface and then outward.
32
Where is the usual location of a thermal low?
A) Over the arctic region.
B) Over the eye of a hurricane.
C) Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.
C) Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.
33
Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that
A) a climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing.
B) a layer of warmer air exists above.
C) ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air below.
B) a layer of warmer air exists above.
34
What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight?
A) The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude.
B) The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes.
C) There is an inversion with colder air below.
A) The temperature is above freezing at flight altitude.
35
En route at FL 270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?
A) 585 feet.
B) 1,300 feet.
C) Sea level.
C) Sea level.
36
What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?
A) Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error.
B) Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
C) Density altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
B) Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.
37
What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?
A) Trough.
B) Ridge.
C) Col.
A) Trough.
38
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A) It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
B) It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.
C) It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
C) It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.
39
Where is a common location for an inversion?
A) At the tropopause.
B) In the stratosphere.
C) At the base of cumulus clouds.
B) In the stratosphere.
40
Where is a common location for an inversion?
A) At the tropopause.
B) In the stratosphere.
C) At the base of cumulus clouds.
B) In the stratosphere.
41
Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed?
A) Katabatic.
B) Advection.
C) Adiabatic.
C) Adiabatic.
42
What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
A) 3 °C per 1,000 feet.
B) 2 °C per 1,000 feet.
C) 4 °C per 1,000 feet.
A) 3 °C per 1,000 feet.
43
If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL 350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?
A) Lower than pressure altitude.
B) Higher than pressure altitude.
C) Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.
B) Higher than pressure altitude.
44
If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL 310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?
A) They are both the same, 31,000 feet.
B) True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
C) Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
B) True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
45
Which pressure is defined as station pressure?
A) Altimeter setting.
B) Actual pressure at field elevation.
C) Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.
B) Actual pressure at field elevation.
46
Isobars on a surface analysis chart represent lines of equal pressure
A) at the surface.
B) referenced to sea level.
C) at a given atmospheric pressure altitude.
B) referenced to sea level.
47
At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction?
A) At the poles.
B) Middle latitudes (30° to 60°)
C) At the Equator.
C) At the Equator.
48
How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere?
A) Causes clockwise rotation around a low.
B) Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high.
C) Has exactly the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere.
A) Causes clockwise rotation around a low.
49
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.
B) Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air temperature.
C) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
C) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
50
What conditions can be expected above if you encounter ice pellets in flight?
A) Thunderstorms.
B) Freezing rain.
C) Snow.
B) Freezing rain.
51
When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?
A) On clear nights with stable air and light winds.
B) On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation.
C) On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dewpoint spread.
A) On clear nights with stable air and light winds.
52
What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?
A) Latent heat is released to the atmosphere.
B) Latent heat is transformed into pure energy.
C) Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet.
A) Latent heat is released to the atmosphere.
53
Why should you seek to avoid encountering supercooled rain droplets in flight?
A) They indicate turbulent weather.
B) They will immediately freeze when striking exposed objects.
C) They indicate an inversion dangerous to flight.
B) They will immediately freeze when striking exposed objects.
54
What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?
A) The air is unstable.
B) A temperature inversion exists.
C) The air is stable.
C) The air is stable.
55
What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?
A) Cloud bases form.
B) Precipitation starts.
C) Stable air changes to unstable air.
A) Cloud bases form.
56
Which process causes adiabatic cooling?
A) Expansion of air as it rises.
B) Movement of air over a colder surface.
C) Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.
A) Expansion of air as it rises.
57
When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases
A) at a faster rate than dry air because of the release of latent heat.
B) at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat.
C) at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.
B) at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat.
58
Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?
A) The parcel of air resists convection.
B) The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill.
C) As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air.
A) The parcel of air resists convection.
59
Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?
A) Freezing rain.
B) Clear air turbulence.
C) Embedded thunderstorms.
C) Embedded thunderstorms.
60
Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?
A) Nimbostratus.
B) Standing lenticular.
C) Cirrocumulus.
B) Standing lenticular.
61
Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into the colder air?
A) Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases.
B) Wind direction shifts to the left.
C) Atmospheric pressure increases.
C) Atmospheric pressure increases.
62
What minimum thickness of cloud layer is indicated if precipitation is reported as light or greater intensity?
A) 4,000 feet thick.
B) 2,000 feet thick.
C) A thickness which allows the cloud tops to be higher than the freezing level.
A) 4,000 feet thick.
63
Which condition produces weather on the lee side of a large lake?
A) Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog.
B) Cold air flowing over a warmer lake may produce advection fog.
C) Warm air flowing over a cool lake may produce rain showers.
A) Warm air flowing over a colder lake may produce fog.
64
How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
A) Ambient temperature lapse rate.
B) Atmospheric pressure at various levels.
C) Surface temperature/dewpoint spread.
A) Ambient temperature lapse rate.
65
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
A) The appearance of an anvil top.
B) The start of rain at the surface.
C) Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum.
B) The start of rain at the surface.
66
Where do squall lines most often develop?
A) In an occluded front.
B) Ahead of a cold front.
C) Behind a stationary front.
B) Ahead of a cold front.
67
Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found?
A) In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell.
B) Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud.
C) On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
C) On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
68
Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?
A) Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity.
B) Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface.
C) Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into an updraft before reaching the surface.
A) Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity.
69
What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state thunderstorm?
A) Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the updraft.
B) Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts.
C) Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.
B) Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the updrafts.
70
Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?
A) Air mass thunderstorms.
B) Cold front or squall line thunderstorms.
C) Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.
B) Cold front or squall line thunderstorms.
71
What would dissipate advection fog that has developed in a coastal area?
A) Wind speed less than 15 knots.
B) Wind speed of 15 knots or more.
C) Converging temperature and dew point.
B) Wind speed of 15 knots or more.
72
Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?
A) Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind.
B) A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent relative humidity.
C) Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to 25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope.
A) Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind.
73
When flying over the top of a severe thunderstorm, the cloud should be overflown by at least
A) 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed.
B) 2,500 feet.
C) 500 feet above any moderate to severe turbulence layer.
A) 1,000 feet for each 10 knots windspeed.
74
What type weather change is to be expected in an area where frontolysis is reported?
A) The frontal weather is becoming stronger.
B) The front is dissipating.
C) The front is moving at a faster speed.
B) The front is dissipating.
75
Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?
A) Squall line.
B) Advective fog.
C) Frontogenesis.
A) Squall line.
76
Which atmospheric factor causes rapid movement of surface fronts?
A) Upper winds blowing across the front.
B) Upper low located directly over the surface low.
C) The cold front overtaking and lifting the warm front.
A) Upper winds blowing across the front.
77
What meteorological conditions can be expected when encountering frontal waves or areas of low pressure?
A) Warm fronts or occluded fronts.
B) Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
C) Cold front occlusions.
B) Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
78
What weather difference is found on each side of a "dry line"?
A) Extreme temperature difference.
B) Dewpoint difference.
C) Stratus versus cumulus clouds.
B) Dewpoint difference.
79
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?
A) When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 150
NM apart.
B) When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20
NM apart.
C) When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
A) When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 150
NM apart.
80
What action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift associated with a sharp pressure trough?
A) Establish a course across the trough.
B) Climb or descend to a smoother level.
C) Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible.
A) Establish a course across the trough.
81
In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when descending on the glide slope?
A) Less power is required.
B) Higher pitch attitude is required.
C) Lower descent rate is required.
B) Higher pitch attitude is required.
82
How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice before takeoff, but the drain hole and static port are not?
A) Indication will drop to zero.
B) Indication will rise to the top of the scale.
C) Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.
A) Indication will drop to zero.
83
Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A) Wet snow.
B) Freezing rain.
C) Ice pellets.
B) Freezing rain.
84
You are landing at an airport near the coast with a wind shear advisory.
Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?
A) The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10 °C.
B) A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.
C) A wind direction difference of at least 30° between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.
B) A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.
85
Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jet stream?
A) Cold front.
B) Warm front.
C) Occluded front.
C) Occluded front.
86
Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?
A) Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly.
B) Change course to fly on the polar side of the jetstream.
C) Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.
C) Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated turbulent area.
87
Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?
A) Descend if ambient temperature is falling.
B) Descend if ambient temperature is rising.
C) Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing.
A) Descend if ambient temperature is falling.
88
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as
A) 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain.
B) 5,000 feet above the tropopause.
C) 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
B) 5,000 feet above the tropopause.
89
Summer thunderstorms in the arctic region will generally move
A) northeast to southwest in polar easterlies.
B) southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow.
C) directly north to south with the low-level polar airflow.
A) northeast to southwest in polar easterlies.
90
Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as
A) convective turbulence.
B) high altitude turbulence.
C) clear air turbulence.
C) clear air turbulence.
91
A strong wind shear can be expected
A) on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream core.
B) where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knots, in a distance equal to 2.5° longitude.
C) where the 5 °C isotherms are spaced less than 100 NM apart.
A) on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream core.
92
What is a likely location of clear air turbulence (CAT)?
A) In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
Remaining: 128
B) Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
C) Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
A) In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
93
Where does the highest wind shear exist associated with the jet stream?
A) Near the tropopause on the poleward side of the jet stream.
B) Directly below the jet stream core below a long straight stretch of the jet stream.
C) On the equatorial side of the jet stream where moisture has developed cirriform clouds.
A) Near the tropopause on the poleward side of the jet stream.
94
Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?
A) A straight jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge.
B) A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing.
C) A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.
C) A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.
95
What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?
A) Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones.
B) Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause.
C) Thin layers of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the tropopause level.
A) Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones.
96
METAR KSFO 031053Z VRB02KT 7SM MIFG SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK
SL993 6|||| T01500139 56012
In the above METAR, the SL993 6|||| indicates
A) sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and in the last 6 hours that four-tenths of an inch of precipitation has fallen.
B) sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and an indeterminable amount of precipitation has occurred over the last 3 hours.
C) sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals which in the last 6 hours has dropped .4 hectopascals.
B) sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and an indeterminable amount of precipitation has occurred over the last 3 hours.
97
What is the single source reference that contains information regarding volcanic eruption, turbulence, and icing conditions for a specific region?
A) Weather Depiction Chart.
B) In-Flight Weather Advisories.
C) Aviation Area Forecast (FA).
