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BIO EOC > Volume 5 > Flashcards

Volume 5 Flashcards

OEH Risk Assessment

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1
Q

What type of aquifer would cause water to be pushed in a well above the land surface?

A

Artesian

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2
Q

Groundwater is stored in

A

unsaturated and saturated zones.

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3
Q

Which constituent is not commonly found in groundwater?

A

Nitrate.

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4
Q

What dissolved gas needs to be at an adequate level to prevent drinking water from tasting flat?

A

Oxygen.

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5
Q

Which Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) drinking water standard is a guideline that applies to the cosmetic effects of drinking water?

A

Secondary.

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6
Q

What law passed by congress established a federal program to monitor and increase the safety of all publically and commercially supplied drinking water?

A

Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA).

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7
Q

Which installation must comply with the Department of Defense (DOD) Final Governing Standards (FGS) or Environmental Governing Standards (EGS)?

A

Royal Air Force (RAF) Feltwell, United Kingdom.

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8
Q

What program is designed to ensure the protection of groundwater supplied by public water systems by protecting the area around the well head from all types of contamination?

A

Well Head Protection Program (WHPP).

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9
Q

What is the minimum average number of individuals served daily and the number of days per year required for a system to be classified as a public water system?

A

25 individuals for 60 or more days per year.

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10
Q

Which is the common type of water treatment used at Air Force (AF) installations?

A

Disinfection.

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11
Q

Which disinfection method provides a disinfectant residual?

A

Free chlorine.

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12
Q

After a water main is installed and at the end of a 24-hr holding period filled with chlorinated potable water, the free chlorine residual must not be less than

A

25 mg/L.

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13
Q

During a water main break repair, which water pressure will not require the water main to be disinfected and tested for coliform before being place back into service?

A

25 psi.

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14
Q

What is the most practical means of removing contamination introduced during water main repairs?

A

Flushing.

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15
Q

What method of chlorination may be used if the pipes and components are kept clean and dry during the construction?

A

Tablet.

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16
Q

What describes the backward flow of water in the distribution system due to decreased pressure (i.e., line break) in the potable distribution system?

A

Backsiphonage.

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17
Q

How often is the Water System Backflow Prevention/Cross-Connection Survey done on all facilities?

A

Every five years.

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18
Q

What hazard classification for a cross-connection is also defined as contamination?

A

High.

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19
Q

Which is not a critical element examined and evaluated during a sanitary survey?

A

Security.

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20
Q

What results does a sanitary survey provide the installation?

A

Current and potential threats to water quality and system reliability.

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21
Q

What sanitary survey element are you addressing when you identify a discrepancy that tank vents and overflows are not screened or protected?

A

Finished water storage.

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22
Q

Which military field water standard is designed to prevent acute illness?

A

Short-term potability (STP) standards.

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23
Q

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–246, Food and Water Protection Program, states Air Force (AF) water supplies are

A

credible targets.

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24
Q

Water vulnerability assessments (WVA) should be done or updated at deployed locations

A

during each rotation.

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25
Q

Which interview questionnaire is designed to be the initial checklist used when conducting the joint interview of the Air Force (AF) system owner/operator and stakeholders?

A

Base Potable Water System Overview.

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26
Q

How long does the base have to deliver a public notice of a Tier I violation?

A

24 hours.

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27
Q

How long does a water supplier have to provide notice of a Tier 2 violation to its customers?

A

30 days

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28
Q

Which should not be included in the consumer confidence report?

A

The formulas used to reach the assessment results on local contamination.

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29
Q

How many days before opening is the pre-season inspection conducted at a swimming pool?

A

30

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30
Q

Which is one of the organizations that perform surveys of natural bathing areas?

A

Services (SVS).

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31
Q

The swimming pool manager or lifeguard measures potential for hydrogen (pH) at least once every

A

2 hours

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32
Q

The pressure of moving air is always measured in the direction of airflow. What kind of pressure is this?

A

Always positive.

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33
Q

Less resistance and better contaminant capture in a ventilation system happens by using

A

flange or tapered hood.

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34
Q

Where should you expect the static pressure (SP) to become more negative in a ventilation system?

A

At the inlet to the fan.

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35
Q

Which type of velocity refers to the speed of air at a point in front of a hood that is needed to pull contaminants into the hood?

A

Capture.

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36
Q

What are two parameters at a given point in ventilation systems that are needed to calculate the airflow volume (Q)?

