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A&P Term 2 > VTNE > Flashcards

VTNE Flashcards

1
Q

What would be found in abundance in a skeletal muscle cell?

A

Mitochondria

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2
Q

What uses active transport?

A

Sodium-potassium pump

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3
Q

What contains hyaline cartilage?

A

Articular cartilage in a long bone

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4
Q

The stomach is ___ to the heart

A

Caudal

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5
Q

What houses osteocytes in compact bone?

A

Lacunae

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6
Q

These striated cells are joined by intercalated disks and have a single, centrally located nucleus:

A

Cardiac muscle

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7
Q

Schwamm cells:

A

Are supportive and protective only

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8
Q

What vessel contains oxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary vein

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9
Q

During contractions, the electrical impulse in the heart travels through several structures. What is the correct order of transmission

A

SA node, AV node, Bundle of Hiss, Perkinje Fibers

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10
Q

What part of the ECG is presented by the P wave?

A

Atrial systole

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11
Q

Food travels through the stomach of the ruminant in what order?

A

Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum

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12
Q

In the digestive system, which cells produce the necessary hydrochloric acid?

A

Parietal cells

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13
Q

During inhalation, the diaphragm moves:

A

Caudally

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14
Q

The outer cortex of the kidney contains all of the following except:

A

Loop of Henle

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15
Q

What hormone is responsible for stimulating the sympatic nervous system?

A

Epinephrine

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16
Q

The colored part of the eye is the:

A

Iris

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17
Q

The auditory ossicles are located:

A

In the middle ear

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18
Q

ADH ( vasopressin) causes water reabsorption and is released by which gland?

A

Pituitary

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19
Q

What has a prostate but no bulbourethral gland?

A

Dog

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20
Q

What layer of skin contains “water-proofing” cells?

A

Stratum granulosum

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21
Q

In qualitative and semi-qualitative urine analysis, which type of substance is exogenous?

A

Phenolsulfonphthalein

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22
Q

Urine samples should be analyzed within ___ for maximum valid information

A

30 minutes

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23
Q

Normally freshly voided urine of many species is clear. Exceptions include which species?

A

Rabbits, Horses, Hamsters

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24
Q

It is recommended that urine sample size be standardized. An adequate sample of fresh urine is considered to be:

A

5 mL

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25
Q

When assessing a patient’s diet, which urine specimen collection time is likely to be most helpful?

A

3 - 6 hours postprandial

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26
Q

What is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting hematology in a parrot?

A

Heparin

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27
Q

To maintain proper anticoagulant to blood ratio, sample tubes should be filled to at least what capacity?

A

90%

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28
Q

Blood samples collected immediately post prandial may be:

A

Lipemic

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29
Q

What urine collecting method is optimal for bacterial culture?

A

Cystocentesis

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30
Q

Pollakiuria is best defined as:

A

Frequent urination

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31
Q

A “smudge cell” is a:

A

Nucleated cell that has ruptured as a result of damage to a cell

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32
Q

MCHC is calculated by multiplying:

A

Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV

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33
Q

MCV is calculated by:

A

Multiplying PCV (%) by 10 and dividing by total RBC count

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34
Q

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin is:

A

Defined as weight of Hb contained within the average RBC

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35
Q

What is true of reticulocytes?

A

In cats, only the aggregate form should be counted in a reticulocyte count

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36
Q

Basophilic stippling is the presence of small, blue staining granules within:

A

Erthryocytes

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37
Q

What is likely the most representative method of analyzing urine solute osmolar concentration?

A

Osmometry

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38
Q

NRBCs are normal in which species of animal?

A

Avian and reptile

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39
Q

An increased WBC count is indicative of:

A

Leukocytosis

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40
Q

What describes an elevated platelet count caused by bone marrow dysfunction or pathology?

A

Thrombocythemia

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41
Q

How is Toxocara canis identified microscopically in the diagnostic stage?

A

Dark brown, thick-walled egg, with a pitted eggshell

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42
Q

Ancylostoma caninum can be contracted by which route?