B) In-Flight Weather Advisories.
98
Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters "VC". When VC appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of
A) a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport.
B) a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex.
C) 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.
A) a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport.
99
Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?
A) Altocumulus
B) Cumulonimbus
C) Stratocumulus
B) Cumulonimbus
100
What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome
Forecast?
A) Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity.
B) Thunderstorms may occur over the station and within 50 miles of the station.
C) Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 miles of the runway complex.
A) Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity.
101
If squalls are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions existed at the time?
A) A sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22 knots or more for 1 minute or longer.
B) Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting for at least 1 minute.
C) Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.
B) Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a sustained wind speed of 20 knots, lasting for at least 1 minute.
102
Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight and then reported in a PIREP?
A) Turbulence and ice intensity.
B) Jetstream-type winds and icing.
C) Level of the tropopause and turblence.
A) Turbulence and ice intensity.
103
Forecast winds and temperatures aloft for an international Pacific flight may be obtained by consulting
A) Area Forecasts published by the departure location host country.
B) the current International Weather Depiction Chart appropriate to the route.
C) Wind and Temperature Aloft Charts prepared by the U.S. National Centers of Environmental Prediction (NCEP).
C) Wind and Temperature Aloft Charts prepared by the U.S. National Centers of Environmental Prediction (NCEP).
104
How will an area of thunderstorm activity, that may grow to severe intensity, be indicated on the Convective Outlook chart?
A) SLGT within any area.
B) MDT within any cross-hatched area.
C) SVR within any area.
A) SLGT within any area.
105
For international oceanic flights, a U.S. High-Level Significant Weather (SIGWX) Chart is prepared for use
A) at any altitude above 29,000.
B) between FL 250 and FL 630.
C) between FL 180 and FL 600.
B) between FL 250 and FL 630.
106
A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft to be 280° at 205 knots; temperature -51 °C at FL 390. How would this data be encoded in the FD?
A) 780051.
B) 789951.
C) 280051.
B) 789951.
107
What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight
Advisory Service?
A) Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude.
B) Severe weather information, changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports.
C) Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings.
A) Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude.
108
A hurricane has formed when
A) the average winds around a pressure feature have averaged 48 knots for over 48 hours.
B) the barometric pressure in the center of the feature is 35mb lower than pressure outside the weather feature.
C) the highest sustained winds are 65 knots or more.
C) the highest sustained winds are 65 knots or more.
109
What is the general direction of movement of a hurricane located in the Caribbean or Gulf of Mexico region?
A) Northwesterly curving to northeasterly.
B) Westerly, until encountering land, then easterly.
C) Counterclockwise over open water, then dissipating outward over land.
A) Northwesterly curving to northeasterly.
110
What type turbulence should be reported when it causes slight, rapid, and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in attitude or altitude, less than one-third of the time?
A) Occasional light chop.
B) Moderate turbulence.
C) Moderate chop.
A) Occasional light chop.
111
What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?
A) Occasional light chop.
B) Moderate chop.
C) Intermittent light turbulence.
C) Intermittent light turbulence.
112
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 145.) What was the local Central Standard Time of the Aviation Routine Weather Report at Austin (KAUS)?
A) 11:53 a.m.
B) 5:53 p.m.
C) 10:53 p.m.
A) 11:53 a.m.
113
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 145.) What type of report is listed for Lubbock (KLBB) at 1818Z?
A) An aviation routine weather report.
B) An aviation selected special weather report.
C) A special report concerning very low station pressure.
B) An aviation selected special weather report.
114
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 146.) What method was used to obtain the METAR at Tyler (KTYR) at 1753Z?
A) Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS), with a precipitation discriminator.
B) Automatic Meteorological Observing Station (AMOS), with a precipitation discriminator.
C) Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS), without a precipitation discriminator.
A) Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS), with a precipitation discriminator.
115
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 145.) What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)?
A) Light rain showers.
B) Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the hour.
C) The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated 1,800 feet above sea level.
A) Light rain showers.
116
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 145.) What condition is reported at Dallas (KDAL)? [Please Read The Explanation !!]
A) The tops of the overcast is 10,000 feet.
B) Temperature/dewpoint spread is 8°F. (watch out for possible 8 °C
here)
C) Altimeter setting is 30.07.
C) Altimeter setting is 30.07.
117
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 145.) The peak wind at KAMA was reported to be from 320° true at 39 knots,
A) which occurred at 1743Z.
B) with gusts to 43 knots.
C) with .43 of an inch liquid precipitation since the last report.
A) which occurred at 1743Z.
118
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 145.) The peak wind at KAMA was reported to be from 320° true at 39 knots,
A) which occurred at 1743Z.
B) with gusts to 43 knots.
C) with .43 of an inch liquid precipitation since the last report.
A) which occurred at 1743Z.
119
SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 2SM +SHRA SCTO05
BKN035 OVC050CB 24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L
WSHFT 58 FROPA.
This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition?
A) Wind steady from 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gusts to 21.
B) Rain began 57 minutes after the hour.
C) The base of the cumulonimbus clouds are FL035.
B) Rain began 57 minutes after the hour.
120
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 145.) What weather improvement was reported at Lubbock (KLBB) between 1750 and 1818 UTC?
