Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PM&R Pediatric Boards > Wasted copy A2 Neurologic Disorders: Brain COPY > Flashcards

Wasted copy A2 Neurologic Disorders: Brain COPY Flashcards

1
Q

When does head control develop

A

4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When do babies babble

A

6 - 10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do babies sit

A

7 - 8 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does a baby stand, creep on all fours, have a pincer grasp, and finger feeds

A

10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does a baby talk

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does a baby walk with help

A

12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When does a baby walk alone with a wide base

A

14 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does a child run, do stairs, and demonstrate hand dominance

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When can a child ride a trike, be toilet trained, speak a 3 work sentence, and draw a circle

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When can a child hop, use a pencil, use scissors, and dresses

A

4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When can a child skip, speak fluently, and tie shoes

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When can a child use roller skates and recite the alphabet

A

6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CP Prevalence

A

1 - 5/1,000 births worldwide
2/1,000 Europe
3/1,000 US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the trend in Prevalence of CP

A

Decreasing in Preterm
Stable in term
Combined stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4 Perinatal risk factors for CP

A

Prematurity
Breech
Birth complications (placental detachment, cord, uterine rupture)
Birth asphyxia (<10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3 Postnatal risk factors for CP

A

Trauma
Infection
Coagulopathies (sickle cell, clotting deficiencies, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which is true regarding CP

  1. Prenatal factors major
  2. Labor causes high %
  3. Premature no longer a problem
  4. Most CP children premature
A
  1. Prenatal is major contributor
  2. Labor <10%
  3. Premature strongest risk factor
  4. Most children with CP are born at or near term
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Neuroimaging in CP

A
  1. 90% abnormal
  2. Most commonly prenatal
  3. Destructive 90% (normal brain insulted with PVL or deep grey matter injury)
  4. Brain Mal-development 10%
  5. Normal Neuroimaging 10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Classification: Motor CP

A

Spastic: 80%
Dyskinetic: 10% (Athetosis, Chorea, Dystonia)
Ataxic/hypotonic: 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What Cobb angle is cut-off for scoliosis fusion

A

> 40 to 50 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Risk factors for hip migration in CP

A 
Malalignment (valgus neck shaft angle)
Femoral anteversion
Decreased weight-bearing
Spasticity
Weakness of hip abductors and extensors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following contributes to hip subluxation in CP:

  1. Congenital hip dysplasia
  2. Overactive gluteus medius and minimus
  3. Weakness of adductors
  4. Femoral anteversion and coxa valgus
A
  1. Femoral anteversion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Risk factors for poor bone health in CP

A
  • nutrition and absorption
  • decreased exposure to sun
  • non-ambulatory
  • anti-seizure meds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the z-score in DXA scans for Osteoporosis in children

A

z-score <2.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is used for DXA scan measure for children

A

z-score
Not T-score
Distal Femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CP Low Bone Density Fractures

A

Prevalence: 20% for non-ambulatory Patients
7-9.7% per year incidence for severe CP
Most common distal femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

3 Means of prevention of low bone density in CP

A
  • proper nutrition and calcium intake
  • vitamin D
  • Increase weight bearing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Optimal use of DEXA in CP

  1. scan hip or L-spine
  2. avoid scan in fracture area
  3. Low bone density is Z-score -2 or below
  4. low bone density T-score 2.5 or below
A
  1. Low bone density CP defined at Z-score < 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Spasticity

A

Increased resistance to velocity dependent stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Modified Ashworth Scale

A 
0 - normal
1 - slight catch
1+ - slight catch with continued increased in resistance
2 - resistance through full ROM
3 - considerable increase in resistance
4 - rigid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tardieu Scale

A

R1 - first catch

R2 - end range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hypertonia Assessment Tool (HAT)

A

7 item tool to differentiate spasticity, dystonia, and rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Barry-Albright Dystonia Scale (BADS)

A

5 point dystonia scale

specific areas of the body covered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Definition of Dystonia

A

Dystonia is a movement disorder in which involuntary sustained or intermittent muscle contractions cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Definition of Chorea

A

Chorea is an ongoing random-appearing sequence of one or more discrete involuntary movements or movement fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Definition of Athetosis

A

Athetosis is a slow, continuous, involuntary writhing movement that prevents maintenance of a stable posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Definition of Myoclonus

A

Myoclonus is a sequence of repeated, often nonrhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction or relaxation of one or more muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Definition of Tremor

A

Tremor is a rhythmic back-and-forth or oscillating involuntary movement about a joint axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Definition of Tics

A

Tics are repeated, individually recognizable, intermittent movements or movement fragments that are almost always briefly suppressible and are usually associated with awareness of an urge to perform the movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Name 4 lower extremity functional measures for CP

A
  1. Instrumented and clinical gait parameters
  2. Gross Motor Function Measure (GMFM)
  3. GMPM
  4. 6 minutes walk test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Name 2 upper extremity pediatric functional tests

A
  1. Melbourne assessment

2. QUEST

42
Q

Name 2 global functionality pediatric systems

A
  1. PEDI

2. weeFIM

43
Q

Name 2 individual goal attainment measures

A
  1. COPM

2. GAS

44
Q

Name 2 Quality of life pediatric measures

A
  1. Child Health Questionnaire

2. Caregiver Questionnaire

45
Q

What does SEMLS stand for?

A

Single Event MultiLevel Surgery

46
Q

How does diazepam work?

A

CHECK THIS–

Presynaptic inhibition of GABA-A receptors

47
Q

How does baclofen work?

A

CHECK THIS–

Presynaptic inhibition GABA-B receptors

48
Q

How does Dantrolene sodium work?

A

Inhibition skeletal muscle contraction by suppressing release of calcium

49
Q

Safe dosing for Botox includes all the follow factors EXCEPT:

a. Body weight
b. Previous Orthopedic Surgery
c. Functional mobility level
d. Comorbidities

A

b. Previous orthopedic surgeries

Lower dosing for GMFCS IV and V, prior swallowing or respiratory difficulties, and adjusted for body weight

50
Q

Describe the ideal SDR candidate

A
  • spastic diplegia
  • premature birth
  • PVL
  • GMFCS 1-3
  • GMFM greater than 60

Contraindications: spasticity of spinal cord origin, other movements like dystonia, weakness

51
Q

Name 8 treatments for dystonia

A
  1. Baclofen
  2. Artane
  3. Benzodiazepinews
  4. Clonidine
  5. Gabapentin
  6. DBS
  7. ITB
  8. Botox
52
Q

What is the life expectancy for independently ambulatory children with CP compared to their peers?

53
Q

What is the life expectancy of a child with CP who can’t lift his head up from supine

54
Q

Risk of early mortality for CP

A
  1. Seizures
  2. Cognitive impairment
  3. Severe vision and hearing loss
  4. Non-verbal
55
Q

Simple demographics of pediatric TBI

A

Agest 0-4 (falls and 15-19 (MVA) are highest.

Males higher than females

56
Q

Factors of the pediatric brain that worsen or affect TBI injury

A
  1. Increased brain water
  2. Less myelin
  3. increased blood flow
57
Q

Signs of physical abuse of a child

A
  1. Shaking or impact
  2. Skull fracture
  3. Subdural
  4. Brain contusions
  5. Retinal hemorrhages
  6. Skeletal survey findings
58
Q

Causes of anoxic brain injury in children

A
  1. Drowning
  2. Seizures
  3. Illnesses
59
Q

Complication of anoxic brain injury in children

A
  1. Higher seizure rates
  2. Heterotopic ossification
  3. GI complications
  4. Pneumonia
  5. High risk of autonomic dysfunction and storm
60
Q

Symptoms, association, and treatment of Autononomic instability (Paroxysmal sympathetic hyperactivity)

A
  1. High temp
  2. High BP
  3. High respiratory rate
    Associated with increased duration of coma. Treat with beta blockers and ITB
61
Q

Incidence of HO in children

A
  1. UNCERTAIN %

2. Hip, knee, shoulder, and elbow most common

62
Q

Determinants of TBI pediatric outcome

A
  1. Duration of post-traumatic amnesia

2. Measure with Children’s Outcome and Amnesia Test (COAT)

63
Q

Pediatric Glascow coma scale

A

Less than 5 is the cut-off for pediatric scale (compares for 8 with adults)

64
Q

Which of the following is TRUE:
Pediatric TBI pathophysiology differs from adult because
A. Pedi brains have less myelination
b. Pedi brains have decreased cerebral blood flow
c. Pedi brains have fewer synapses
d. Pedi brains favor less excitability

A

A. Only A is true

65
Q

What are the symptoms of ADEM (Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis)?

A

Weakness
Loss of vision
Numbness
Loss of Balance

66
Q

Differential diagnosis of ADEM

A 
Tumors
MS
Direct infection
LP shows lymphocytes
No oliclonal bands (Seen in. MS)
67
Q

Etiology of pediatric stroke`

A 
Cardiac
Vasculoar
Sickle Cell
Infection
Trauma
Genetics
68
Q

Pediatric CNS tumors

A

Most common solid tumors in children. Leading cause of cancer death ages 0-14.
Rate 5-6.2/100,000 0-14
Higher in males

69
Q

2 classification systems for CNS pediatric tumors

A

WHO: tumor histology

International Classification of Childhood cancer: Site and morphology

70
Q

What is the largest group of CNS pediatric tumors

A

Low grade astrocytoma

71
Q

What is the most malignant pediatric CNS tumor?

A

Meduloblastoma

72
Q

Treatments for ADEM

A
  1. IV steroids
  2. IVIG
  3. Plasmapheresis
  4. Clyclophosphamide
  5. Mitoxantrone
73
Q

Locations of pediatric CNS tumors

A 
Supratentorial:  28/%
Infratentorial: 26%
Pituitary/pineal:  17%
Non-specific:  14%
Cranial nerves:  6%
Spinal cord/cauda eq:  5%
Meninges:  3%
74
Q

Symptoms of pediatric CNS tumors

A 
Sudden onset headache
Nausea and vomiting
Ataxia
Cranial Nerve Palsy
Impaired vision
75
Q

List 3 types of neural tube defects:

A
  1. Encaphalocele
  2. Anencephaly
    3,. Spina Bifida
76
Q

Name 3 types of Spina Bifida

A
  1. Myelomeningocele
  2. Meningocele
  3. Occulta
77
Q

Babies at higher risk of spina bifida

A 
Female
Children of mom with spina bifida
Maternal febrile
Lack of folic acid
Depakote
Maternal obesity
Solvents
78
Q

Dose of folate for prevention of spina bifida in general

79
Q

Prenatal screen for spina bifida

A

increased alphafetoprotein at 16-18 months

Ultrasound findings at 18-22 weeks

80
Q

What is more predictable of function in Spina Bifida

a. Surgical anatomy
b. Exam and motor capacity

81
Q

When do children with spina bifida have their maximum ambulation

A

9 years of age

82
Q

Complications of spina bifida

A
  1. Hydrocephalus
  2. Tethered cord
  3. Syrinx
  4. Arnold-Chiari II
83
Q

Signs of Syrinx on spina bifida

A
  1. Weakness
  2. Spasticyt
  3. Irritability
84
Q

What is Arnold Chiari II?

A

Herniation of fetal cerebellum and medulla downward into spinal canal and up into the middle fossa

85
Q

Who is at highest risk for scoliosis in spina bifida?

A

Higher (Thoracic) level has 100% incidence

86
Q

Describe hips in Spina Bifida

A

Often dislocated
Most problematic with 1 hip out
Often do not need surgery

87
Q

Describe clubfoot with spina bifida

A

Common
Early casting helpful
Surgery helpful

88
Q

Another name for rocker bottom

A

Vertical talus. 10% children with Sina bifida

89
Q

4 factors of hip dislocation in spina bifida

90
Q

What does SCWORA stand for?

A 
Spinal
Cord 
Injury
WithOut
RAdiographic
These are 30-40% of all pediatric SCI
91
Q

What is a calcium risk in pediatric SCI?

A

Hypercalcemia

Lethargy and Nausea, esp with adolescent boys

92
Q

Describe factors in pediatric Transverse Myelitis

A
  1. Immune mediated CNS inflammation
  2. MRI has high T2
  3. Children do better than adults
  4. 1/2 make full recovery by 2 years
93
Q

Cut offs to look diligently for Neuromuscular diseases

A
  1. Can’t sit by 9 months
  2. Can’t walk by 18 months
  3. Can’t run by 2 1/2
  4. Can’t stand on one leg by 4
94
Q

What is the GMFM

A

The Gross Motor Function Measure (GMFM) is an assessment tool designed and evaluated to measure changes in gross motor function over time or with intervention in children with cerebral palsy. It was first developed in the late 1980s for use in both clinical and research settings and has evolved through advanced analytic techniques and in response to requests for more efficient testing. The GMFM user’s manual is available for purchase at the Mac Keith Press website.

95
Q

What is GMPM?

A

The GMPM is an observational instrument used to evaluate gross motor performance (i.e., quality of movement) in children with cerebral palsy. The instrument’s primary purpose is to evaluate change over time in specific qualitative features or attributes of gross motor behaviour. The measure was found to be responsive to change over time.

96
Q

What testing does the American Academy of Pediatrics recommend for all children with low tone and developmental delay?

a. No testing unless delays persist past two years
b. MRI of the brain alone
c. MRI of the brain and complete spinal cord
d. CPK and TSH

A

d. CPK and TSH

The AAP recommends neuroimaging if developmental delays are associated with high tone. For children with low tone, the AAP recommends CPK and TSH as a first step

97
Q

Inheritance of Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA)

A

90% Autosomal Recessive

98
Q

with neurologic structure degenerates in SMA?

A

Anterior Horn Cells

99
Q

what gene diminishes neuronal functional survival in SMA?

A

SMN1 (Survival Motor Neuron 1)
On chromosome 5q13
SMN protein essential for anterior horn cell survival

100
Q

What is the other gene for SMA?

A

SMN 2
Also codes for the SMN protein. Quantities are not absent but inadequate.
Absence is fatal. 4-8 copies more milder disease

PM&R Pediatric Boards (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions