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DVM2 > VPH > Flashcards

VPH Flashcards

1
Q

What is a zoonotic disease?

A

Diseases of humans in which the infectious agent is acquired from animals and for which animals are the reservoir of infection

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2
Q

What is an emerging infectious disease?

A

One that has appeared in a population for the first time or which may have existed previously but is rapidly increasing in incidence or geographic range (75% are zoonotic)

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3
Q

What are some reasons for emergence (and spread) or EADs?

A
  1. Ecological changes or disruption (eg. Climate change, vectors)
    - BTV
  2. Introduction of animals/people to new areas
    - Hendra, SARS
  3. Increasing global movement(both people and animals)
    - Swine flu
  4. Cultural changes and changes to agricultural practices
  5. Enhanced disease surveillance and detection (eg. High throughput DNA sequencing technologies)
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4
Q

What are some general impacts of emerging infectious diseases?

A
  1. Animal health and welfare
  2. Human health
  3. Economic impacts
  4. Social impacts
  5. Trade restrictions
  6. Environmental
  7. Political
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5
Q

What are some important features of modern abattoirs?

A
  1. Stunning prior to slaughter
  2. Abattoir design to minimise stress
  3. Protocols/ procedures to maximise animal welfare at all stages (transport, lairage, stunning, slaughter)
  4. Design, protocols/procedures to maintain food safety
  5. Design, protocols/procedures to maintain worker safety
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6
Q

What is the purpose of stunning an animal before slaughter?

A

To render animal unconscious and insensible to pain prior to slaughter

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7
Q

What is sticking?

A

Blood vessels carrying oxygenated blood to the brain are severed during slaughter

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8
Q

What is the difference between reversible and irreversible stunning?

A

Reversible- animal can recover sensibility. Therefore brain function needs to be stopped by another method (sticking). Period of insensibility needs to continue until animal is dead

Irreversible- animal will die if not slaughtered but sticking is still done

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9
Q

Describe head only stunning. Include how long it lasts, what animals it is used in etc.

A

Electrodes either side of head. Electrical waves induce an epileptiform seizure. Period of insensibility is about 45 seconds

Used in small livestock (sheep, goats, pigs, calves) and poultry

Acceptable for halal

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10
Q

What are the phases and signs of an effective stun?

A

Tonic phase: 10-20 secs. Animal collapses and becomes rigid. No rhythmic breathing, head is raised, forelegs extended and hind limbs flexed into the body.

Clonic phase: 10-15 secs. Gradual muscle relaxation, paddling/ involuntary kicking. Downward eyeball movement, urination/ defecation.

Recovery: resumption of normal rhythmic breathing, response to painful stimuli, visual awareness, attempts to stand.

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11
Q

Describe non penetrative captive bolt stunning?

A

Mushroom head captive bolt 4apidly accelerates and decelerates the brain. Causes massive stimulation and firing of neurones leading to insensibility.

May cause subdural haemorrhage

Needs sticking after

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12
Q

What are some signs of an effective stun using captive bolt?

A
  1. Animal drops and stays down
  2. Uncoordinated hindleg kicking
  3. No corneal reflex
  4. Cessation of rhythmic breathing
  5. No vocalisation
  6. No rotation of eyeball
  7. No coordinated attempts to rise
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13
Q

In which species in CO2 stunning most commonly used? Why?

A

Pigs! Involves 80-90% CO2. Pigs lose consciousness within 30 secs. It’s used because it lets pigs stay in groups

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14
Q

What is a controlled atmosphere chamber?

A

Stunning chamber used for poultry. CO2, argon and nitrogen

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15
Q

What is head to back electrical stunning? Is it reversible? What animals is it used in?

A

Causes epileptiform seizure and fibrillation of the heart. Loss of heart function, blood stasis, deceased O2 supply to brain.

Used in small livestock.

IRREVERSIBLE!

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16
Q

What is penetrative captive bolt stunning?

A

Bolt aimed towards the brain stem. Results in percussive wave within brain tissue. Used in cattle, goats and sheep.

IRREVERSIBLE!

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17
Q

What is the most effective method of bleeding?

A

Chest stick - rapid blood loss, shortest time to loss of function. (At throat in sheep and goats

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18
Q

What are some requirements of a lairage? (There’s quite a lot, just know a few)

A 
Non slip floors
Curved races
High walls
Minimal distractions
Move animals in small groups
Free access to water
Room to lie down 
Antemortem vet inspection
Access to feed if held a long time
Easy to clean
Protected from extreme weather
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19
Q

What are the two types of restraint systems used in abattoirs?

A
  1. Conveyer restrainers (use with captive bolt or electrical stunning. In large plants)
  2. Stun boxes/crush restrainers (cattle. For use with captive bolt stunning)
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20
Q

What four factors do you need to consider when thinking about what meat-eating consumers want?

A

Verification, safety, quality and healthiness

Also, safe process for workers and animal welfare

21
Q

How does bruising or injury affect meat quality?

A

Higher pH causes quicker decomposition. Bloody meat pro,Oates growth of contaminating bacteria such as clostridium chauvei

22
Q

What may cause blood splash in meat?

A

Pre-slaughter stress or excitement
Some electrical stunning conditions
Long stun to stick intervals
Higher temperatures

23
Q

What is dark cutting beef? How is it avoided?

A

Meat that is drank in colour, dry and sticky. Higher ph and reduced shelf life. Arises from longer term stress pre-slaughter. Related to low glycogen levels in the muscle before slaughter*

Avoid by:providing adequate on-farm nutrition. Reduce physical and psychological stress (think of the nutrition bucket!)

*After death, glycogen is broken down. Produces lactic acid which lowers the pH. Low glycogen stores mean higher end pH

24
Q

What is the ideal pH range for meat? What is the pH of DCB?

A 
Ideal= 5.4-5.7
DCB= 6.0-7.0
25
Q

What causes pale, soft exudative pork? How can it be avoided?

A

Severe, acute stress just before slaughter. Leads to accelerated rate of glycolysis just after slaughter ➡️ too much lactic acid ➡️ very low pH

Avoiding it: keep pigs cool in hot weather, chill meat quickly, genetic selection, reduce stress at abattoir, CO2 stunning

26
Q

When does antemortem inspection occur? What does it involve?

A

12 hours prior to slaughter. Involves:

  1. Review documentation and ID stock
  2. Inspection of the stock
  3. Make disposition (fit or unfit for slaughter)
27
Q

What are some common chronic sequelae resulting from food-borne illness? What are there associated pathogens?

A

▪️Guillain-Barre syndrome (campylobacter, salmonella, other)
▪️Haemolytic uraemia syndrome (E.coli STEC)
▪️Irritable bowel syndrome (campylobacter, salmonella)
▪️Reactive arthritis (campylobacter, salmonella, other)

28
Q

Food-borne disease may arise from which main sources?

A
  1. Animals (zoonoses) that produced the food
  2. Contamination during processing
  3. Toxins or chemicals with animal or from environment
29
Q

What are the common causes of gastrointestinal food-borne disease in Australia? (5 bacteria, 5 viruses, 2 Protozoa)
Which of these cause severe* disease?

A
  1. Pathogenic E.coli
  2. Campylobacter*
  3. Salmonella*
  4. Clostridium perfringens
  5. Bacillus cereus
  6. Norovirus*
  7. Sapovirus
  8. Adenovirus
  9. Astrovirus
  10. Rotavirus*
  11. Giardia lamblia*
  12. Cryptosporidium spp.*
30
Q

What are some common causes of NON-gastrointestinal food-borne disease in Australia?

A
  1. Toxoplasma gondii*
  2. Scrombotoxin
  3. Ciguatera toxin*
  4. Listeria monocytogenes*
  5. Hepatitis A virus*
31
Q

What results in more deaths annually, campylobacter or salmonella?

A

Salmonella. Campylobacter does cause more cases of disease though.

32
Q

High risk foods for listeria include…?

A

Soft cheese, pate, cold meats, cooked diced chicken

33
Q

What order of events takes place with an outbreak of food borne disease?

A
  1. Detection and notification
  2. Investigation
  3. Investigation of farms implicated in outbreak
34
Q

Which group A diseases reuire immediate notification to the department of health?

A
  1. Typhoid and paratyphoid
  2. Botulism
  3. Cholera
  4. Haemolytic uraemia syndrome
  5. 2 or more cases of food/waterborne illnesses
35
Q

Group B diseases require notification within how many days? What are some examples?

A

5 days

  1. Listeriosis
  2. Salmonellosis
  3. Shigellosis
  4. VTEC/STEC
  5. Campylobacteriosis
  6. Cryptosporidiosis
  7. Hepatitis A and E
36
Q

What sort of study would you normally conduct to investigate a point source epidemic? How about cluster outbreak?

A 
Cohort study (RR)
Case study (OR)
37
Q

What components comprise an outbreak investigation?

A

Epidemiological, environmental, laboratory investigations.

Trace back investigation, on-farm investigations

38
Q

What are some common problems with outbreak investigations?

A
  1. Accuracy of lab typing methods
  2. Timeliness
  3. Sensitivity of detection methods
  4. Confounding
  5. Investigator experience
  6. Type of outbreak
  7. Setting of outbreak
  8. Traceability
39
Q

What are some reasons as to why developing countries are more vulnerable to food borne disease?

A 
Unsafe water
Inappropriate/ unsafe use of agriculture chemicals
Poor food processing/storage
Poor regulatory standards
Poorly developed healthcare systems 
Lots of chronically sick people
40
Q

What are some common causes of food-borne disease globally?

A

Taenia solium
Salmonella typhi
Shigella
Vibrio cholerae

41
Q

What are some diseases targeted by meat inspection procedures in Australia?

A 
Bovine TB
Actinobacillus lignieresii
Actinomyces bovis
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Cysticercus bovis
Liver fluke
Onchocerciasis
Taenia ovis
42
Q

What is HACCP?

A

Hazard analysis critical control point
= science based system of identifying, evaluating and controlling hazards which are significant for food safety. PREVENTATIVE APPROACH

43
Q

What are the seven principles of HACCP?

A
  1. Hazard analysis
  2. Identify critical control points
  3. Establish critical limits
  4. Monitor the critical control points
  5. Establish corrective action
  6. Record keeping
  7. Verification
44
Q

What are some perceived benefits and barriers to the Hendra vaccine?

A

Benefits: protect horse/human health, required for participation, required for vets to treat

Barriers: cost, vaccination schedule, vet only, safety concerns

45
Q

What are some side effects of the Hendra vaccine?

A 
Swelling and soreness at site
Fever
Lethargy
Loss of appetite
Muscle stiffness
Skin rashes
Colic
46
Q

What factors have contributed to a rise in chicken and pork consumption?

A

Higher feed conversion efficiency
Faster growth
Concerns with red meat consumption.

47
Q

What is white spot disease?

A

Disease affecting prawns

48
Q

According to ausvetplan, an emerging animal disease is…?

A

a. Exotic to Australia
b. A variant of an endemic disease
c. A serious infectious disease of unknown or uncertain cause
d. A severe outbreak of a known endemic disease
e. Of national significance with social or trade implications

49
Q

What are the key steps to an emerging animal disease outbreak response?

A
  1. Defining problem
  2. Quarantine and movement controls
  3. Surveillance and tracing
  4. Disease elimination
  5. Proof of freedom

DVM2 (13 decks)

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