A

Entry through the skin

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43
Q

The intermediate host of Diplidium caninum is the:

A

Flea

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44
Q

Signs that would indicate a dog has severe infection of Otodectes cynotis would include:

A

Head tilt, otitis media circling, seizures

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45
Q

Ixodes scapularis is the vector for:

A

Lyme disease

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46
Q

What parasite is zoonotic?

A

Dipylidium caninum

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47
Q

Which order do biting lice belong to?

A

Mallophaga

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48
Q

What is best diagnosed using the Baermann test?

A

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus

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49
Q

One of the great advantages of centrifugal floatation technique is to:

A

Detect Giardia oocysts and Trichuris ova more efficiently than regular flotation technique

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50
Q

For which parasites is the cellophane tape method useful?

A

Oxyuris equi

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51
Q

What parasite is called “walking dandruff”?

A

Cheyletiella spp.

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52
Q

A hexacanth is the detectable, infective stage of a:

A

Tapeworm

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53
Q

Giardia and Leishmania are examples of:

A

Flagellates

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54
Q

What test is best for removing lungworm larvae from small sample of feces?

A

Baermann technique

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55
Q

Which subgroup do tapeworms fall under?

A

Cestodes

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56
Q

When diagnosing Dirofilaria immitis on a Knott’s test, the microfilara must be differentiated from which nonpathogenic filarial larvae?

A

Acanthocheilonema

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57
Q

The life stage of the flea found on the skin of its host is the:

A

Adult stage

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58
Q

The prepatent period for Trichuris vulpis is:

A

3 months

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59
Q

Sucking lice have which characteristic?

A

Narrower head than the thorax

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60
Q

Hypostrongylus rubidus is the red stomach worm of:

A

Pig

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61
Q

Whole blood contains the protein ___ that is not found in serum

A

Fibrinogen

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62
Q

What is the anticoagulant of choice for venous blood samples to be used in measuring bicarbonate levels?

A

Lithium heparin

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63
Q

Serum creatinine levels can be influenced by:

A

How well the glomeruli are filtering

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64
Q

What is a nonrenal cause for an increase in serum urea nitrogen?

A

Bleeding into the intestinal tract

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65
Q

Renal threshold is the:

A

Level above which the kidneys can no longer remove glucose from the renal filtrate

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66
Q

Serum samples collected for measurement of blood glucose levels:

A

Should be separated from the cells ASAP to prevent artificial decreases in value

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67
Q

What is considered to be the best test for evaluating exocrine pancreatic function in dogs?

A

Pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity

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68
Q

Amylase breaks down:

A

Starches

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69
Q

Indirect bilirubin is:

A

Not water soluble
Lipid soluble and bound to proteins
A calculated value rather than a direct measurement

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70
Q

Calculation of the A:G ratio is:

A

Accomplished by dividing the serum albumin fraction by the globulin fraction

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71
Q

Globulin fractions can be separated by:

A

Electrophoresis

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72
Q

Which enzyme liver test is considered a specific test for liver disease in dogs, cats, and primates only?

A

ALT

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73
Q

What is not true regarding liver enzyme tests?

A

Most of these tests can be determined at room temp

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74
Q

Which serum protein fraction rarely increases in a disease state?

A

Albumin

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75
Q

Bile acids:

A

Are removed from circulating blood by the liver
Are usually found in low levels in the bloodstream
Will be increased before evidence of a rise in bilirubin

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76
Q

The intracellular electrolytes are:

A

Phosphate/phosphorus, magnesium, potassium

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77
Q

This is technically an electrolyte but is usually associated with acid-base balance:

A

Bicarbonate

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78
Q

These two electrolytes help to control water balance in the extracellular space:

A

Sodium/chloride

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79
Q

Which test can also be referred to as lateral flow immunoassay?

A

Rapid immunomigration testing

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80
Q

What fat is most responsible for lipemia in samples?

