Micro Pracs Flashcards

1
Q

Gram positive bacteria stain what colour? Why?

A

Purple. They have thick peptidoglycans within their cell walls which hold the crystal violet stain during the decolourization step.

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2
Q

What is the order of stains in gram staining?

A

Crystal violet
Gram’s iodine
Acetone
Dilute carbol fuschin

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3
Q

What is sheep blood agar? What can it detect?

What would you expect for the following three organisms on a sheep blood agar plate:

  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Stretococcus agalactiae
  • Staphylococcus aereus
A

It’s a non selective medium that lows detection of purity, bacterial colony morphology and haemolysis properties.

  • P. aeruginosa: Blue/ green colour with sweet odour
  • S. agalactiae: haemolysis (its a beta-haemolytic agent)
  • S. aereus: produce smaller colonies in comparison to P. aeruginosa
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4
Q

How does nutrient agar differ to sheep blood agar?

A

It is also a non-selective medium, however it is not as nutritious. It doesn’t support the growth of streptococcus agalactiae. The diffusable pigment of P. aeruginosa however is easier to see

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5
Q

In what situations is MacConkey’s agar useful?
What sort of medium is it?
What is the selective ingredient in it?
How are organisms differentiated on it?

A

Useful for the isolation and enumeration of coliforms (gram -ve organisms)
It is a selective and differential medium
Bile salts
Organisms are differentiated by their effect on neutral red, a pH indicator which acts as an indicator for lactose fermentation (ie. pink=able to ferment lactose, red=unable to ferment lactose)

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6
Q

What is XLD agar used for? How are results interpreted?

A

The isolation and presumptive identification of salmonella sp.
On XLD, salmonella colonies are black indicating hydrogen sullied production.

(Black colour is a precipitate of iron sulphide formed when H2S and soluble iron salts in the medium react.

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7
Q

What is mannitol salt agar? What would we expect to see on it? How are organisms on this medium differentiated? Give an example.

A

It’s a selective-differential medium. It has a high salt concentration and therefore selects organisms able to tolerate that.
Differentiation is based on their ability to utilise mannitol and this is detected by the inclusion of a pH indicator.

Staph. aureus colonies appear opaque and are surrounded by a yellow halo.

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8
Q

What is CHROMagar MRSA II?

A

Medium used for screening of methicillin resistant staph. aureus. It’s based on mannitol salt agar with a chromogenic mix. Also includes antibiotics.

MRSA colonies are rose to mauve in colour.

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9
Q
What is an example of a zoophilic dermatophyte? 
Explain your example in terms of:
-reservoir
-macroculture
-microscopy
-clinical significance
A

Microsporum canis

  • reservoir: cats, dogs, horses, monkeys
  • macroculture: colonies are flat, white-cream, cottony surface
  • microscopy: spindle shaped macroconidia. Tear shaped microconidia
  • clinical significance: frequent cause of ringworm in humans
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10
Q

What colour would you expect to see with growth of aspergillosis fumigatus on macroculture?

A

Grey-green (cause of aspergillosis)

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11
Q

What is an example of a disease in which rapid slide agglutination tests have been employed?

A

Pleuropneumonia of cattle

And pullorum disease of chickens

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12
Q

What is the commonest immunodeficiency state encountered in vet med?

A

Failure of maternal Ig transfer

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13
Q

What is the basic concept underlying a zinc sulphate turbidity test?

A

Ig may be selectively precipitated from serum by ZnSO4 or (NH4)2SO4

Thus we can see the amount of Ig transferred

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14
Q

What is the advantage of a zinc sulphate turbidity test?

A

It is a quick, cheap on farm test that enables corrective measures to be taken immediately when there is failure of Ig transfer.

(If less than 24hrs old, foal will need additional colostrum, if older, foal will need parenteral administration of plasma from the dam)

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15
Q

What are some potential causes of failure of passive Ab transfer?

A

Offspring not feeding properly
Poor quality colostrum
Failure to lactate/ premature lactation
Offspring not absorbing colostrum

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16
Q

What are the 4-5 essential components of a PCR reaction?

A
  1. Template (target) DNA
  2. Oligonucleotide primers
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. dNTPs, salts and buffers
  5. Reverse transcriptase (if you have RNA)
17
Q

What are the two primary methods for detecting reaction products of a PCR reaction?

A
  1. Agarose gel electrophoresis

2. Fluorescent detection of the amplified product in real time

18
Q

What are the four controls included in a serum-virus neutralisation assay?

A
  1. Positive serum control (serum with Ab)
  2. Negative serum control (serum with no Ab)
  3. Uninoculated cell culture control (no serum or virus. To ensure cells are viable and healthy)
  4. Virus control (to ensure cells can be infected by the virus)
19
Q

What do we mean by viral titration?

A

When serial dilutions of a virus suspension are inoculated into an appropriate indicator host and the highest dilution to show activity is determined

20
Q

What are some examples of physical and biological quantitative assays of viruses?

A

Physical:

  • Ag capture ELISA
  • Electron microscopy
  • Haemagglutination
  • qPCR

Biological:

  • Plaque assays
  • End point titration
21
Q

The process of extracting nucleic acid from clinical material relies on 4 main steps. What are these?

A
  1. Lysis (to release nucleic acid)
  2. Binding of nucleic acid to a solid phase
  3. Washing to remove unwanted material
  4. Elution to take nucleic acid into buffer to be used as template in PCR reaction