Operations I Flashcards

1
Q

APC

A

Approach Power Compensator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AFCS

A

Automatic Flight Control System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DRO

A

Data Readout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

EMCON

A

Emissions Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

LSO

A

Landing Signal Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PALS

A

Precision Approach and Landing System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CQ

A

Carrier Qualifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 2 leading causes of Weather-Related Aircraft accidents and incidents?

A

Lightning strikes

Electrostatic discharges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does lightning do to make it so dangerous?

A

Flash blindness
Structure damage
Damage to Electronic Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long can flash blindness last?

A

30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is one of the worst hazards of thunderstorm flying?

A

Hail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens when ice forms on an aircraft?

A

Decreased lift, increased drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3 primary movements of aircraft about the axis?

A

Pitch – Lateral - Elevators

Roll – Longitudinal - Ailerons

Yaw – Vertical - Rudders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Turbulence

A

Disturbed flow in the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Case I

A

Will not encounter instrument condition

Visibility 3,000 feet and 5 nm respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Case II

A

May encounter instrument condition

Visibility 1,000 feet and 5 nm respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Case III

A

Will encounter instrument condition

Below 1,000 or 5 nm respectively;

a nighttime departure or recovery (1/2 hour after sunset and ½ hour before sunrise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Purpose of rescuing aircraft crewmembers who may go down during ops

A

Mission of Plane Guard Helicopter – SAR

19
Q

2 Spaces responsible for control of airborne aircraft:

A

CDC

CATCC

20
Q

What is the responsibility of CATCC?

A

Control of aircraft operating within the Carrier Control Area

21
Q

What is the distance of responsibility CATCC has around the carrier?

A

50 nm

22
Q

Define Carrier Control Area:

A

A circular airspace within a radius of 50nm around the carrier

23
Q

What are the 3 areas that CATCC is organized into?

A

Air Operations (Air Ops)

Carrier Control
Approach (CCA)

Air Transfer Office (ATO)

24
Q

What are the positions in CCA?

A

Departure Control
Marshal Control
Approach Control
Final Control

25
Q

Departure Control

A

Control of departing aircraft during Case I, II, and III

Initial radar contact with a/c and transfer of control to CDC

Monitors the location and package status of tanker a/c and low-state a/c

26
Q

Marshal Control

A

Control of inbound a/c during Case I, II and III

Initial contact until transfer to PriFly during Case I or to Approach control during Case II and III

Establishes interval between a/c

27
Q

Approach Control

A

Control of aircraft on approach during Case II and III

Handoff from Marshall and transfer to PriFly during Case II

Maintains responsibility of a/c separation and makes holes for bolter traffic

28
Q

Final Control

A

Control of aircraft on final approach during Case III

Ensure optimum until transfer of control to LSO

Control of a/c glide slope and lineup performance

29
Q

Cyclic Operations

A

Flight ops conducted in cycles

Aircraft are launched and recovered in groups

Groups are referred to as events

Events are assigned a numeric designator based upon their launch order

i.e. Event 1, Event 2, etc. Each aircraft in an event is referred to as a sortie

Sortie: Flight of one aircraft from launch to recovery

30
Q

Ramp Time

A

Launch times are fixed but recovery times are not

Case III

Calculated by Air Boss

31
Q

Break Time

A

Case II

32
Q

Responsibilities of the LSO:

A

Visual control of aircraft in the terminal phase of the final approach and landing

Assumes control a ¾ nm.

Gives directions if necessary: commands wave off, debrief of performance

33
Q

Bulls eye

A

Refers to the Independent Landing Monitor (ILM)
AN/SPN – 41

Gives pilot landing info used in conjunction with PALS

34
Q

SPN-41

A

Bullseye system

Used in conjunction with Precision Approach and Landing Systems (PALS)

35
Q

PALS

A

Precision Approach and Landing System

Enables pilots to perform instrument approaches under either Manual or Automatic Control

36
Q

3 Components of PALS

A

APC – Approach Power Compensator

AFCS – Automatic Flight Control System

DRO – Data Readout

37
Q

EMCON Definition

A

Restricts the use of electronic systems to deny information to the enemy for determining the location of the carrier

38
Q

Events on the Air Plan

A

Types of Missions

Type of Aircraft
Scheduled to
Launch/Recover

Sunrise and Sunset Time

39
Q

Who is the Air Plan Drafted by?

A

Strike Operations

40
Q

FLEX DECK stands for

A

Able to launch and recover aircraft at short or irregular intervals of time

The normal cyclic interval of 90 minutes is typically reduced to between 40 and 60 minutes

41
Q

Pilots experience electrostatic discharges at altitudes of how many feet?

A

43,000 feet

42
Q

What is the difference between cyclic and flex deck?

A

90 minute to 40 – 60 minute intervals

43
Q

Who signs the Air Plan?

A

OPSO, Air OPSO, Strike Officer