A

Triglycerides

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81
Q

The preferred fixative for most cytology specimen is:

A

Methanol

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82
Q

A refractometer may not provde accurate measurements of total solids for samples that are characterized as:

A

Chylous

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83
Q

The ideal sample collection device for most cytology samples of fistulated lesions is a:

A

Rayon swab

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84
Q

For collection of pleural fluid, patients may be placed in ___ recumbency

A

Ventral

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85
Q

The preferred sample preparation technique when cells are unusually fragile is:

A

Modified compression smear

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86
Q

The preferred sample preparation technique when samples are highly viscous is:

A

Starfish smear

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87
Q

Cytology samples should be placed in a fixative for a minimum of:

A

2 minutes

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88
Q

The stain that is best for staining of mast cell granules is:

A

New methylene blue

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89
Q

A fragmented neutrophil nucleus is described as:

A

Karyorrhexis

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90
Q

A round cell that contains a fringe border and fine nuclear chromatin is most likely a:

A

Mesothelial cell

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91
Q

A sample characterized by the presence of more than 70% mononuclear cells with few neutrophils is described as:

A

Granulomatous

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92
Q

The presence of increased numbers of homogeneous populations of the same cell type with no evidence of malignant characteristics within cells is described as:

A

Hyperplasia

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93
Q

Noninflammatory, nonneoplastic lesions include:

A

Hematoma

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94
Q

A common fungal organsim seen in ear cytology samples is:

A

Malassezia

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95
Q

A common organism seen i oral cytology samples and considered normal flora s:

A

Simonsiella

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96
Q

A lymph node sample containing 90% small lymphocytes, a few plasma cells, medium and large lymphocytes, and macrophages is characterized as:

A

Normal

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97
Q

the preferred stain for core bone marrow samples is:

A

Hematoxylin and eosin

98
Q

A chylous effusion generally contains in creased numbers of

A

Mature lymphocytes

99
Q

A sample containing a mixture of parabasal, intermediate, and superficial cells with RBCs and neutrophils likely indicates

A

Proestrus

100
Q

The nonaspiration biopsy technique is preferred for samples that are

A

Vascular

101
Q

Media plates are incubated with agar upside down to

A

Prevent condensation from dripping onto cultures

102
Q

Veterinary practices may use outside microbiology laboratories because

A

They need many cultures
They do not have staff trained to perform in-house clinical microbiological tests
They are looking for difficult-to-grow microorganisms

103
Q

A selective agar is one that

A

Inhibits the growth of certain bacteria

104
Q

Sterile areas of the body are those that

A

Normally contain no bacteria or fungi

105
Q

A specimen for urine culture can be obtained by

A

Cystocentesis

Sterile catheterization

106
Q

Blood cultures should be

A

Placed into broth first, then incubated

107
Q

Fecal cultures

A

Require special media

108
Q

Fungal culture

A

Are incubated in the dark at room temp

Are held for 1 month to confirm negative results

109
Q

When shipping samples for culture, it is:

A

Best to refrigerate samples to help them stay viable

110
Q

The catalase test isused on gram-positive coccal colonies to

A

Determine whether the colony is a Staphylococcus spp. or a Streptococcus spp.

111
Q

The gram stain is

A

Used to differentiate gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

112
Q

Gram-positive colonies will

A

Grow on TSA and CNA plates

113
Q

Beta-hemolytic Streptococci will shoe this on a TSA plate

A

Complete hemolysis; agar surrounding he colony is clear

114
Q

Gram-negative cocci:

A

Are not often encountered in the veterinary laboratory

Include Neisseria and Moraxella spp.

115
Q

On a MAC plate, lactose-fermenting bacteria will appear

A

Pink or purple

116
Q

Bordetella and Pasteurella spp. have there characteristics

A

They are gram-negative coccobacilli
They usually only grow on the TSA plate
They can be identified by the API system

117
Q

Dermatophyte fungi

A

Cause ringworm in humans and animals

118
Q

Candida infections commonly occur when

A

A primary bacterial infection is already present

119
Q

Examples of places where fungi can normally be found include

A

Ears, throat, and the environment

120
Q

Aspergillus spp. are fungi that

A

Are opportunistic pathogens that can also cause disease through feed, such as hay

121
Q

What happens to frequency as the wavelength of x-ray increases?

A

It decreases

122
Q

Which best describes ionizing electromagnetic radiation?

A

It is characterized by the energy contained in a photon

123
Q

What are not properties of x-rays?

A

They form a homogenous beam that travels in wavy lines

124
Q

In the diagnostic range, most x-rays are

A

Both bremsstrahlung and braking radiation

125
Q

What controls the contrast on the radigraph?