A

Area and velocity.

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37
Q

The cubic feet per minute (cfm) through a cross-sectional area of a ventilation booth is the same as

A

velocity.

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38
Q

In dilution ventilation, a slight negative pressure is desirable when

A

an adjoining room is normally occupied.

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39
Q

What circumstance would result in a high K factor?

A

Higher contaminant toxicities.

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40
Q

Other than good contaminant control, what is the biggest advantage of local exhaust over dilution ventilation?

A

Lower operating costs.

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41
Q

The purpose of using splitter vanes, multiple takeoffs, or baffles inside of a local exhaust hood is to provide

A

uniform air distribution across the hood face.

42
Q

What determines the capture velocity that must be used for a properly designed canopy hood?

A

Number of open sides.

43
Q

In a routine survey, ventilation system data collected during the routine assessment should be compared to

A

data collected during the baseline survey.

44
Q

What instrument is used to take face velocity measurements and actually converts velocity pressure (VP) to velocity readings?

A

Swinging vane anemometer.

45
Q

What important procedure must you follow to obtain accurate readings with a velometer?

A

Hold the probe parallel to the airflow.

46
Q

What may be indicated by a very strong flow coming in an open door of a room containing a local exhaust system?

A

Inadequate makeup air.

47
Q

What is the purpose of the eight tiny holes on the outside of a pitot tube?

A

Sense static pressure (SP).

48
Q

Velocity pressure (VP) when measured across the duct is

A

weaker along the sides and becomes stronger as you near the center.

49
Q

The range of acceptable values for the airflow volume (Q) on routine tests is within what percentage of the baseline value?

A

10

50
Q

What is the first step you take when conducting a static pressure (SP) check on your routine ventilation test?

A

Find the first measurement point.

51
Q

When conducting an indoor air quality (IAQ) investigation, what would be considered an ideal range for carbon dioxide (CO2) within a building?

A

1000 ppm or less.

52
Q

During your indoor air quality (IAQ) investigation, you document several drip pans with standing water. Which recommendation would be most desirable?

A

Eliminate source of water.

53
Q

Which agency serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the installation respiratory protection (RP) program?

A

Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

54
Q

Who will provide resolution when there are inconsistencies for respiratory protection (RP) between technical orders (TO) and Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standards?

A

Respiratory protection administrator.

55
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that approved respirators are used correctly and are properly maintained?

A

Workplace supervisor.

56
Q

What series of filter cannot be used if aerosolized oil particles are present in the work environment?

A

N

57
Q

What respirator remains dependent upon an air supply that is not carried by the wearer?

A

Air-line.

58
Q

At least how often are respirators used for emergency use only required to be inspected?

A

Monthly.

59
Q

Why is it important to rinse a respirator in clean water after it has been immersed in a disinfecting solution?

A

Because traces of the disinfectant left on the mask can cause skin irritation.

60
Q

Proper respirator selection is not based on which these criteria?

A

Worker’s respirator brand preference.

61
Q

Which respirator selection factors would be considered during the planning of emergency situations in which workers must escape?

A

Location of hazardous area with respect to area with respirable air.

62
Q

What is the highest contaminant concentration for which a respirator adequately protects the wearer?

A

Maximum use concentration (MUC).

63
Q

A fit factor can be calculated for what type of fit-test?

A

Quantitative.

64
Q

What method of fit-testing must be used when specified by an Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) substance-specific standard?

A

Quantitative.

65
Q

What method of fit-testing relies on the sensory response of the individual to the contaminant put into the air?

A

Qualitative.

66
Q

Workers are required to be trained and fit-tested initially and every

A

12 months.

67
Q

Supervisor training should be repeated when there is a

A

permanent change of station (PCS).

68
Q

Personnel who issue respirators are briefed how often and by whom concerning the issue of respirator parts?

A

Annually; by supervisor.

69
Q

To whom does bioenvironmental engineering (BE) report the findings of a respiratory program review?

A

Aeromedical Council and the Combined Occupational Safety and Health Council.

70
Q

Which organization is responsible for the overall management of the Confined Space Program?

A

Ground safety.

71
Q

Before a worker can perform verification testing of a confined space, they must be

A

be trained and certified on the specific testing equipment and qualified to interpret the results.

72
Q

Which atmospheric characteristics classify a confined space as permit-required?

A

Contains a material that has the potential for a hazardous atmosphere to develop.

73
Q

Which gas should be used to ventilate a confined space?

A

Normal air.

74
Q

If workers or other people could inadvertently enter a permit-required confined space, what action must be taken?

A

Post a danger sign at the entrance of the space.

75
Q

Entry permits must be approved by the installation

A

ground safety office, BE, and fire department personnel.

76
Q

Which situation is most likely to require immediate communication?

A

You have identified conditions that are immediately hazardous to life or health.

77
Q

All of these are goals of risk communication except for

A

frightening workers into personal protective equipment (PPE) donning and doffing compliance.
.
.

Goals of risk communication
- informing and improving decision making.
- raising awareness of potential hazards.
- motivating action.

78
Q

In developing your message and determining how to deliver it, what question should you ask about the audience?

A

All of the above.
.
.
* What is their experience with risk and scientific understanding?
* What questions can you anticipate from them?
* What is their reading level?

79
Q

AFI 90–821, Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program, describes the requirements of which federal regulation?

A

Title 29 CFR 1910.1200.

80
Q

To which of the following items do AFI 90–821, Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program, requirements not apply?

A

All of the above.
.
.
- Hazardous wastes regulated under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).
- Tobacco or tobacco products.
- Biological hazards.

81
Q

Select the best option for items to which hazard communication (HAZCOM) labeling requirements do apply.

A

Any Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) expanded standard.

82
Q

Which individual/office has the primary responsibility of documenting worker hazard communication (HAZCOM) training completion?

A

Work area/shop supervisor.

83
Q

Upon your arrival, the hazard communication (HAZCOM) program manager for the shop provides you with the chemical inventory. Which chemicals should be listed on this inventory?

A

Every chemical used in the shop.

84
Q

Written notification of exposures exceeding the action level or occupational exposure limit (OEL) must be provided to the worker by bioenvironmental engineering (BE) within how many days of receiving analytical data?

A

15

85
Q

How do supervisors obtain authorization for first time use of hazardous material (HAZMAT) in their area?

A

Submit Air Force (AF) Form 3952.

86
Q

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–2501, Emergency Management Program, describes four types of incidents that affect Air Force (AF) operations. An enemy missile with a chemical warfare agent warhead would be an example of what type of incident?

A

CBRN attack.

87
Q

The role of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) in incident response is to

A

establish a standardized incident management structure used by responders.

88
Q

What working group focuses primarily on analyzing threats and providing recommendations to the commander?

A

Installation threat working group (TWG).

89
Q

During response operations, if you are donning protective equipment to enter a site to perform sampling, to what section of the response structure are you assigned?

A

Operations.

90
Q

What did Congress enact in response to concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storing and handling of toxic chemicals?

A

Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA).

91
Q

Which is a key provision of the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA)?

A

All of the above are key provisions of EPCRA.

  • Emergency planning.
  • Toxic release inventory.
  • Emergency release notification.
92
Q

Which agency acts as the single federal point of contact for all pollution incident reporting?

A

National Response Center (NRC).

93
Q

All these characteristics make toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and toxic industrial materials (TIM) attractive improvised weapons except

A

inability to safeguard against.

94
Q

The main purpose of a toxic industrial chemical/toxic industrial materials (TIC/TIM) vulnerability assessment (VA) is it

A

provides an indication of the types of incidents that could occur at your installation.

95
Q

If a toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and toxic industrial materials (TIM) vulnerability assessment (VA) final report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific United States (US) military site, it must receive what classification?

A

CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET.

96
Q

When identifying toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and toxic industrial materials (TIM) in the vicinity of an installation, you should collect data on and evaluate facilities within how many miles of the installation?

A

20

97
Q

What are the two primary types of shelters portrayed in the Air Force Emergency Management Program?

A

Deliberately planned and shelter-in-place.

98
Q

Under shelter operations, who spearheads identifying and evaluating installation facilities that can be used as shelters?

A

Base civil engineer (CE).

99
Q

Which of the source materials provides short-term military exposure guidelines (MEG) for HRA in military unique situations?

A

USAPHC Technical Guide 230, Chemical Exposure Guidelines for Deployed Military Personnel.

100
Q

Which of the source materials are useful for assessing hazards and estimating hazard duration during chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) incidents?

A

Chemical Hazard Estimation Method and Risk Assessment Tool (CHEMRAT).

BIO EOC (6 decks)

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