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Volume 2 Flashcards

Introduction to Occupational and Environmental Health Risk Management

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1
Q

The process of determining the level of risk to health is called

A

health risk assessment (HRA).

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2
Q

What are the four aerospace medicine enterprise (AME) mission areas?

A

Promote and sustain a medically ready force, prevent illness and injury, restore health, and optimize and sustain human performance.

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3
Q

Which publication provides foundational instructions and implementation procedures for the overall Air Force Occupational and Environmental Health (OEH) Program?

A

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health Program.

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4
Q

According to Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48–145, Occupational and Environmental Health Program, a work place is defined as

A

any occupational environment where a potential occupational and environmental health (OEH) exposure may occur.

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5
Q

What is the main objective of the Air Force Occupational and Environmental Health (OEH) Program?

A

Protect health while enhancing combat and operational capabilities.

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6
Q

Which title of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) deals with protecting human health and welfare as related to the work place?

A

Title 29, Labor.

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7
Q

How are the four modules of the Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System (DOEHRS) organized?

A

Industrial Hygiene, Environmental Health, Radiation, and Incident Reporting.

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8
Q

Bioenvironmental engineering (BE) personnel use the Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System (DOEHRS) for the primary purpose of

A

documenting all information relating to occupational and environmental health (OEH) health risk assessments.

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9
Q

Which term refers to the Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System (DOEHRS) data stored on an individual worker’s history of pre-deployment, deployment, and post-deployment exposures?

A

Longitudinal exposure record.

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10
Q

Health risk assessments (HRA) are performed to

A

estimate the level of damage or injury to human health that may result from exposure to a hazard.

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11
Q

Providing personal protective equipment (PPE) is a potential action that might take place during which step of the risk management (RM) process?

A

Implement controls.

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12
Q

Which is not a role of bioenvironmental engineering (BE) in the health risk assessment and health risk management (HRA/HRM) process?

A

Evaluate personnel on compliance of personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety procedures.

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13
Q

What type of occupational and environmental health (OEH) process assessment are you conducting when it is a qualitative workplace assessment to identify and scope the processes employed to execute the unit’s mission?

A

Routine.

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14
Q

The workplace categorization process is a method for

A

scheduling routine occupational and environmental health (OEH) assessments.

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15
Q

Which is a characteristic of a Category 1 High Hazard Area?

A

Hazards poorly defined or poorly controlled.

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16
Q

What is the minimum assessment frequency for a Category 3 Low Hazard Area?

A

Frequency locally determined.

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17
Q

When performing basic hazard characterization, what should be done before visiting the workplace?

A

Review existing occupational and environmental health (OEH) assessment data.

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18
Q

In what step of an occupational illness investigation does bioenvironmental engineering (BE) identify the conditions or circumstances that caused or contributed to the occupational illness?

A

Exposure assessment.

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19
Q

When performing a pregnant worker evaluation, the depth of the investigation depends on the

A

risks and existing information concerning the agents the individual encountered.

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20
Q

What is bioenvironmental engineering’s (BE) role in conducting pregnant worker evaluations?

A

Research, identify, and document hazards.

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21
Q

What is the primary focus of the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS)?

A

Assess unit readiness to execute assigned missions.

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22
Q

Which inspection is a “no notice” inspection performed by Air Force Inspection System (AFIS)?

A

Radioactive material (RAM) permit inspection.

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23
Q

Which command function allows a commander (CC) to determine appropriate training requirements, evaluate wing readiness, and formulate command welfare strategies?

A

Internal inspection.

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24
Q

What is the purpose of a self-assessment checklist (SAC)?

A

Improve compliance with published guidance.

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25
Q

What is the purpose of reviewing local work order requests?

A

To assess long-term impact and hazards that may be generated.

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26
Q

What type of building projects normally require the use of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 1391?

A

Military construction.

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27
Q

When is the best time to review construction plans and introduce engineering controls for a facility?

A

In the design phase.

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28
Q

Which is not a direct function of the occupational and environmental health site assessment (OEHSA)?

A

Identifies personal protective equipment (PPE) required for a particular task.

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29
Q

The mode by which a health threat interacts with a human being is called

A

route of exposure.

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30
Q

The defining element of an occupational and environmental health site assessment (OEHSA) is the

A

conceptual site model (CSM).

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31
Q

What is the primary guidance document for performing an occupational and environmental health site assessment (OEHSA) in a deployed location?