A

kV

126
Q

Exposure factors for a thorax are 10 mAs and 60 kV. The film density is too light, and the tech wants to double the density. What technique should be used for the second radiograph?

A

200 mA, 0.10 second, 60 kV

127
Q

To minimize magnification and penumbra, a tech should___ the source image distance and ___ the source object distance:

A

Increase; decrease

128
Q

The heel effect is going to be less noticeable with:

A

Smaller film and longer SID

129
Q

A radiograph of a dog’s pelvis measures 19 cm in diameter. The tech manually processed the film for the required time and temp, but the radiograph is too dark. What is the most likely reason for this?

A

Fast-speed screens were accidentally used instead of medium speed screens

130
Q

If a safelight illumination test in the darkroom involves processing the film, house should the film look if the safelight is functioning properly?

A

Evenly light-colored silver-gray

131
Q

How can a tech ensure that fresh chemistry is moved onto the film?

A

Agitation

132
Q

Which best describes rare earth phorphors used today in intensifying screens?

A

Emit primarily in the yellow or green part of the spectrum

133
Q

Which is the best view of the canine elbow?

A

Craniocaudal

134
Q

Identify the correct peripheral borders for an elbow

A

One third of the radius or ulna and one third of the humerus

135
Q

What are the main tenets of tech safety when taking radiographs?

A

Minimum time, maximum distance, and maximum shielding

136
Q

Which technique will not help to obtain higher contrast on a film?

A

Set the collimator aperture so that the field is smaller

137
Q

What is the main purpose of the developer?

A

Reduce exposed silver halide crystals to black metallic silver

138
Q

What is a key difference between computed radiography and conventional radiography?

A

Only computed radiography converts photons to metastable electrons

139
Q

A vet tech must perform a complete upper gastrointestinal study of a cat. the tech presents a series of rediographs taken at 0, 30, and 60 mintues and a final set at 90 minutes. This study is

A

Incomplete

140
Q

In digital radiography, which factor or element takes into account the frequency of appearance of a given object characteristic?

A

Histogram

141
Q

What best describes the appearance of a hyperechoic lesion on ultrasound?

A

Brighter than the surrounding tissue

142
Q

What is the advantage of using a 7.5 MHz transducer over a 5-MHz transducer?

A

Detail is increased

143
Q

A doppler shift is best explained as a change in ____as a result of motion

A

Frequency

144
Q

What occurs when the ultrasound beam interacts with a large curvilinear interface such as the diaphragm and liver border?

A

Mirror image

145
Q

A technician is preparing to do an ultrasound examination of a dog’s abdomen, creating images in the transverse place. What radiographic image will this plane represent?

A

Ventrodorsal

146
Q

What description most accurately fits the appearance of normal adrenal glands on ultrasound?

A

Hypoechoic

147
Q

If a technician is preparing to take a sagittal ultrasound image, which way should the probe be oriented?

A

Cranial to caudal

148
Q

Which organ is the most difficult to image and correlate sonographic appearance with the presence or absence of disease?

A

Pancreas

149
Q

What contributes to obtaining a clear sonographic image of the liver in a deep-chested dog?

A

Probe angled cranially at xiphoid process

150
Q

Identify the correct order of the five wall layers in the small intestine

A

Mucosal surface, mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

151
Q

In which suspected condition is CT preferred to MRI?

A

Vertebral fracture

152
Q

Identify the most accurate description of a solid lesion on ultrasound

A

Contains many echos, which may be spread

153
Q

What is the purpose of a TGC slider?

A

Controls the brightness in different depths of an organ

154
Q

What artifact occurs when there is minimal attenuation of the beam as it passes through a fluid filled structure?

A

Through-transmission artifact

155
Q

In abdominal ultrasonography, in what two planes are the organs usually scanned?

A

Sagittal and transverse

156
Q

The normal size and shape of an adrenal gland in a cat is:

A

4mm, oval

157
Q

What organ is most associated with acoustic shadow and reverberation artifact?

A

Colon

158
Q

What substance creates the greatest barrier to sound transmisson?

A

Bone

159
Q

What is the best term for a loss of intensity of the ultrasound beam as it travels through tissue?

