FAR's Pt 2

Question 1

At what minimum altitude is a turbine- engine-powered, or large airplane,
required to enter Class D airspace?
A) 1,500 feet AGL.
B) 2,000 feet AGL.
C) 2,500 feet AGL.

Answer 1

A) 1,500 feet AGL.

Question 2

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 288 knots.
B) 250 knots.
C) 230 knots

Answer 2

B) 250 knots.

Question 3

At what maximum indicated airspeed may an aircraft operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
A) 200 knots.
B) 230 knots.
C) 250 knots

Answer 3

A) 200 knots.

Question 4

A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after
taking off to what altitude?
A) 1,000 feet AGL.
B) 1,500 feetAGL
C) 5,000 feet AGL.

Answer 4

B) 1,500feetAGL

Question 5

What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears
to be contrary to a regulation?
A) Read the clearance back in its entirety.
B) Request a clarification from ATC
C) Do not accept the clearance.

Answer 5

B) Request a clarification from ATC

Question 6

Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS
approach?
A) VOR/DME Fik
B) Surveillance radar.
C) Compass locator.

Answer 6

C) Compass locator.

Question 7

A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate required items which
A) are required to be operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights.
B) may be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight ofa large airplane to a maintenance
base.
C) may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft,

Answer 7

C) may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft,

Question 8

In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled
airspace?
A) Above 12,500 feet MSL excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL
B) Above 10,000 feet MSL excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL
C) Above 14,500 feet MSL excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL

Answer 8

B) Above 10,000 feet MSL excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL

Question 9

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only
for determining
A) who was responsible for any accident or incident.
B) evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action.
C) possible causes of accidents or incidents.

Answer 9

C) possible causes of accidents or incidents

Question 10

Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in
addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?
A) Radar and RVR
B) RCLS and REIL
C) TDZL RCLS, and RVR.

Answer 10

C) TDZL RCLS, and RVR.

Question 11

When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation
during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are
visible?
A) After passing the visual descent point (VDP).
B) When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more, or the PIC has more than 50 ILS landings in
type.
C) When the red terminal bar of the approach light system is in sight.

Answer 11

C) When the red terminal bar of the approach light system is in sight.

Question 12

In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and
HIRU which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II
instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?
A) RCLS and REIL
B) Radar and RVR.
C) TDZL RCS and RVR.

Answer 12

C) TDZL RCS and RVR.

Question 13

The weight and CG of an aircraft used in 1 35 operations must have been calculated
from those values established by actual weighing of the aircraft within what period
of time?
A) Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months.
B) Multiengine and single-engine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months.
C) Multiengine aircraft, last 36 calendar months; single-engine, last 24 calendar
months.

Answer 13

A) Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months.

Question 14

What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the
destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
A) 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the
threshold.
B) 1 15 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.
C) 115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.

Answer 14

B) 1 15 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.

Question 15

For which of these aircraft is the “cleamay* for a particular runway considered in
computing takeoff weight limitations?
A) Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957
and August 30, 1959.
B) Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30,
1958.
C) U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.

Answer 15

B) Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30,
1958.

Question 16

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate
with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
A) ARINC.
B) Any FSS.
C) Appropriate dispatch office.

Answer 16

C) Appropriate dispatch office.

Question 17

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger
compartment of an airplane operated under FAR Part 121 ?
A) All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of
withstanding certain load stresses.
B) All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be
secured to the floor structure of the airplane.
C) Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other
tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

Answer 17

C) Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other
tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

Question 18

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the
passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?
A) The bin in which the cargo is carried may be installed in a position that restricts
access to, or use of, an exit, as long as there is another exit that can be used by the
passengers.
B) The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that
restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.
C) The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which
is at least flash resistant.

Answer 18

B) The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that
restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.

Question 19

Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large
pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines
A) may all be erased or othenvise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes,
B) may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to
landing.
C) may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with
reciprocating engines.

Answer 19

A) may all be erased or othenvise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes,

Question 20

For 14 CFR Part 121 operations, which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice
recorder erasure feature?
A) All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to
landing.
B) Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased.
C) All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of
an occurrence.

Answer 20

B) Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased.

Question 21

For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,
A) a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid
test,
B) a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing
may be erased.
C) a total of no more than I hour of recorded data may be erased.

Answer 21

B) a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing
may be erased.