A) The wind shift and frontal passage at 1812Z.
B) The vertical visibility improved by 2,000 feet.
C) The temperature and dew point spread improved.
B) The vertical visibility improved by 2,000 feet.
121
METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009
RMK RAE44. Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF)?
A) Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour.
B) The ceiling was at 25,000 feet MSL.
C) Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots.
A) Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour.
122
METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA SCT025 OVC090 24/22
A3005. SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 22/21
A3000. Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC?
A) The rain became lighter.
B) Atmospheric pressure increased.
C) A funnel cloud was observed.
C) A funnel cloud was observed.
123
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 146.) What was the ceiling at Walnut Ridge (KARG)?
A) 1,000 feet AGL.
B) 2,400 feet AGL.
C) 1,000 feet MSL.
A) 1,000 feet AGL.
124
METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKNO40 30/27 A3001.
SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCTO20 BKN045TCU
29/24 A2983 RMK
RAB12 WS TO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC.
What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO)?
A) The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds developed.
B) Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour.
C) Visibility reduced to IF conditions.
B) Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour.
125
A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates the probability of
A) thunderstorms or other precipitation.
B) precipitation or low visibility.
C) thunderstorms or high wind.
A) thunderstorms or other precipitation.
126
Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms, and some contain isotachs. The contours depict
A) ridges, lows, troughs, and highs aloft.
B) highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface.
C) highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL.
A) ridges, lows, troughs, and highs aloft.
127
Vertical wind shear can be determined by comparing winds on vertically adjacent constant pressure charts. The vertical wind shear that is critical for probability of turbulence is
A) 4 knots or greater per 1,000 feet.
B) 6 knots or more per 1,000 feet.
C) greater than 8 mph per 1,000 feet.
B) 6 knots or more per 1,000 feet.
128
Convective SIGMETs are issued for which weather conditions?
A) Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4 inch hail or tornadoes.
B. Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the troposphere
C) Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or more.
A) Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4 inch hail or tornadoes.
129
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over OKC at FL 370?
A) 265° true; 27 knots; ISA +1 °C.
B) 260° true; 27 knots; ISA +9 °C.
C) 260° magnetic; 27 knots; ISA +10 °C.
B) 260° true; 27 knots; ISA +9 °C.
130
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What approximate wind direction and speed are expected for a flight over TUS at FL 270?
A) 330° true at 5 knots.
B) 010 magnetic at 5 knots.
C) 010° true at 5 knots.
C) 010° true at 5 knots.
131
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an SAT ELP TUS flight at 16,000 feet?
A) Temperature decrease slightly.
B) Windspeed decrease.
C) Wind direction shift from southwest to east.
C) Wind direction shift from southwest to east.
132
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an STL MEM MSY flight at FL 330?
A) Windspeed decrease.
B) Wind shift from west to north.
C) Temperature increase 5 °C.
A) Windspeed decrease.
133
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for a DEN ICT OKC flight at 11,000 feet?
A) Temperature decrease.
B) Windspeed increase slightly.
C) Wind shift from calm to a westerly direction.
B) Windspeed increase slightly.
134
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for a DSM LIT SHV flight at 12,000 feet?
A) Windspeed decrease.
B) Temperature decrease.
C) Wind direction shift from northwest to southeast.
A) Windspeed decrease.
135
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over MKC at FL 260?
A) 260° true; 43 knots; ISA +10 °C.
B) 260° true; 45 knots; ISA -10 °C.
C) 260° magnetic; 42 knots; ISA +9 °C.
A) 260° true; 43 knots; ISA +10 °C.
136
What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) for FL 390 - "750649"?
A) 350° at 64 knots.
B) 250° at 106 knots.
C) 150° at 6 knots.
B) 250° at 106 knots.
137
Memory Aid
What is indicated on the Weather Depiction Chart by a continuous solid line enclosing a shaded geographic area?
A) The entire area has ceilings less than 3,000 feet and/or visibility less than 5 miles at the time of the report.
B) More than 50 percent of the area enclosed by the smooth line is predicted to have IF conditions.
C) Reporting stations within the enclosed area are all showing IFR conditions at the time of the report.
Memory Aid
C) Reporting stations within the enclosed area are all showing IFR conditions at the time of the report.
138
Memory Aid
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 153 through 155.) Interpret the path of the jetstream.
A) Southern California, Nevada, Utah, Nebraska/Kansas, and then southeastward.
B) Oregon, Idaho, Wyoming, Nebraska, lowa, and across the Great Lakes.
C) The Alaska area, across Canada to Montana, North Dakota, then across the Great Lakes area.
Memory Aid
C) The Alaska area, across Canada to Montana, North Dakota, then across the Great Lakes area.
139
Memory Aid
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 153 through 155.) What type weather system is approaching the Washington State and Oregon Coasts from the west?
A) LOW.
B) HIGH.
C) Cold front.
Memory Aid
A) LOW.
140
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 153 through 155.) What is the approximate temperature for a flight from southern California to central Kansas at FL
350?
А) - 16 °C.
B) -30 °C.
C) -43 °C.
C) -43 °C.
141
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 153 through 155.) Determine the approximate wind direction and velocity at FL 240 over the station in central Oklahoma (the state immediately north of Texas).
