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EAWS CVN 75 > WEAPONS > Flashcards

WEAPONS Flashcards

1
Q

HERO

A

Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance

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2
Q

EMCON

A

Emissions Control

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3
Q

CBU

A

Cluster Bomb Unit

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4
Q

TALD

A

Tactical Air-Launched Decoy

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5
Q

Non-Nuclear Ordnance/Explosive Handling Qualification Program

A

Instituted in 1968

Ordnance Certification is valid for 12 months

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6
Q

What is considered HERO Unsafe?

A

Highly likely to initiate a detonation

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7
Q

What is considered HERO Safe?

A

Items not susceptible to RF energy

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8
Q

What is considered HERO Susceptible?

A

Adversely affected by RF energy resulting in unsafe or unreliable ordnance

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9
Q

What does EMCON do?

A

Prevent enemy ships aircraft from locating us through their passive detection systems.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of doing a stray voltage check?

A

Ensure that no electrical charges exist within the aircraft’s firing circuits.

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11
Q

AIM

A

Air-launched, intercept-aerial guided missile

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12
Q

AIM-7

A

Sparrow

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13
Q

AIM-9

A

Sidewinder

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14
Q

AIM-120

A

AMRAAM

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15
Q

AGM

A

Air-launched, surface-attack guided missile

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16
Q

AGM-65

A

Maverick

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17
Q

AGM-84A-D

A

Harpoon

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18
Q

AGM-84E

A

SLAM

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19
Q

AGM-88

A

HARM

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20
Q

AGM-119

A

Penguin

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21
Q

AGM-122A

A

Sidearm

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22
Q

RIM

A

Ship-launched, intercept-aerial guided missile

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23
Q

RIM-7

A

NATO Sea Sparrow

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24
Q

ATM

A

Air-launched, training guided missile

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25
Q

What CBU is onboard HST?

A

CBU-99

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26
Q

Types of CBU’s

A

MK-20
CBU99/100 Rockeye
CBU-59
CBU-78 Gator

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27
Q

What are the 3 types of TALD vehicles?

A

A/B37U-1(V) 1, chaff vehicle
A/B37U-1(V) 2, RF vehicle
ADM-141 A, RF vehicle

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28
Q

TALD provides what

A

False Imagery

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29
Q

Types of Weapons Elevators:

A

Upper Stage – 3

Lower Stage – 6

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30
Q

Hung Ordnance

A

Failed to properly release or fire

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31
Q

Unexpended Ordnance

A

Ordnance that was loaded, but was never expended by the aircrew

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32
Q

Yellow High Explosive (HE)

A

Found on warhead sections.

2 yellow bands indicate thermal protected ordnance.
Brown

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33
Q

Brown

A

Indicates presence of explosive

Normally a propellant

Can function as a low explosive or to be particularly hazardous to the use

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34
Q

Gray with Red Bands

A

Irritant (harassing agent)

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35
Q

Black

A

Armor piercing ammunition

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36
Q

Light Green

A

Smoke or “marker” ammunition

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37
Q

Light Red

A

Incendiary ammunition

38
Q

White

A

Illuminating ammunition

39
Q

Light Blue

A

Inert training or firing practice ammunition

40
Q

AWSE

A

Aviation Weapons Support Equipment

41
Q

OHO

A

Ordnance Handling Officer

42
Q

EOD

A

Explosive Ordnance Disposal

43
Q

AMRAAM

A

Advanced Medium Range Air to Air Missile

44
Q

Divisions of Weapons

A 
G1
G2
G3
G4
G5
45
Q

G-1

A

Hangar Bay and Flight Deck Ordnance, Aviation Weapons Support Equipment (AWSEP) Division

46
Q

G-2

A

Armory Division

47
Q

G-3

A

Magazine Division

48
Q

G-4

A

Weapons Elevator Division

49
Q

G-5

A

ADMIN

50
Q

What does G-5 consist of?

A

Weapons Administration, Aviation Weapons Movement Control Station, ROLMS

51
Q

Under G-5 admin, what is Ordnance Control?

A

Aviation Weapons Movement Control Station

Controls the movement of all ordnance onboard

52
Q

Under G-5 admin, what is ROLMS?