Question 22

A cockpit voice recorder must be operated
A) from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final
checklist upon termination of flight.
B) from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist
prior to engine shutdown.
C) when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after
termination of the flight.

Answer 22

A) from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final
checklist upon termination of flight.

Question 23

The emergency lights on a passenger carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during
A) taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing.
B) taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
C) takeoff, cruise, and landing.

Answer 23

B) taxiing, takeoff, and landing.

Question 24

When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on “victor ainvays,”
which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
A) VOR.
B) ADE.
C) VOR and DME.

Answer 24

A) VOR.

Question 25

DME or suitable RNAV is required
A) above 14,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
B) above 10,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
C) at or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

Answer 25

C) at or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.

Question 26

What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category
airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight
for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?
A) Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land.
B) Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in
the operations manual for such an event.
C) Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered,
and there is enough fuel remaining.

Answer 26

B) Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in
the operations manual for such an event.

Question 27

If an air carrier airplane’s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast
along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
A) when able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route.
B) in VFR conditions.
C) in day VFR conditions.

Answer 27

C) in day VFR conditions.

Question 28

An air carrier airplane’s airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition
prior to dispatch, if the flight will be
A) conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported
en route.
B) carrying passengers, but not if it is “all cargo.”
C) conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of
weather.

Answer 28

A) conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported
en route.

Question 29

While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will require an
immediate report to ATC?
A) One engine tachometer on a multiengine aircraft.
B) Airborne radar.
C) DME.

Answer 29

C) DME.

Question 30

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?
A) When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age.
B) Only during the en route flight.
C) During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion ofa flight.

Answer 30

B) Only during the en route flight.

Question 31

A terrain awareness and warning system is required on
A) all turbine-powered airplanes,
B) all passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes.
C) all large airplanes.

Answer 31

A) all turbine-powered airplanes,

Question 32

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-
donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one
pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask? [Please read the Explanation.]
A) FL 200.
B) FL 300.
C) FL 250.

Answer 32

C) FL 250.

Question 33

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape
slide system, when must this system be armed?
A) For taxi, takeoff, and landing.
B) Only for takeoff and landing.
C) During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.

Answer 33

A) For taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Question 34

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must
A) operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load.
B) be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger
compartment.
C) be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.

Answer 34

B) be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger
compartment.

Question 35

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is
required on a passenger-carrying airplane?
A) The most forward location in the passenger cabin.
B) In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit.
C) The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

Answer 35

C) The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

Question 36

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier
airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45
passengers are carried?
A) Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the
passenger cabin.
B) Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin.
C) Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the
center of the passenger cabin.

Answer 36

A) Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the
passenger cabin.

Question 37

In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit emergency checklist by
the flightcrew is
A) encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished.
B) required by regulations to ensure that all actions are completed correctly.
C) required by the FAA if the emergency procedure was not memorized.

Answer 37

B) required by regulations to ensure that all actions are completed correctly.

Question 38

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F.
Kennedy International Airport and London, England?
A) A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation
device for the full seating capacity of the airplane.
B) An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft.
C) A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-type emergency locator
transmitter for each required liferaft,

Answer 38

B) An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft.

Question 39

What emergency equipment is required for extended overeater operations?
A) A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each liferaft.
B) A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver.
C) A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the
airplane.

Answer 39

C) A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the
airplane.

Question 40

Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each
A) aircraft occupant.
B) seat on the aircraft.
C) passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

Answer 40

A) aircraft occupant.

Question 41

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental
air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
A) all of the passengers, plus IO percent.
B) all aircraft occupants.
C) all passenger seats.

Answer 41

B) all aircraft occupants.

Question 42

When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many
appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?
A) One for each passenger seat.
B) One for each passenger, plus IO percent.
C) One for each occupant of the aircraft.

Answer 42

C) One for each occupant of the aircraft.

Question 43

Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored
A) within easy reach of each passenger.
B) under each occupant seat.
C) within easy reach of each seated occupant.

Answer 43

C) within easy reach of each seated occupant.

Question 44

An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain
must carry which emergency equipment?
A) Survival kit for each passenger.
B) Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices,
C) Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.

Answer 44

B) Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices,

Question 45

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must
carry which emergency equipment?
A) A signal mirror and colored smoke flares.
B) Survival kit for each passenger.
C) An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

Answer 45

C) An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

Question 46

An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain
must carry which emergency equipment?
A) Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
B) Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
C) Survival kit for each passenger

Answer 46

A) Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.

Question 47

How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-
powered air transport airplanes carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty
when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?
A) A minimum of 2-hours’ supply.
B) Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude.
C) Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed
1 hour and 50 minutes.

Answer 47

A) A minimum of 2-hours’ supply.

Question 48

What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered
aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for
A) each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.
B) 30 percent of the passengers.
C) IO percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.

Answer 48

A) each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.

Question 49

Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin
A) may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is
secured by a cargo net.
B) must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15,
using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that
may be carried in the bin.
C) must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.

Answer 49

B) must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15,
using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that
may be carried in the bin.

Question 50

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required
for flight under 14 CFR part 121?
A) Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard.
B) Number of passenger cabin occupants.
C) Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

Answer 50

C) Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

Question 51

Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers,
megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?
A) All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers.
B) Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is
not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment.
C) Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate
its method of operation.

Answer 51

C) Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate
its method of operation.

Question 52

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?
A) A large airplane.
B) A turbojet airplane.
C) An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

Answer 52

C) An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

Question 53

An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it
A) has a seating capacity of 19 passengers.
B) has a seating capacity of 20 passengers,
C) weighs more than 12,500 pounds.

Answer 53

B) has a seating capacity of 20 passengers,

Question 54

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid
treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological
reasons?
A) Two.
B) Four.
C) Three.

Answer 54

A) Two.

Question 55

A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the
necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights
conducted above
A) FL 200.
B) FL 240.
C) FL 250.

Answer 55

C) FL 250.

Question 56

According to federal aviation regulations, supplemental oxygen requirements for
passenger flights operating up to and including FL 250 are dependent upon the
airplane’s ability to descend safely to a flight altitude of
A) 10,000 feet within 4 minutes.
B) 14,000 feet within 4 minutes.
C) 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is
quicker.

Answer 56

B) 14,000 feet within 4 minutes.

Question 57

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask
within
A) 5 seconds.
B) IO seconds.
C) 15 seconds.

Answer 57

A) 5 seconds.

Question 58

For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure
altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be
provided? Enough oxygen for
A) 30 minutes for IO percent of the passengers.
B) IO percent of the passengers for I .5 hours.
C) each passenger for 30 minutes.

Answer 58

A) 30 minutes for IO percent of the passengers.

Question 59

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers
during the entire flight at those altitudes?
A) 15,000 feet,
B) 16,000 feet.
C) 14,000 feet

Answer 59

A) 15,000 feet,

Question 60

If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight
engineer’s duties?
A) The second in command only.
B) Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
C) Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

Answer 60

B) Any flight crewmember, if qualified.

Question 61

IJnder which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR
Part 121 operations?
A) If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard.
B) If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.
C) If required by the airplane’s type certificate.

Answer 61

C) If required by the airplane’s type certificate.

Question 62

When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the
takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?
A) 80,000 pounds.
B) more than 80,000 pounds.
C) 300,000 pounds.

Answer 62

B) more than 80,000 pounds.

Question 63

The “age 65 rule” of FAR Part 121 applies to
A) any required pilot crewmember.
B) any flight crewmember.
C) the pilot in command only.

Answer 63

A) any required pilot crewmember.

Question 64

An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the
minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?
A) Four.
B) Three.
C) Two.

Answer 64

B) Three.

Question 65

When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on
board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?
A) Five.
B) Four.
C) Three

Answer 65

B) Four.

Question 66

An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions where pilotage is not
used. What radio navigation equipment is required?
A) Dual approved independent navigation systems.
B) Dual voa ILS, and DME.
C) Single VOR and DME installed.

Answer 66

A) Dual approved independent navigation systems.

Question 67

Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment?
A) Certificate holder’s Operations Specifications.
B) International Aeronautical Information Manual.
C) International Notices To Airmen.

Answer 67

A) Certificate holder’s Operations Specifications.

Question 68

Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be
performed in the event of an emergency?
A) Airplane Flight Manual.
B) Certificate holder’s manual.
C) Pilot’s Emergency Procedures Handbook.

Answer 68

B) Certificate holder’s manual.

Question 69

The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an
emergency shall be assigned by the
A) pilot in command.
B) air carrier’s chief pilot.
C) certificate holder.

Answer 69

C) certificate holder.

Question 70

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a
passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 1 17 passengers aboard?
A) Five.
B) Four.
C) Three.

Answer 70

B) Four.