A) 280° at 30 knots.
B) 320° at 10 knots.
C) 330° at 13 knots.
A) 280° at 30 knots.
142
The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is
A) 18 knots or less.
B) greater than 18 knots.
C) not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.
B) greater than 18 knots.
143
Memory Aid
The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Services Data Link (FISDL) is designed to provide data on a common frequency to flight crews from
A) 17,500 feet MSL down to 5,000 feet AGL.
B) 17,500 feet AGL down to 5,000 feet MSL.
C) 5,000 feet MSL to 17,500 feet MSL.
Memory Aid
A) 17,500 feet MSL down to 5,000 feet AGL.
144
Data that may be added (manual weather augmentation) to the Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS) report is limited to
A) the precipitation accumulation report, an automated variable visibility, and wind direction remark.
B) thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and intensity), and obstructions to visibility (dependent on the visibility being 3 miles or less).
C) density Altitude, NOTAMs, and reported slant range visibility.
B) thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and intensity), and obstructions to visibility (dependent on the visibility being 3 miles or less).
145
Memory Aid
A public severe thunderstorm watch implies
A) 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch or more in diameter.
B) 58 mph winds or greater and/or surface hail of 1 inch or more in diameter.
C) 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or more in diameter.
Memory Aid
B) 58 mph winds or greater and/or surface hail of 1 inch or more in diameter.
146
On the constant pressure analysis chart, satellite and aircraft observations are used in the analysis over areas of sparse data. A satellite observation is plotted using
A) a station circle at the cloud top location.
B) a square at the cloud top location.
C) a star at the cloud top location.
C) a star at the cloud top location.
147
Memory Aid
A squall is a sudden increase of at least 15 knots in average wind speed to a sustained speed of
A) 26 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
B) 21 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
C) 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
Memory Aid
C) 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
148
A calm wind that is forecast, in the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is encoded as
А) 00003КТ.
B) VRBOOKT
C) 00000КТ.
C) 00000КТ.
149
In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by "VRB" where the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind appears in the TAF as
А) 00003КТ.
B) VRBOOKT.
C) 00000КТ.
C) 00000КТ.
150
On the constant pressure analysis chart, aircraft and satellite observations are used in the analysis over areas of sparse data. An aircraft observation is plotted using
A) a square.
B) a station circle.
C) a star.
A) a square.
151
Memory Aid
The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides what products:
A) METARS, SIGMETS, PIREP'S, and AIRMETS.
B) Convective SIGMETS, PIREPS, AWW's, and NOTAMs.
C) SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS.
Memory Aid
A) METARS, SIGMETS, PIREP'S, and AIRMETS.
152
KFTW UA/OV DFW/TM 1645/FL100/TP PA30/SK SCT031-
TOP043/BKN060-TOP085/OVC097-TOPUNKN/WX FVOOSM RA/TA
07. This pilot report to Fort Worth (KFTW) indicates
A) that the top of the ceiling is 4,300 feet.
B) the ceiling at KDFW is 6,000 feet.
C) the aircraft is in light rain.
B) the ceiling at KDFW is 6,000 feet.
153
The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is METAR KFSM 131756Z
AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT - RA FG VV004 06/05
A2989 RMK A02 $
A) less than 1/4 statute mile.
B) measured 1/4 statute mile.
C) a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile.
A) less than 1/4 statute mile.
154
The symbol ($) at the end of the following METAR indicates that METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK A02 $
A) the latest information is transmitted over a discrete VHF frequency at KFSM.
B) the latest information is broadcast on the voice portion of a local navaid at KFSM.
C) Maintenance needed on the system.
C) Maintenance needed on the system.
155
The following METAR indicates
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -
RA FG VV001 A2989 RMK A02 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $
A) an observer reported the vertical visibility as 100 feet.
B) indefinite ceiling 100 feet.
C) the variability value is 100 feet.
B) indefinite ceiling 100 feet.
156
You encounter freezing rain at altitude. You know that
A) you will find an area of warmer air above you.
B) you will find an area of colder air below you.
C) you are flying through an inversion.
A) you will find an area of warmer air above you.
157
With an outside air temperature of less than 0° C, a pilot can anticipate severe in-flight icing while flying through
A) rain.
B) visible moisture.
C) snow.
A) rain.
158
All ATC facilities using Radar Weather processors with the ability to determine precipitation intensity will describe the intensity as
A) light, moderate, heavy, intense, extreme, severe.
B) light, moderate, heavy, extreme.
C) light, moderate, heavy, extreme, severe.
B) light, moderate, heavy, extreme.
159
The following weather may be conducive to severe in-flight icing:
A) droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below 0° C
ambient air temperature.
B) drops that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below 10° C and above 1° C ambient air temperature.
C) drops that impact at temperatures below -20° C ambient air temperature.
A) droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below 0° C
ambient air temperature.
160
The tropopause is generally found when the free air temperature is
A) lower than -40° at altitudes of 40,000 to 45,000 feet.
B) -55° to -65°C.
C) -60° to -70°C.
B) -55° to -65°C.
161
Clear icing generally forms in outside temperature ranges
A) colder than -20°C.
B) 0° to -10°C.
C) - 10° to -20°C.
B) 0° to -10°C.
162
Moderate CAT is considered likely
A) when the vertical windshear is 5 knots per 1,000 feet, or greater, and/or the horizontal windshear is 40 knots per 150 miles or greater.
B) when the vertical windshear is 10 knots per 1,000 feet, or greater, and/or the horizontal windshear is 50 knots per 150 miles or greater.
C) when the vertical windshear is 15 knots per 2,000 feet, or greater, and/or the horizontal windshear is 40 knots per 150 miles or greater.
A) when the vertical windshear is 5 knots per 1,000 feet, or greater, and/or the horizontal windshear is 40 knots per 150 miles or greater.
163
Aircraft operators should be aware
A) freezing drizzle, but not freezing rain, was included in the flight testing envelope.
B) freezing rain, but not freezing drizzle, was included in the flight testing envelope.
C) freezing drizzle and freezing rain were excluded from the flight testing envelope.
C) freezing drizzle and freezing rain were excluded from the flight testing envelope.
164
An upper level wind cannot be considered a jet stream unless the wind speed is
A) at least 35 knots.
B) at least 50 knots.
C) at least 65 knots.
B) at least 50 knots.
165
Atmospheric pressure due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest settings
A) immediately after the rain showers have stopped.
B) when the thunderstorm is approaching.
C) during the downdraft and heavy rain showers.
B) when the thunderstorm is approaching.
166
SIGMETs (other than domestic convective SIGMETs) may be valid for not more than
A) 4 hours for continuing phenomena.
B) 6 hours for continuing phenomena.
C) 4 hours for continuing phenomena and may be issued 2 hours before the valid time.
A) 4 hours for continuing phenomena.
167
A SIGMET is issued when weather affects
A) 1,000 square miles.
B) 3,000 square miles or more.
C) 4,000 square miles or less.
B) 3,000 square miles or more.
168
Shear turbulence may be expected
A) no more than 10 miles from a severe thunderstorm.
B) probably not more than 15 miles from a severe thunderstorm.
C) usually within 20 miles of a severe thunderstorm.
C) usually within 20 miles of a severe thunderstorm.
169
Winds up to 5 knots tend to
A) elevate radiation fog.
B) deepen radiation fog.
C) disperse radiation fog.
B) deepen radiation fog.
170
Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-2) are issued
A) hourly.
B) two times a day.
C) every morning at 0400.
A) hourly.
171
Which type clouds are indicative of the strongest turbulence?
A) Standing lenticular.
B) Cumulonimbus mammatus.
C) Cirrocumulus.
B) Cumulonimbus mammatus.
172
Convective SIGMETs are issued for severe thunderstorms
A) occurring for more than 30 minutes of the valid period.
B) occurring for more than one hour of the valid period.
C) affecting more than 1,000 square miles of airspace.
A) occurring for more than 30 minutes of the valid period.
173
Gusts in tropical cyclones can exceed the average one-minute wind speed by as much as
А) 50%.
B) 75%.
C) 100%.
А) 50%.
174
The threshold windspeed in the jet stream for clear air turbulence is generally considered to be
A) 100 knots.
B) 110 knots.
C) 120 knots.
B) 110 knots.
175
Convective SIGMETs are issued for a line of thunderstorms at least
A) 100 miles long with severe thunderstorms affecting 50 percent of its length.
B) 40 miles long with thunderstorms affecting 50 percent of its length.
C) 60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting 40 percent of its length.
C) 60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting 40 percent of its length.
176
The Graphical Turbulence Guidance (GTG-2) chart
A) forecasts maximum potential turbulence.
B) forecasts all severe turbulence above FL 200.
C) does not forecast critical weather.
A) forecasts maximum potential turbulence.
177
If the winds aloft are blowing across the front,
A) the front can be expected to move with the upper winds.
B) the winds aloft can be expected to turn at the frontal boundary.
C) visibility around the front will be poor due to precipitation.
A) the front can be expected to move with the upper winds.
178
You know that a tropical depression has formed when
A) winds around the feature have averaged 28 knots for 24 hours.
B) highest sustained wind is up to 34 knots.
C) barometric pressure in the center of the feature is 10mb less than the surrounding pressure.
B) highest sustained wind is up to 34 knots.
179
On a Constant Pressure Chart, an aircraft observation is plotted as a
A) solid circle.
B) square with the stem pointing in the direction from which the wind is blowing.
C) square with an arrow pointing toward the quadrant to which the wind is blowing.
B) square with the stem pointing in the direction from which the wind is blowing.
180
Clear air turbulence (CAT) can be found
A) inside convective clouds.
B) outside convective clouds.
C) near local terrain features.
B) outside convective clouds.
181
A cyclone
A) is a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean.
B) is a tropical depression with sustained winds of 63 knots.
C) is a tropical depression with a barometric pressure in the center of the feature that is 35 mb less than the surrounding pressure.
A) is a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean.
182
How many continuous jet streams are there?
A) 2; the northern polar and Tropic of Cancer.
Remaining: 39
B) 3; the northern polar, the southern polar, and Tropic of Cancer.
C) 4; the northern and southern polar jets and the northern and southern subtropical jets.
C) 4; the northern and southern polar jets and the northern and southern subtropical jets.
183
SIGMETs may be issued for the contiguous U.S.
A) as convective SIGMETs when obscured thunderstorms are forecast.
B) and Alaska as convective SIGMETs when obscured thunderstorms are forecast.
C), Alaska and Hawaii as convective SIGMETs when squall lines are forecast.
A) as convective SIGMETs when obscured thunderstorms are forecast.
184
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A) One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
B) Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
C) 10 to 20 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
C) 10 to 20 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
185
Air that is 100% saturated with water is
A) more dense than dry air.
B) less dense than dry air.
C) the same density as dry air.
B) less dense than dry air.
186
Surface heating can produce
A) squall lines.
B) steady state thunderstorms.
C) air mass thunderstorms.
C) air mass thunderstorms.
187
Jet streams are found
A) in the stratosphere.
B) near the tropopause.
C) close to the troposphere.
B) near the tropopause.
188
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as
A) 5,000 feet above the tropopause.
B) within 5,000 feet below the tropopause.
C) the tropopause.
A) 5,000 feet above the tropopause.
189
The Graphical Turbulence Guidance (GTG-2) chart displays potential turbulence
A) above 2,500 AGL.
B) between 10,000 MSL and FL450.
C) between FL180 and FL600.
B) between 10,000 MSL and FL450.
190
While on an IFR flight descending through clouds into Cleveland, the pilot notices ice accumulating on the leading edge of the wing. The pilot will
A) increase Vref speed by 3 knots.
B) expect increased drag.
C) increase the power for landing.
B) expect increased drag.
191
Airfoil drag may increase, as a result of ice accretion, by as much as
А) 30%.
B) 40% to 50%.
C) 100%.
C) 100%.
192
A SIGMET is issued at 1600Z. Unless conditions require reissuance, it is valid until
A) 1800Z.
B) 2000Z.
C) 2200Z.
B) 2000Z.
193
Jet streams occur in breaks in the tropopause. This break is between
A) the tropical tropopause and arctic tropopause.
B) the tropical tropopause and polar tropopause.
C) the equatorial tropopause and polar tropopause.
B) the tropical tropopause and polar tropopause.
194
SIGMETs (other than convective SIGMETs) are issued every
A) 4 hours for volcanic ash.
B) 6 hours for tropical cyclones.
C) 6 hours for continuing phenomena, with an 8 hour outlook.
B) 6 hours for tropical cyclones.
195
You are planning a flight to a coastal area which is currently below published weather minimums for the ILS approach due to fog. The winds are forecast to increase to 20 knots from the west at your scheduled arrival time. What weather should you expect?
A) Surface ice.
B) Advection fog thickening as the winds increase to 20 knots.
C) A low layer of stratus or stratocumulous clouds.
C) A low layer of stratus or stratocumulous clouds.
196
Clear air turbulence (CAT) can be found
A) where the jet stream descends to a lower altitude.
B) in areas of increased horizontal and vertical wind shear within the jet stream.
C) only in the vicinity of the subtropical jet stream.
B) in areas of increased horizontal and vertical wind shear within the jet stream.
197
Which condition would merit the issuance of a SIGMET?
A) Severe icing.
B) 58 knots of wind.
C) Dense fog.
A) Severe icing.
198
A pilot is planning a flight to a coastal area with an anticipated arrival time 20 minutes before 'official' night time. The forecast weather at the arrival time is winds 330/4, temperature 18°C, dew point 16°C, clouds scattered 2,500 feet AGL, and a weak cold front moving into the area.
What weather conditions might the pilot expect?
A) The possibility of fog formation.
B) None, this is a stable weather system.
C) Decreasing clouds and warmer temperatures.
A) The possibility of fog formation.
199
A jet stream is a river-like flow of high altitude winds following the atmospheric wave pattern with speeds of at least
A) 50 knots.
B) 100 knots.
C) 71 knots.
A) 50 knots.
200
What are the potential maximum wind gusts in a hurricane in reference to the average wind speeds?
А) 50%.
B) 80%.
C) 100%.
А) 50%.
201
A pilot would consult a Convective Outlook (AC) to determine
A) the direction and intensity of the jetstream over the next 12 hours.
B) upper atmosphere instability over the next 24 hours.
C) the probability of convective or severe convective activity over the next 3 days.
C) the probability of convective or severe convective activity over the next 3 days.
202
Which condition would merit the issuance of a SIGMET?
A) Tornadoes or hail.
B) Severe icing.
C) Wind gusts over 50 mph.
B) Severe icing.
203
Fog signifies
A) warmer temperatures.
B) stable air.
C) temperature inversion.
B) stable air.
204
What weather is expected after the passage of a fast-moving cold front?
A) Clear skies, warm temperatures, and little to no turbulence.
B) Low ceilings and overcast skies, some precipitation and moderate turbulence.
C) Rapidly clearing skies, turbulent winds, and colder temperatures.
C) Rapidly clearing skies, turbulent winds, and colder temperatures.
205
When flying in the rain and an air temperature of 1°C, a pilot should
A) not expect icing until the air temperature is 0°C or less.
