FAR's Pt 3 Flashcards by collin jensen

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a
passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?
A) Seven.
B) Six.
C) Five.

A) Seven.

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The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and
decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated
above
A) FL 180.
B) FL 200.
C) FL 250.

C) FL 250.

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A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training
within the preceding
A) 6 calendar months.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.

A) 6 calendar months

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A person whose duties include the handling of hazardous materials must have
satisfactorily completed an approved training program within the preceding
A) 24 calendar months.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 6 calendar months.

A) 24 calendar months.

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A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a
proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding
A) 6 calendar months.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.

C) 24 calendar months.

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Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight
crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?
A) At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most
critical engine.
B) At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the
certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
C) At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.

B) At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the
certificate holder and a landing from that approach.

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What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-
establish recency of experience?
A) At least one landing must be made from a circling approach.
B) At least one full stop landing must be made.
C) At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums
authorized for the certificate holder.

B) At least one full stop landing must be made.

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What are the line check requirements for a domestic air carrier pilot in command
under 60 years of age?
A) The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of
airplanes to be flown.
B) The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special
areas and airports.
C) The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the
pilot may fly.

A) The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of
airplanes to be flown.

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Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than
A) 8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours.
B) IO hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours.
C) 10 consecutive hours of duty.

C) 10 consecutive hours of duty.

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An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of
two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes
incapacitated,
A) at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight
engineer duties.
B) one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight
engineer.
C) one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform
the flight engineer duties.

A) at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight
engineer duties.

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If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December
2009 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2011, the latter
check is considered to have been taken in
A) November 2010.
B) December 2010.
C) January 2011.

B) December 2010.

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The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served
in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet
powered) is
A) upgrade training.
B) transition training.
C) initial training.

C) initial training.

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A crewmember who has served as second in command on a particular type
airplane (e.g., B-737-800), may serve as pilot in command upon completing
which training program?
A) Upgrade training.
B) Recurrent training.
C) Initial training.

A) Upgrade training.

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The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified
and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is
A) difference training.
B) transition training.
C) upgrade training.

B) transition training.

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How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency
equipment, after initial training? Once every
A) 6 calendar months.
B) 12 calendar months,
C) 24 calendar months,

C) 24 calendar months,

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A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and
one additional flight crewmember, for no more than
A) 8 hours during any 12 consecutive hours.
B) IO hours during any 12 consecutive hours.
C) 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.

C) 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.

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The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may
schedule a pilot in an unaugmented two-pilot crew without a rest period that
must report for duty at 0400 is
[Please read the Explanation.]
A) 8 hours,
B) 10 hours.
C) 12 hours.

A) 8 hours,

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The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the
pilot in command in a two-pilot crew for a flag air carrier is
A) 48 hours.
B) 32 hours.
C) 56 hours.

B) 32 hours.

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The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a
crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is
A) 100 hours.
B) 120
C) 300 hours

A) 100 hours.

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A supplemental air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew, for flight
deck duty during any 24-consecutive-hour period for not more than
A) 6 hours.
B) 8 hours.
C) 10 hours.

B) 8 hours.

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The flight time limitations established for supplemental certificate flight
crewmembers include
A) only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which FAR Part
121 operations are conducted.
B) all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position.
C) all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.

C) all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position

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If the seat belt sign will be turned off during flight, which announcement must
be made?
A) Clearly explain the locations of the fire extinguishers and emergency exits.
B) Passengers should keep their seat belts fastened while seated.
C) Passengers are free to leave their seats once the seat belt sign is turned off.

B) Passengers should keep their seat belts fastened while seated.

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What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier
flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?
A) Cargo and passenger distribution information.
B) Copy of the flight plan.
C) Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

B) Copy of the flight plan.

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Duty and rest period rules for domestic air carrier operations require that a flight
crewmember
A) be free from all restraint by the certificate holder during rest periods
including freedom from callback to work.
B) not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.
C) be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.

A) be free from all restraint by the certificate holder during rest periods
including freedom from callback to work.

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If a domestic or flag air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24- consecutive-hour period, what action is required? A) The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours. B) The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13 hours as 121.465(1) limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours. C) The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty.

C) The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty.

To remain current as an aircraft dispatcher, a person must, in addition to other requirements, A) within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend 2.5 hours observing flight deck operations, plus two additional takeoff and landings, in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch. B) within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch. C) within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in each type of airplane, in each group that he/she is to dispatch.

B) within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch.

An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A) every 7 consecutive days. B) any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month. C) each calendar week.

B) any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month.

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A) Not more than 1 hour. B) Not more than 2 hours. C) More than 6 hours.

A) Not more than 1 hour.

If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A) 7days. B) 5 days. C) 48 hours.

B) 5 days.

Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A) key to the flight deck door. B) certificate holder's manual. C) flashlight in good working order.

C) flashlight in good working order.

If an engine is shutdown in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A) appropriate ground radio station. B) nearest FAA district office. C) operations manager (or director of operations).

A) appropriate ground radio station.

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three- engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A) must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B) may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three- engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A) must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. B) may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. C) may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

C) may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A) 12 hours. B) 10 hours. C) 8 hours,

B) 10 hours.

An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent through the air carrier's operations manager by the A) dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. B) certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within IO days of the event. C) pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.

A) dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within A) 10 days after the deviation. B) IO days after returning home. C) 10 days after returning to home base.

C) 10 days after returning to home base.

You are the PIC of a twin turbojet airplane operating under 14 CFR 121 when you shut down an engine to prevent possible damage. You A) can continue to your destination if there is sufficient drift-down performance. B) must land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time where a safe landing can be made. C) can continue to your destination if it is within IOONM or 30 minutes flight time.

B) must land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time where a safe landing can be made.

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the A) aircraft dispatcher. B) flight navigator. C) pilot in command.

C) pilot in command.

Who is responsible for the diversion of a flight at a 14 CFR Part 121 air carrier conducting supplemental operations? A) the pilot in command and Chief Pilot. B) the pilot in command and Director of Operations. C) the pilot in command and dispatcher.

B) the pilot in command and Director of Operations.

The pilot in command operating under 14 CFR Part 121 has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck A) except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B) in the interest of safety while exercising emergency authority. C) except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.

B) in the interest of safety while exercising emergency authority.

If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should A) take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. B) comply with the company's lost aircraft plan. C) phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

A) take any action considered necessary under the circumstances.

Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A) Pilot in command. B) Dispatcher. C) Person who declares the emergency.

C) Person who declares the emergency.

An alternate airport for departure is required A) if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B) when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. C) when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).

A) if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport.

What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane under 14 CFR part 121 rules? A) 45 minutes of flight time after initial level off with both engines operating considering forecast wind conditions. B) 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. C) Glide distance from cruise altitude with both engines at idle regardless of forecast wind conditions.

B) 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A) Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. B) Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C) Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

B) Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States? A) When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling will be less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 2 miles at the estimated time of arrival. B) On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination. C) When the flight is scheduled for more than 6 hours en route.

B) On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination.

When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than A) 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. B) 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C) 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with all engines operating.

A) 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

Which in-flight conditions are required by a supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude? A) The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least 1,000 feet vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally and have at least 3 miles flight visibility. B) The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility. C) The height of any higher overcast or broken layer must be at least 500 feet above the IFR MEA

B) The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility.

Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A) for a period 1 hours before and after the ETA. B) during the entire flight. C) when the flight arrives.

C) when the flight arrives.

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are A) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to arrive. B) those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives. C) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hours before or after the ETA for that flight.

B) those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.

Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air carrier that is scheduled for a 7- hour IFR flight? A) No alternate airport is required if the forecast weather at the ETA at the destination airport is at least 1,500 feet and 3 miles. B) An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling MDA C) An alternate airport is required.

C) An alternate airport is required.

An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier's Operations Specifications and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the minimum weather conditions required for takeoff? A) 800-2 B) 900-1. C) 1000-1/2.

A) 800-2

The pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate? A) The pilot in command may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher altitude. B) The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions. C) The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti- icing and deicing equipment is operational and is used.

B) The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions.

A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A) 2005Z. B) 1905Z C) 00052

C) 00052

A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A) 1945Z. B) 1915Z C) 1845Z

B) 1915Z

The weather conditions that meet the minimum requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations Specifications are A) 1000- 1, 900-1 1/2, or 800-2. B) 1000-1, 900-1 1/4, or 800-2 C) 1100-1, 900-1 1/2, or 800-2

A) 1000- 1, 900-1 1/2, or 800-2.

An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be A) 2 miles or greater. B) at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum. C) 3 miles.

B) at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum.

What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A) Sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. B) Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. C) Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.

B) Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.

When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A) 1922Z B) 1952Z. C) 0022Z.

C) 0022Z.

If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A) 1945Z B) 2015Z. C) 0045Z.

C) 0045Z.

The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A) 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B) 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C) 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

B) 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport.

The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A) 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B) 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C) enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

A) 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating- engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A) 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate. B) to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C) 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

C) 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A) at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B) for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C) back to the departure airport.

A) at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous IJnited States, if enough fuel A) is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B) is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C) to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.

B) is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is A) 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet AGL over the airport. B) 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. C) 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.

A) 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet AGL over the airport.