Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIO EOC > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

Introduction to Bioenvironmental Engineering

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Who establishes the mission of the Air Force Medical Service?

A

Air Force Surgeon General.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ensuring medically fit forces, providing expeditionary medics, and improving the health of all we serve to meet our nation’s needs is best described as a part of the Air Force Medical Service’s

A

mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The prevent illness and injury effect can best be described as the

A

health service support in garrison or deployed environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which Air Force Medical Service effects include identifying, assessing and controlling health hazards?

A

Prevent illness and injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Optimizing force health and warfighter performance is best described as a part of the Aerospace & Operational Medicine Enterprise’s

A

mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All aerospace medicine squadron (AMDS) members working together to accomplish the mission best describes

A

the team aerospace concept.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The team aerospace concept is best illustrated by members of

A

Public health and BE working together to prevent and manage occupational injuries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following examples best illustrates the team aerospace concept?

A

Public health (PH) and bioenvironmental engineering (BE) team members working together to investigate a possible waterborne illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Providing health risk assessment capability to enhance a commander’s decision making is part of the bioenvironmental engineering (BE)

A

mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which example best describes the bioenvironmental engineering (BE) primary capability of conducting predictive exposure assessments?

A

Use occupational and environmental health (OEH) data for predicting potential exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which agencies would bioenvironmental engineering interface with to correct a drinking water standard violation?

A

Civil engineering and the Environmental Protection Agency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which agency would you consult for assistance when interpreting an Air Force Medical Support Agency policy?

A

The major command’s (MAJCOM) bioenvironmental engineering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which forum meets once per month to review, discuss, and approve issues such as industrial hygiene recommendations?

A

Occupational and Environmental Health Working Group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If your responsibilities at a deployed location include performing vulnerability assessments, health hazard surveillance, and drinking water sampling, then you are a member of the

A

Preventive and aerospace medicine (PAM) team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If you are deployed following a radiological incident and asked to identify the radiological environment along with providing recommendations for protective actions then, you are a member of the

A

Air Force radiation assessment team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If you are deployed for the purpose of identifying the radiological environment and recommend protective actions to insure the health and safety of personnel and the surrounding community following radiological incidents, then you are a member of which unit type code (UTC)?

A

Air Force radiation assessment team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What change in the physical state occurs when sufficient heat is applied to a liquid?

A

Turns to gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the physical states of matter lacks both volume and shape?

A

Gas only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If matter is uniform in composition and properties then it is considered to be

A

homogeneous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which example best describes a solution?

A

Ethyl alcohol dissolved in water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is equal to the

A

atomic number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The mass number of an atom is equal to the sum of the number of

A

protons and neutrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where are the noble gases located within the periodic table?

A

Far right column.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Due to their high reactivity, what commonly combines with organic compounds to form dangerous chemicals that can be toxic to humans?

A

Halogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Elements form compounds in an attempt to

A

become more stable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A cation has a positive charge because the atom has

A

more protons than electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

It is important to understand the chemical relationships that place compounds into distinct groups so you can more easily determine the

A

hazards of the compounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If 50 grams of sodium chloride dissolves in enough water to make 500 grams of solution, what is the percent by mass?

A

10 percent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A solution with a potential of hydrogen (pH) of 3 is considered

A

acidic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of solution contains large amounts of both a weak acid and its conjugate base so that it resists change in its potential of hydrogen (pH) level?

A

Buffer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the molecular weight of a substance based on one mole?

A

6.022 x 10^23.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gay-Lussac’s law states that at a constant volume the pressure of a fixed mass of a given gas is directly proportional to the temperature (in Kelvin); therefore, as pressure

A

increases, temperature increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The purpose of the plasma membrane within a cell is to

A

separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The part of the cell which houses the functions for cell expansion, growth, and replication carried out is known as the

A

cytoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The types of cells that are most affected by exposure to ionizing radiation are those that

A

reproduce rapidly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which type of tissue is tightly packed together and serves as an interface tissue?

A

Epithelial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which type of tissue is highly cellular and well supplied with blood vessels?

A

Muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which type of tissue is responsible for coordinating and controlling many body activities?

A

Nervous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Considered the innermost layer of the eye, the membrane upon which images are received is known as the

A

retina.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Ultraviolet radiation can create a photochemical reaction in the very outside layer of the eye, killing the cells there. Which best describes a potential effect of overexposure?

A

Sunburned eyeballs.

41
Q

he Eustachian tube is critical to the functioning of the ear because it

A

provides a means of equalizing pressure.

42
Q

The organ of Corti is critical to the functioning of the ear because it

A

serves as a receptor for hearing.

43
Q

Nearly every known variety of germs are prevented from passing through the skin’s surface due to the

A

overlapping arrangement of epidermal cells.

44
Q

When the skin gets cold, heat is conserved when the body

A

constricts capillaries to reduce the amount of blood at the skin’s surface.

45
Q

The main function of bones within the human body is to provide

A

framework that supports and protects the soft organs of the body.

46
Q

The function of the red marrow of the bones is to form

A

red and white blood cells and blood platelets.

47
Q

The most radiation-sensitive cells in the body are in the bone marrow; as a result, when they are exposed to intense irradiation,

A

normal replacement of circulating blood cells is impaired.

48
Q

The muscular system is comprised of specialized cells called muscle fibers with the chief function of

A

contractibility.

49
Q

Smooth muscle

A

contracts slowly and rhythmically.

50
Q

What two major body systems work together to allow the body to regulate and maintain homeostasis?

A

Nervous and endocrine.

51
Q

Within the nervous system, highly specialized nerve cells that function by conducting nerve impulses are known as

A

neurons.

52
Q

What is the main function of the central nervous system?

A

Serves as the major signal receptor and integration site.