A

Attenuation

160
Q

Atoms with nuclei that undergo radiation decay are known as:

A

Radionuclides

161
Q

What happens during the primary immune response?

A

Stimulated B cells secrete IgM antibody in the vascular system

162
Q

What is the body’s first line of defense for containing and halting the spread of a pathogen?

A

Phagocytosis of intracellular pathogens

163
Q

What is classified as a lymphokine?

A

Interleukin-2

164
Q

Which immunoglobin is found in body secretions?

A

IgA

165
Q

Which immunoglobin is typically increased in allergic reactions?

A

IgE

166
Q

Passive immunity refers to:

A

Antibodies transferred from another individual

167
Q

What is also known as seroconversion?

A

Active immunity

168
Q

What statement would be false in regard to vaccine administration?

A

Vaccines should be given as soon as possible to pregnant or nursing animals

169
Q

What is an antigenic drift?

A

The ability of a virus to combat an immune response.

Changes in the virus genome causing a new strain to form

170
Q

What is not an adverse reaction to a vaccine?

A

Polyphagia

171
Q

Viruses are not classified according to:

A

Organ affected

172
Q

What is false about “naked” viruses?

A

They are more susceptible to destruction

173
Q

What term most accurately describes the process of double-stranded DNA viral replication?

A

Mitosis

174
Q

What statement is true about viral infections?

A

Viral infections can predispose a patient to secondary opportunistic pathogens

175
Q

Specimens collected for viral testing should be stored at:

A

1 to 4 C

176
Q

Common commercial ELISA tests are not available for which disease?

A

Rabies

177
Q

When using fluorescent antibody (FA) test, how is viral infection best visualized?

A

Conjugation using antibodies in specimens from live animals

178
Q

What is the basic purpose of the direct Coombs’ test?

A

To look for antibodies on the surface of red blood cells

179
Q

What does the radioimmoassay (RIA) test detect?

A

Quantity of hormones or drugs or other antigen in specific species

180
Q

In the latex agglutination (LA) test, why is it important to run positive and negative controls simultaneously?

A

Because of the granular appearance of latex beads in solution

181
Q

List microorganisms from most to least resistant

A

Coccidia, mycobacteria, fungi, vegetative bacteria

182
Q

Disinfection is defined as the:

A

Reduction of microbial populations to levels that are considered safe

183
Q

An agent that stops or inhibits growth of microorganisms but does not necessarily kill them contains the suffix

A

-static

184
Q

What is not an example of a method of microbial control?

A

Replication of DNA

185
Q

What statement is NOT true about the efficacy of microbial control methods?

A

Temperatures have no effect on efficacy

186
Q

The efficacy of boiling as a method of microbial control is increased by adding ___ to the water

A

Sodium carbonate

187
Q

Which physical method of sterilizing has no penetrating ability?

A

Ultraviolet radiation

188
Q

What physical method of microbial control does not provide complete sterilaztion?

A

Cavitation

189
Q

Which chemical agent are virucidal to both hydrophilic and lipophilic viruses, as well as sporicidal?

A

Aldehydes

190
Q

To which class of disinfectant does chlorhexidine gluconate ( e.g. hibitane) belong?

A

Biguanides

191
Q

Which group of chemicals are classified as sterilants?

A

Aldehydes, peracetic acid, ethlyene oxide

192
Q

Which type of sterilization chamber requires periods of ventilation of up to 48 hours?

A

Ethylene oxides

193
Q

Which type of sterilization chamber releases free radicals to destroy organisms?

A

Gas plasma

194
Q

Which items can be reliably sterilized using gas plasma?

A

Electrical devices and some plastics

195
Q

The minimum effective pressure in an autoclave is:

A

15 psi

196
Q

At 250 F (121 C), microorganisms are destroyed in approximately ___ miinutes:

A

9

197
Q

What is NOT an acceptable method of quality control to assess microbial control:

A

Dry glass bead

198
Q

Chemical indicators should be placed:

A

In the interior of every pack

199
Q

What quality control tool measures temperatures using sensors that are placed in the part of a test pack that is most inaccessible to steam penetration?

A

Thermocouples

200
Q

Which test evaluates pre-vacuumed autoclaves for complete removal of air and uniform steam penetration?

A

Bowie-Dick test

201
Q

What occurs when a behavior that has been previously reinforced is no longer reinforced?

A

Extinction

202
Q

Negative reinforcement involves ___ when a particular behavior occurs.

A

Subtracting something unpleasant

203
Q

At what age do dogs begin to develop substrate preferences for elimination?

A

8.5 weeks

204
Q

What best describes a dog’s vision?

A

Poor binocular field of view

205
Q

The leading behavior problem of dogs is:

A

Aggression

206
Q

Canines may demonstrate excessive vocalization because of:

A

Play, Separation anxiety, Defending territory

207
Q

If your cat is scratching destructively because of territorial marking behavior, one of the best things to do is:

A

Keep other cats out of yard

208
Q

In an attempt to control destructive scratching behavior in a cat, you should:

A

Place scratching posts close to where the cat sleeps

209
Q

What is true about cats and olfactory communication?

A

Skin glands on the head and face are used as scent markers

210
Q

A cat that is in its carrier and is terrified to come out would not demonstrate what body language?

A

Tail carried upright

211
Q

What is the best example of a situation in which a trainer should use shaping?

A

The animal performs a behavior in part, but steps in the sequence are missing

212
Q

What is a conflict signal from a dog?

A

Gaze is averted

213
Q

If a cat is chirring, what is it doing?

A

Calling kittens or possibly expressing friendship

214
Q

A reason to never use punishment when training any animal is:

A

Increased aggression or fear, Increase in undesired behaviors, Inhibition of learning

215
Q

A cat who hides once he sees the carrier has learned that the carrier predicts vet visits through:

A

Classical conditioning

216
Q

When putting together a behavioral treatment plan, ____ should be addressed first.

A

Medical problems

217
Q

When teaching a cat to use appropriate scratching areas what is the least intrusive method?

A

Supply lots of different posts in common areas and block cat from areas of the house where it previously did damage

218
Q

An important goal when performing prepurchase counseling is:

A

To set realistic expectations and avoid mismatches

219
Q

A female cat makes a closed-mouth call. What is likely to be the message?

A

She is soliciting mating

220
Q

What is NOT a reason for house soiling in dogs?

A

Dominance or anger

221
Q

What behavior is normal behavior for cats?

A

Investigating a new room

222
Q

What is a sign of warning from an angry cat?

A

Lowering the ears, hissing, batting

223
Q

As a restraint tool, a towel is used to:

A

Wrap up an angry cat

224
Q

Always muzzle an injured, conscious dog except if it has a:

A

Head injury

225
Q

Horses show many emotions through body language. Which ear movement can mean concentration or anger?

A

Pinned back

226
Q

Serious injury is most likely to occur from a kick if you are within this range while standing behind a horse

A

6 to 8 feet

227
Q

In a horse, a chain twitch is best applied to the:

A

Upper muzzle

228
Q

A nose lead or tong in cattle is applied to the:

A

Nasal septum

229
Q

“Jacking” the tail is:

A

Lifting it straight up

230
Q

To move a newborn calf from one spot to another:

A

Place your arms around the neck and rump, and guide it

231
Q

What knot is used to tie animals to inanimate objects?

A

Halter tie

232
Q

What livestock animal is allelomimetic or mimic each other when being moved or treated?

A

Sheep

233
Q

What mother and offspring pair needs to be in line of site to keep the mother from injuring herself or others?

A

Mare and foal

234
Q

What animal needs to be worked on at the coolest part of the day for fear of hyperthermia?

A

Sheep

235
Q

Why does a hog snare work so well on pigs?

A

They have a contrary personality and so will lean away from the snare

236
Q

The base position for a cephalic venipuncture on a dog is:

A

Sternal

237
Q

What is the maximum amount of time that a roll gauze or rope muzzle can be left on a dog or cat?

A

20 minutes

238
Q

What animal is usually examined, vaccinated or bled from a chute?

A

Cattle

239
Q

For cephalic venipuncture in a cat, the most commonly used position for restraint starts with:

A

Sternal recumbency

240
Q

What is the best way to approach a cow?

A

Use slow deliberate actions

A&P Term 2 (10 decks)

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