A

Ammo Accounting

Responsible for keeping track of all ammo received, transferred or expended

53
Q

What is the Weapons Officer known as?

A

Gun Boss

54
Q

What are G-3 division members known as?

A

Mag Rats

55
Q

Which division is responsible for training ship’s crew on firearms?

A

G-2

56
Q

Which division is responsible for the security and maintenance of all small arms and .50 caliber mounts?

A

G-2

57
Q

ECM

A

Electronic Countermeasures

58
Q

Which detection system provides early warning of approaching air/missile targets?

A

E-2C Hawkeye

59
Q

Which detection system monitors the oceans for surface, subsurface, and airborne contacts?

A

Surface Combatants’ Ship

60
Q

ECM is designed to do what?

A

Prevent the enemy of their use of radio transmitting systems

61
Q

SPS-49

A

2D; provide counter jamming

62
Q

SPS-48

A

3D, provide range, bearing and elevation

63
Q

What is the primary Fire Control Radar onboard HST?

A

MK-23 Target Acquisition System

64
Q

What does the MK-23 TAS do?

A

Controls the NATO Sea Sparrow Missile System (NSSMS)

65
Q

M61A1 20MM GUN SYSTEM

A

6-barrel, rotary action, mechanism gun

2 Settings:

  • 4,000 rounds per minute (gun low)
  • 6,000 rounds per minute (gun high
66
Q

What is the acronym for Air to Air Warfare?

A

AAW

67
Q

What aircraft is the forward-deployed portion of any airborne strike?

A

E-2 C Hawkeye

68
Q

ECM has what 2 types?

A

Active

Passive

69
Q

A surface combatants’ ship can link data to be displayed in what center of each ship?

A

Combat Direction Center

70
Q

CV FTAS

A

CV Fast Time Analyzer System

71
Q

ASROC

A

Anti-Submarine Rocket System

72
Q

H-60

A

USW Helicopter

73
Q

CDC

A

Combat Direction Center

Collect, evaluate and disseminate tactical information

74
Q

MK-46 Torpedo

A

Primary weapon used in ASW

Search for, detect, attack and destroy submarines

Salt-water activated

Uses OTTO II fuel

Launched from any # of aircraft

75
Q

What direction system collects pertinent tactical information regarding undersea contacts?

A

CDC

76
Q

What direction system collects pertinent tactical information regarding undersea contacts?

A

Sonobuoys

77
Q

Which torpedo is used against the faster, deeper-diving, and more sophisticated submarines?

A

MK-50

78
Q

What are the 2 methods of mine activation?

A

Contact and Influence

79
Q

What position does a moored mine take in the water?

A

Connected by a cable to an anchor resting on the bottom

80
Q

What aircraft can the MK-46 Torpedo be launched from?

A

Helicopter or Fixed-wing aircraft

81
Q

HARM

A

High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile

82
Q

Name 3 surface search Detection Systems

A

SPS-67;
RASCAR;
FURUNO

83
Q

3 types of General Purpose bombs:

A

MK 82 – 500 lbs
MK 83 – 1000 lbs
MK 84 – 2000 lbs

84
Q

What is contained in the MK20 Cluster Bomb Unit?

A

247 MK 118 antitank bombs

85
Q

NATO

A

North Atlantic Treaty Organization

86
Q

CIWS

A

Close-In Weapons System

87
Q

ECM

A

Electronic Countermeasures

88
Q

Characteristics of the .50 Caliber mounts:

A

10 mounts

360 Degree Circle

Max range: 7,400 yds

Max effective range: 2,000 yards

400-500 rounds per minute

89
Q

Characteristics of the NSSMS

A

2 systems consisting of:

1 launcher with 8 missiles

2 Directors per system

90
Q

Characteristics of the CIWS

A

20 mm Gattling-gun system/Phalanx

4,500 rounds per minute

Magazine capacity is 1,550 rounds

3 mounts

91
Q

What type of gun does the CIWS use?

A

M-61A1 Gattling

92
Q

What type of targets is the CIWS designed to engage?

A

Anti-ship cruise missiles

Fixed-wing aircraft

EAWS CVN 75 (19 decks)

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