A

Air Force Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (AFTTP) 3–2.82_Interservice Publication (IP),
Occupational and Environmental Health Site Assessment.

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32
Q

Why is it beneficial to conduct pathway screening sampling with direct reading instruments (DRI)?

A

It can rule out the presence of high-potential threats.

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33
Q

Controls are the fundamental method used for protecting workers because they

A

eliminate or minimize the OEH hazard and provide a healthier work environment.

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34
Q

Which is not a form of substitution?

A

Personnel.

form of substitution
Process.
Materials.
Equipment.

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35
Q

Which type of occupational exposure control changes a process to make it less hazardous?

A

Engineering.

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36
Q

Which occupational exposure control should be used in conjunction with other controls?

A

Personal protective equipment (PPE).

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37
Q

It is important to know the composition of the personal protective equipment (PPE) as well as the chemical used during operations, making sure the PPE

A

continues to provide suitable protection.

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38
Q

When a pair of gloves becomes discolored and the fabric becomes softer, this is a result of

A

degradation.

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39
Q

Who is responsible for formulating and executing policy in personal protective equipment (PPE) guidance?

A

Headquarters Air Force Safety Center.

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40
Q

Which is a responsibility of bioenvironmental engineering (BE) regarding personal protective equipment (PPE) controls?

A

Certifying PPE for use in a work center.

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41
Q

Which must be included when bioenvironmental engineering (BE) provides personal protective equipment (PPE) training?

A

The limitations of the PPE.

42
Q

Bioenvironmental engineering’s (BE) role of selecting the correct personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential to

A

effectively control workplace hazards.

43
Q

Why should face shields be used in conjunction with eye goggles?

A

Face shields do not provide adequate protection against liquid splashes.

44
Q

When selecting personal protective equipment (PPE), one of the physical properties to consider is whether

A

the article is comfortable and properly fits the worker.

45
Q

The three steps in determining a health-related risk assessment code (RAC) are to first determine the health hazard severity category (HHSC), then determine the illness probability category (IPC), and then

A

use the health-related RAC matrix to determine the RAC.

46
Q

Which form should be used when assigning health-related risk assessment codes (RAC)?

A

AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard.

47
Q

Which microorganisms are totally dependent on their hosts for replication?

A

Viruses.

48
Q

Anthrax is an example of which biohazardous agent?

A

Bacteria.

49
Q

Which route of exposure is the most commonly encountered cause of occupational disease?

A

Absorption.

50
Q

A period that can last for days, weeks, or months when a biological threat can be transmitted from person to person is known as

A

the communicability period.

51
Q

What process can be used to identify potential biological threats associated with the mission and the workplace?

A

Occupational and environmental health site assessment (OEHSA).

52
Q

Which piece of equipment would be used to take up to six solid, liquid, and/or wipe samples and six biological samples?

A

QuickSilver.

53
Q

Which piece of equipment would be used to detect and identify a maximum of 10 biological warfare agents simultaneously in approximately 25 minutes?

A

Portal Shield.

54
Q

What is the goal of control measures?

A

Break the chain of infection.

55
Q

Which type of controls typically attacks the chain of infection at the means of transmission or susceptible host?

A

Administrative.

56
Q

A solvent is a

A

liquid that a solute can be dissolved in.

57
Q

How do solvent vapors mainly enter the body?

A

Inhalation.

58
Q

If a safety data sheet (SDS) is not provided with the initial shipment of a hazardous material (HAZMAT), who must request it?

A

Workplace supervisor.

59
Q

What document would specifically address actions that must be taken for regulated chemicals considered very hazardous?

A

Substance specific standard.

60
Q

When identifying inhalation hazards of chlorine, you would infer from its vapor density of 2.47 that high concentrations of chlorine would

A

sink to the ground.

61
Q

Which type of control is air sampling?

A

Administrative.

62
Q

Which control removes the hazard from the work area?

A

Elimination.

63
Q

Your sampling determines workers are exposed to hazardous chemicals that exceed allowable exposure limits; therefore, if stated in the relevant standard, what should be established?

A

Regulated area.

64
Q

Who is responsible for providing guidance so the work place will be in compliance with the substance specific standard?

A

Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

65
Q

Upon conducting a noise survey of an Air Force (AF) industrial workplace, identifying concerns, and developing questions about noise characteristics on a new piece of equipment, who would you consult for information on this noise source?

A

United States Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine (USAFSAM).

66
Q

Who is responsible for the proper fitting of hearing protection devices (HPD)?

A

Public health (PH).

67
Q

Which office is responsible for conducting noise surveys and dosimetry?

A

Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

68
Q

The distance from one point of a sound wave to an identical point on the next wave is known as the

A

wavelength.

69
Q

The amount of sound power per unit area is known as sound

A

Intensity.

70
Q

The characteristic of sound that we measure and report when quantifying sound is called the sound

A

pressure.

71
Q

What weighting is used to measure sound when assessing hazardous noise?

A

A-weighting.

72
Q

Whole body effects are also known as

A

non-auditory effects.

73
Q

On what two factors are hazardous noise exposure limits based?

A

Sound levels and duration of exposure.

74
Q

What type of survey is used to classify whether a particular piece of noise-producing equipment exceeds the criterion level of 85 A-weighted decibels (dB[A]) and could present a potential exposure hazard to workers?

A

Noise source.

75
Q

What sound level meter response time would you select to determine the average noise levels for industrial type operations and when taking Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) compliance measurements?

A

Slow.

76
Q

When performing a noise source survey, at what weighting and response time should you set your sound level meter?

A

A-weighting, slow response.

77
Q

What environmental factors may affect the performance of noise measurement instruments and their readings?

A

Temperature, humidity, atmospheric pressure, and magnetic fields.

78
Q

At what angle to the sound source must you hold a random incidence microphone when collecting sound level readings?

A

70 degrees.

79
Q

What can be used to evaluate the whole body effects of sound?

A

An octave band analysis.

80
Q

What parameters must you set the octave band analyzer before performing the octave band survey?

A

Z-weighting, fast, sound pressure level (SPL).

81
Q

How often are audiometric test booths monitored when all measurements taken are within the Air Force (AF) criteria?

A

Annually.

82
Q

At what exchange rate in decibels (dB) should a noise dosimeter be set for measurements to be compared to Air Force (AF) standards?

A

3 dB

83
Q

Which is the conversion needed by noise dosimeters that indicate the daily dose as a percentage?

A

Daily equivalent sound level.

84
Q

What type of noise control should be considered first?

A

Source.

85
Q

What type of machine treatment control at the source is the most direct method used to reduce noise hazards associated with equipment vibration?

A

Reduce the driving force.

86
Q

How is attenuation estimated to combine the noise reduction rating (NRR) for earplugs and earmuffs worn together?

A

Add 3 dB to the highest NRR of the plug or earmuff.

87
Q

What occupational illness gradually develops from chronic exposure to poor ergonomic conditions in the workplace?

A

Work-related musculoskeletal disorder (WMSD).

88
Q

How can the presence of ergonomic risk factors affect the likelihood of work-related musculoskeletal disorders (WMSD)?

A

Elevating.

89
Q

What is the first step in performing an ergonomic assessment?

A

Gather information about the work place.

90
Q

Which type of ergonomic control is implementing a preventive maintenance (PM) program for equipment?

A

Administrative.

91
Q

What would be considered an indicator of long-term ergonomic hazard control success?

A

Reductions in musculoskeletal disorder incidence rates.

92
Q

Reversible freezing of superficial skin layers usually marked by numbness, whiteness of the skin, and possible itching or pain is known as

A

frostnip.

93
Q

Provided with the fighter index of thermal stress (FITS) zone, which office is responsible for determining the zone applicability within the aircrew working environment and provide appropriate warnings to the aircrew?

A

Squadron operations flight.

94
Q

Which office is responsible for the determination of wind chill index zones and notifying the installation command post of the resulting frostbite risk level (FRL)?

A

Bioenvironmental engineering (BE).

95
Q

The thermal components used to assess heat stress are air temperature,

A

humidity, air speed, and radiant heat.

96
Q

Which is an important precaution with the black globe thermometer before the measurements are taken?

A

Exposed for 25 minutes before reading.

97
Q

When calculating a wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) index, which situation requires the formula that does not use the dry bulb temperature?

A

Indoors/outdoors without solar load.

98
Q

What is the hierarchy of thermal stress controls?

A

Engineering, administrative, and personal protective equipment (PPE).

99
Q

What type of administrative control includes a schedule of increasing exposure and occurs during the first 10 to 14 days of heat exposure?

A

Acclimatization.

100
Q

What illnesses can Airmen potentially suffer from when working hard while wearing the chemical protective over garment (CPO) with heavy, cold weather clothing?

A

Heat exhaustion.

BIO EOC (6 decks)

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