B) use autopilot in icing to lower the work load.
C) be aware of the possibility of airframe icing.
C) be aware of the possibility of airframe icing.
206
KSEA 070453 0000KT 9SM CLR M01/M02 A2973 SLP 075 P0001
00830067
What type of weather would you expect?
A) An approaching cold front.
B) The possibility of a wind shift.
C) The possibility of frost formation on the plane.
C) The possibility of frost formation on the plane.
207
If the winds aloft are blowing parallel to the front,
A) the front can be expected to move with the upper winds.
B) the winds aloft can be expected to turn at the frontal boundary.
C) the front moves slowly if at all.
C) the front moves slowly if at all.
208
Given the following TAF, and an ETA of 2135Z at Portland (PDX), what type of weather can be expected at your arrival time?
TAF KPDX 031422Z 0315/0415 28010KT P6SM BKN050
FM 032100 28017G24KT P6SM -RA OVC050
FM 032200 29018G30KT P6SM -RA OVC050
FM 032300 29009KT 2SM -RA FG OVC010
A) FR conditions due to fog.
B) Good VFR conditions with light rain and gusty winds.
C) IFR due to low ceilings.
B) Good VFR conditions with light rain and gusty winds.
209
Last leg of a 4-day trip. You are flying at FL 370, and ATC issues a PIREP for your route: "UA /OV ENA14520/TM 2200/FL310/TP B737/TB MOD CAT 350-390". You should
A) ask ATC altitude below.
B) go faster.
C) continue flying your course at FL 370.
A) ask ATC altitude below.
210
The Graphical Turbulence Guidance (GTG-2) chart
A) is presented in low resolution.
B) forecasts all turbulence above FL 200.
C) does not cover all hazards to flight.
C) does not cover all hazards to flight.
211
The following weather condition may be conducive to severe inflight
icing.
A) Visible rain at temperatures below 0°C ambient air temperature.
B) Visible moisture at temperatures below 5°C ambient temperature.
C) Visible rain at temperatures below 10°C ambient temperature.
A) Visible rain at temperatures below 0°C ambient air temperature.
212
You are scheduled to arrive at KMIA at 2315Z, and the following TAF is current:
TAF KMIA 031840Z 0319/0419 13012KT P6SM BKN100 FM032300 13012KT P6SM SHRA OVC080 WS020/27055KT FM041300 14020KT P6SM SHRA SCTO40 OVC080 TEMPO 0415/0416 3SM SHRA
What conditions can you expect at your arrival time?
[Please Read the Explanation!]
A) Wind shear due to wind shift.
B) Sudden increase in surface wind speed.
C) Temperature inversion.
A) Wind shear due to wind shift.
213
According to the following TAF, when is convective activity expected?
[Please Read the Explanation.]
TAF KHOU 021120Z 0212/0312 08012KT P6SM SCT070 SCT100
FM022000 13010KT P6SM SCT070 BKN120 TEMPO 0222/0223
15026G35KT 3SM BKN050
FM030600 07012KT 5SM BKN070
FM031100 07020G34KT P6SM TSRA OVC020CB WS020/35040KT
A) Cumulus clouds are not forecast.
B) After 1100Z on the 3rd day of the month.
C) After 0800Z on the 2nd day of the month.
B) After 1100Z on the 3rd day of the month.
214
The Graphical Turbulence Guidance (GTG-2) chart
A) is only as good as the computer model.
B) forecasts the same turbulence for each hour during a 24-hour period.
C) is presented at minimum resolution.
A) is only as good as the computer model.
215
Convective SIGMETs are issued for which weather conditions?
A) Blowing dust and wind shear.
B) Possible severe icing, thunderstorms, volcanic ash, and dust storms.
C) Surface wind gusts of 50 knots or more, severe icing, and tornados.
C) Surface wind gusts of 50 knots or more, severe icing, and tornados.
216
How long is a volcanic ash SIGMET valid for?
A) 4 hours.
B) 6 hours.
C) 12 hours.
B) 6 hours.
217
What weather conditions should you expect for a 1530Z arrival at KMCO based on this TAF?
KMCO 021357Z 0214/0312 26009KT P6SM VCTS SCT016 BKN026CB OVC050 TEMPO 0214/0217 2SM TSRA BKN 015CB OVC030
FM 021800 34009KT P6SM SCTO25 BKN060
FM 022100 04010KT P6SM SCTO40 BKN080
FM 030000 09008KT P6SM SCT040 BKN120
A) Thunderstorms in the vicinity.
B) Rain and thunderstorms.
C) Winds 260 magnetic at 9 knots.
B) Rain and thunderstorms.
218
For how long is the following SIGMET valid?
SFOR UWS 100130
SIGMET ROMEO 1 VALID UNTIL 100530
OR WA
FROM SEA TO PDT TO EUG TO SEA
SEV TURB BTN FL280 AND FL350. CONDS CONTG BYD 0530Z.
A) Valid from 1001 PDT on the 30th day to 1005 PDT on the 30th day.
B) Valid on the 10th day from 0130 UTC to 0530 UTC.
C) Unknown beginning time until the 10th day at 0530 UTC.
B) Valid on the 10th day from 0130 UTC to 0530 UTC.