53
Q

While central nervous system stimulants excite acetylcholine production, cholinesterase appropriately neutralizes this effect; however, a nerve agent stimulant that inhibits cholinesterase is known as

A

organophosphate.

54
Q

What two major body systems work together in the regulation of body activities?

A

Nervous and endocrine.

55
Q

Which is considered the master gland because of the effect it has on other glands?

A

Pituitary.

56
Q

The alpha cells in the pancreatic islets secrete the hormone glucagon in response to a

A

low concentration of glucose in the blood.

57
Q

If the heart is the organ that keeps the blood moving through the vessels, what is the transport medium?

A

Blood.

58
Q

The primary function of capillaries within the cardiovascular system is to

A

facilitate the exchange of materials between the blood and tissue cells.

59
Q

Because the walls of veins are thinner and less rigid than arteries, veins can

A

hold more blood.

60
Q

When fluid is prevented from returning to the capillaries and accumulates in the tissue spaces, what is the result?

A

Edema.

61
Q

What is the primary function of mature lymphocytes within the lymphatic system?

A

Defense against disease.

62
Q

Which condition best illustrates an exaggerated immune response?

A

Hypersensitivity.

63
Q

What two systems work together to supply oxygen and remove waste products from the body?

A

Circulatory and respiratory systems.

64
Q

What body system is considered the major entry mode for toxic substances?

A

Respiratory.

65
Q

Within the digestive system food is broken down until the molecules are small enough to be absorbed and waste products are

A

eliminated.

66
Q

One of the functions of the urinary system is to

A

maintain normal potential of hydrogen (pH) levels within the blood.

67
Q

If toxic substances such as heavy metals or halogenated hydrocarbons are not filtered out of the body and become concentrated, damage can be caused to the

A

kidneys.

68
Q

What is a possible effect on the reproductive systems of overexposure to ionizing radiation?

A

Genetic mutations.

69
Q

A material that produces a mutation is known as a mutagen; if the mutation occurs in a germ cell, then the effect

A

is passed on to the next generation.

70
Q

What term describes the probability a substance will cause harm under specific conditions during use?

A

Risk.

71
Q

The dose-response relationship illustrates the correlation between the

A

amount of exposure and the resulting effect.

72
Q

The amount of a chemical dose delivered to an organ is critical in defining its

A

toxicity.

73
Q

Inhaling high levels of carbon monoxide in a short period of time would be classified as

A

an acute exposure.

74
Q

If an organism displays more adverse effects to the same dosage of a chemical over time, then the organism has become

A

sensitized.

75
Q

Toxicity testing on a uniform group of rats results in 40 percent deaths when they receive a 10 milligrams of substance per kilogram (mg/kg) oral dose of a substance. The 10 mg/kg is called the

A

LD40.

76
Q

If you are assessing a shop where workers are exposed to potentially hazardous vapors, then which hazard would you be most concerned with identifying?

A

Inhalation.

77
Q

If you are assessing a shop were your main concern is the entry of chemicals through the skin, which hazard are you mainly concerned with identifying?

A

Absorption.

78
Q

Toxic substances that are ingested are generally less harmful than when exposure occurs through other routes due to the

A

alkaline medium of pancreatic juices in the small intestines.

79
Q

How does the action of a primary irritant differ from that of a secondary irritant?

A

Primary irritants exert little or no system toxic action.

80
Q

Which statement best describes the effects of a chemical asphyxiant on the body?

A

Reduction of the body’s capacity to use oxygen.

81
Q

Which example best describes a chemical that would be classified as a central nervous system depressant?

A

Ethyl ether.

82
Q

Which example best describes a material capable of producing lung tissue damage?

A

Asbestos.

83
Q

A chemical with a boiling point near or below 25 degrees Celsius (°C) can be considered a

A

gas.

84
Q

What is the primary difference between mists and fogs?

A

Size.

85
Q

Which example best describes how fumes are formed?

A

Vapor condenses to a tiny solid particle suspended in air.

86
Q

Of the solid aerosols, which group has the greatest variety of materials, sizes, shapes, and toxic effects?

A

Dusts.

87
Q

What effect does carbon dioxide in the atmosphere have on regulating global temperature?

A

Absorbs infrared heat, preventing temperature increase.

88
Q

Water starts it course through the hydrologic cycle when the Sun shines on moist lands and bodies of water, causing

A

evaporation.

89
Q

The Earth’s crust is comprised of natural chemicals called minerals, each of which are composed of different elements; within the rocks of the crust, the most abundant element is

A

oxygen.

90
Q

Which statement best describes an autotrophic organism?

A

Self-nourishing organisms manufacture their own food entirely.

91
Q

What is the controlling factor for growth and production of living organisms?

A

Nutritional value of food.

92
Q

Decomposition provides nutrition for plants and modifies the Earth’s surface by

A

producing nutrient-rich soil.

93
Q

What step in the exposure pathway links the release of a chemical from a source and its contact with a receptor at the exposure point?

A

Environmental fate and transport.

94
Q

When assessing a site, what transport and fate mechanism addresses the normal migration or movement of a contaminant through a medium?

A

Advection/Convection.

95
Q

Which best illustrates an example of the fate and transport mechanism attenuation?

A

Biodegradation.

96
Q

The vapor pressure of a contaminant can essentially determine how

A

rapidly the contaminant will evaporate into the air.

97
Q

What two factors influence the direction and extent of contaminant transport in groundwater?

A

Groundwater hydrology and geologic composition.

98
Q

The access of a chemical to the lungs depends foremost on its physical state; for particulates, penetration depends on

A

Size.

99
Q

Which example best illustrates a short-term effect of air pollution?

A

Irritation to eyes, nose, and throat.

BIO EOC (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions