Volume 4 Flashcards
1
Q
When a truck arrives at the receiving section, why should a spotter be available?
A
To help the driver back the vehicle into position for off-loading.
2
Q
What action does the cargo movement representative take when a discrepancy is found during off-loading of a shipment?
A
Reports it to the carrier and annotates it on the bill of lading.
3
Q
How does the receiving representative accept a shipment from the cargo movement representative?
A
By signing cargo movement representative’s copy of the bill of lading.
4
Q
Who checks to ensure shipments being off loaded are at the correct destination?
A
The receiving function representative.
5
Q
What does the SRANStock record account number (SRAN) identify?
A
The “ship to activity.”
6
Q
List the four basic temporary receiving holding areas.
A
(1) Receiving line.
(2) Bulk area.
(3) Outside holding area.
(4) Specialized holding areas.
7
Q
What are the two areas found on the receiving line and how are they identified?
A
Priorities and routines. Priority items are coded 01-08, routines (all others) are 09-15.
8
Q
What type of receipts must be processed before all others?
A
Mission capability (MICAP).
9
Q
How are the bulk area holding bays identified in the receiving area?
A
By a three-digit alphanumeric location.
10
Q
What type of items are placed in the outside holding area in the receiving section?
A
Large, heavy, or awkward-shaped items that can be stored outside without harm from the weather.
11
Q
What is used as the accountable document for items received from a source of supply?
A
(DD) Form 1348-1A.
12
Q
What is the difference between (DD) Form 1348-1A and (DD) Form 250 or other incoming source document?
A
The (DD) Form 250 can list more than one item and document number while the (DD) Form 1348-1A lists only one.
13
Q
What checks are made by the in-checker after removing receipt documentation from the packing list envelope?
A
Stock number, unit of issue, and quantity between the documentation and on the property.
14
Q
What documentation entries are made by the in-checker/inspector on a normal receipt document?
A
(1) Tote box/holding bay location.
(2) Quantity verification.
(3) In-checker’s signature and date the item was received.
(4) Inspector’s signature or stamp and date, if the item was sent to an inspector.
15
Q
List the two computer screens used to process receipts in the order in which they appear.
A
(1) Receipt inquiry screen.
(2) Receipt processing screen.
16
Q
When processing a receipt, what data does the receipt inquiry screen collect?
A
Data from the stored due-in detail records.
17
Q
What two entries are required on a receipt inquiry screen?
A
(1) System designator.
(2) Due-in document number from the receipt document.
18
Q
What happens to the quantity on the due-in detail record when a receipt is processed?
A
Decreases.
19
Q
Where do you find the quantity you should have received on a receipt document?
A
In print positions 25-29.
20
Q
What action do you take on an overage receipt?
A
Circle the incorrect quantity and write the correct quantity above it. Spell out the word “overage” on the document and annotate the amount of overage in a place that can be clearly seen. To process an overage receipt, input the exact quantity received in the QUANTITY REC’receipt (REC’)D data field and the overage quantity in the QUANTITY OVER data field of the receipt input. Input an “O” in the VARIANCE FLAG field to signify the overage. Also enter the tote box/hold bay location and then process the receipt.
21
Q
What entries are required to process a partial receipt when there is a suffix code at the end of a document number?
A
The document number and suffix, quantity received, tote box/hold bay location, and partial quantity flag P.
22
Q
What action do you take if you suspect an item is misidentified?
A
Send the item and the receipt documentation to an inspector.
23
Q
What TEXTransaction exception code (TEX) code is used to process misidentified property?
A
Q.
24
Q
Explain the difference between a (TEX) code P and a(TEX) code Z.
A
A(TEX) code P identifies an item damaged in shipment. (TEX) code Z identifies an item with hidden defects.
25
What document is prepared to receive a quantity that has been taken or extracted from another receipt document?
An extract document.
26
When are XB3 items turned in to the (LRS)?
When serviceable or unserviceable items have potential use or resale value.
27
Whose responsibility is it to establish and implement an effective program for returning serviceable XB3 materiel to the supply system?
Accountable officer.
28
Whose responsibility is it to prepare the documentation for an XB3 turn-in?
Receiving function.
29
Which form is used to process a turn-in request?
(AF) Form 2005.
30
What does AFI 23-111 say about property found on base?
It requires all property found on that installation and not accounted for to be promptly recorded on the appropriate records of accountability.
31
What (TEX) code is used to process an NF/ND equipment turn-in (FOBfound-on-base (FOB)) when ownership cannot be determined?
Plus sign (+).
32
What three factors regarding received property must be verified by the materiel management inspector?
Identity, condition, and status.
33
An item's identity includes what three things?
(1) Reference number (part number).
(2) Stock number.
(3) Item description (nomenclature).
34
What factor have you defined when you decide that an item can be used for its intended purpose without any alteration or modification?
Item status.
35
What series tag is used to ensure that each item is properly identified before issuance or storage?
DD Form 1570 series.
36
What condition tag is used to identify unserviceable materiel that is uneconomical to repair (condemned)?
DD Form 1577.
37
What condition does a green tag identify?
Unserviceable items that can be economically repaired or restored for use (reparable).
38
List the eight entries required on the (DD) Form 1570 series tag.
(1) Part number.
(2) Stock number.
(3) Item description.
(4) Inspection activity.
(5) Condition code.
(6) Unit of issue.
(7) Quantity.
(8) Inspector's name or stamp and date
39
List the three condition codes that can be used with (DD) Form 1574.
Condition codes A, B, and C.
40
If an item is suspended from issue pending a condition classification, what condition tag and condition code is used to identify the item?
DD Form 1575 and condition code J.
41
What is the only condition code that can be used with (DD) Form 1576?
Condition code D.
42
What circumstance requires processing a condition change input?
Whenever property deteriorates or becomes damaged in storage.
43
Which change input (transaction identification code) is used to correct an identification error for serviceable items in storage?
identity change (FCH).
44
Who is the certifying official that signs the (FCH) documents?
The chief of the function making the change.
45
What is the purpose of the surveillance inspection program?
To ensure that property is ready for issue and that deterioration and corrosion are controlled.
46
How often should you inspect storage listings and programs for compliance?
Daily.
47
During an inspection surveillance, what general guideline must be checked concerning hazardous materiel?
Ensure hazardous materiels are properly stored.
48
What form is used to report receiving discrepancies?
Standard Form 364.
49
When processing supply discrepancy reports, are overages or shortages over $100 per line item reported, or not reported?
Reported.
50
Are discrepancies found while materiel is in storage reported, or not reported?
Not reported.
51
Are discrepancies involving the shipment of privately-owned vehicles reported, or not reported?
Not reported.
52
When materiel, whatever the value, is addressed and shipped to the wrong activity, is it reported, or not reported?
Reported.
53
When incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments, whatever the dollar value, are received, is it reported or not reported?
Reported.
54
When processing supply discrepancy reports, if there are product quality deficiencies, is it reported or not reported?
Not reported.
55
When processing supply discrepancy reports, if there are transportation-type discrepancies, is it reported or not reported?
Not reported.
56
When supply documentation is missing or improperly prepared, whatever the dollar value, is it reported or not reported?
Reported.
57
What timeframe does the receiving activity have to submit the Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)?
(1) Within 24 hours of discovery for controlled items.
(2) Within 90 calendar days from date of shipment for CONUSContinental United States (CONUS) destinations.
(3) Within 150 calendar days from date of shipment for overseas destinations
58
What happens to the suspense file copy of an SDRSupply Discrepancy Report (SDR) when a reply is received?
It is destroyed.
59
What materiel management function evaluates and controls the incoming SDRSupply Discrepancy Report (SDR) program?
The procedures function.
60
Why does the procedures function keep a copy of all incoming Supply Discrepancy Report (SDRs)?
To determine the reason for the discrepancy and to forward the Supply Discrepancy Report (SDRs) to the element responsible for the discrepancy.
61
When are incoming discrepancies involving classified items followed up on?
Always, regardless of the cost.
62
Define covered storage.
Any storage space within a roofed structure.
63
What is the most common type of storage facility used throughout the Air Force?
General purpose warehouse.
64
What are the two areas usually found in a refrigerated warehouse or stockroom?
Chill space and freeze space.
65
How are open storage areas designed?
For storing items that do not require protection from the weather.
66
What serves to define and protect an open storage area?
A perimeter fence with a main gate serves as protection for the items stored and provides boundary limits that define the storage area.
67
List the two types of open storage areas.
Improved and unimproved.
68
What is the basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation?
Storage space.
69
Why should the location of structural columns be considered when planning a warehouse layout?
Space loss can be minimized by using columns as aisle and bay boundaries.
70
What type of warehouse area should be kept to a minimum to increase storage efficiency and space utilization?
Work areas.
71
When items with similar handling requirements are stored together, what storage factor is being observed?
Item similarity.
72
What storage factor encourages slower moving items to be placed farther away from active stock processing areas?
Item popularity.
73
What are the minimum and maximum numbers of positions that make up the warehouse location code?
No fewer than 10 and no more than 11.
74
What two factors should you consider when you identify a stockroom?
(1) Stockrooms are sequenced from left to right and from front to rear.
(2) Never use the letters I or O to identify a stockroom because they are easily mistaken for the numbers 1 and 0.
75
How are storage levels identified and how will they be labeled?
By a single capital letter. The letters will be placed at least every six feet along the bin row.
76
What are the reasons for processing an FCS?
To load or assign a warehouse location, to change a warehouse location, and to delete a warehouse location.
77
Why are location deletions normally processed?
To provide new storage space.
78
Why does the Air Force use bar coded bin labels?
To aid in inventory and warehouse validation.
79
When are reserve locations used?
When you have an overflow of assets that can't be stocked in the primary location, and only as a last resort.
80
List three reasons for doing a warehouse location validation.
(1) To verify that the asset is in fact stored in the warehouse location stated on the item record.
(2) To ensure that all item records indicating a serviceable balance are assigned a warehouse location.
(3) To identify records with duplicate warehouse locations.
81
Who prepares the warehouse location validation schedule?
Storage personnel.
82
How often are warehouse location validation schedules prepared?
Each fiscal year.
83
Ideally, when should a warehouse validation be completed?
Within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle or sample inventory.
84
When do you prepare the parameter input for your warehouse validation?
One day before starting the warehouse validation.
85
What corrective action do you take on a discrepancy when the stock number on the property in location does not match the stock number on the bin label?
Process an FCS change or move the item(s) to the correct location based upon your research.
86
What is the Serviceable Balance -- No Warehouse Location Listing (R36) used for?
To identify items having a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a DOLTdate of last transaction (DOLT) greater than three days.
87
List two ways you can conserve storage space.
Stack as high as practical and as compactly as possible.
88
Explain honeycombing.
Storing or removing items in a way that creates unusable areas of storage space in a stack.
89
What system of storage ensures that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated?
First-in-first-out (FIFO).
90
What should you do when you discover assets with no markings or identification labels?
Turn it over to an inspector for action.
91
Which TRICTransaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for an item in storage which has deteriorated or has become damaged in storage?
Ccondition change (FCC).
92
Which TRICTransaction identification code (TRIC) identifies a warehouse change document for items misidentified by the manufacturer?
Identity change (FCH).
93
Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for a U/I change to an item?
Unit price/unit of issue change (FCU).
94
Which TRIC should be used on a warehouse change document when, due to a change in the controlled item code, an item must be relocated to a more secure area?
Ccontrolled item code (1SC).
95
What verification checks should you make when selecting an item for issue?
Ensure the bin label matches the information on the issue document. Ensure the NSN and the unit of issue on the property tag/label are correct. Select the oldest dated item in the location. Select the quantity required on the issue document. Sign and date the issue document. Move the property and document for delivery to the customer.
96
How many copies of DDForm 1348-1A are produced for redistributions and transfers?
Three warehouse copies and three cargo movement copies.
97
What is a transfer and what are the two types of transfers?
Movement of materiel to DRMS; directed and nondirected.
98
What TRIC is used to transfer an item to DRMS?
TRM.
99
What code printed on the transfer document is used to decide whether or not demilitarization is required and what method to use?
DEMIL code.
100
What is a warehouse refusal?
When a needed issue item is not found in the location, or when the quantity needed is not sufficient to fill the request.
101
What information does an MSDS provide?
It identifies the hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product.
102
What publication can be used as a guide to identify potentially hazardous items?
Federal Standard 313.
103
What must the inspector ensure is assigned to all potential health hazard item records?
Issue exception code (IEX) code 8, 9, M, or Health hazard flag (HHF).
104
An Issue exception code (IEX) 9 is assigned to what type of item?
Serious health hazard items.
105
What is the purpose of a Health hazard flag (HHF)?
It eliminates repetitive initial reviews of the same item and ensures that all items in the categories identified in the health hazard publications have been screened, identified, and controlled.
106
Who makes the determination of which Issue exception code (IEX) or flag should be loaded on the item record?
Bioenvironmental Engineering Services.
107
How should corrosives be stored?
On pallets that are compatible with the materiel being stored.
108
Automatic water sprinklers should always be used when what type of acids are stored?
Organic.
109
What is the principle hazard of storing closed flammable containers?
The rupture of the containers resulting from increased pressure when they are exposed to fire.
110
How should aerosol cans be stored?
In a room separate from other flammables if space permits. A barrier should separate aerosol cans from other flammables containing aerosol cans capable of becoming self-propelled projectiles and airborne sources of ignition.
111
Why is outside storage of flammable liquid products in metal drums not recommended?
Because pressure buildup in the drums due to thermal loading from the sun and the likelihood of subsequent rupture or drum failure due to corrosion or handling creates a significant spill containment and environmental hazard.
112
Low-risk acids and pesticides, poisons, petroleum products, and certain batteries are examples of what type of items?
Low hazard.
113
What should storage personnel be alert for when performing a routine surveillance of storage areas?
For expired shelf life dates or for inspection/test dates that have passed.
114
How often should inspection personnel monitor the storage conditions of chemical and petroleum products?
Monthly.
115
How long must the completed chemical monthly inspection checklist be maintained?
Minimum of one year.
116
What governs the testing of aircraft and ground equipment lubricants and oils?
By retest cycle dates instead of shelf life codes
117
What is the goal of the AF-EMIS ?
The goal of the AF-EMIS program is to manage, track, and report hazardous material usage by ensuring only authorized personnel are allowed to order and receive hazardous material.
118
What supply classes does inspection personnel visually inspect or retest?
Supply Classes 6810, 6820, and 6850.
119
What list is published by DLADefense Logistics Agency (DLA) that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned?
Quality status list (QSL).
120
What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory?
AFTO Form 475
121
Aircraft and ground equipment lubricants and oils are governed by retest cycle dates as specified in what TO?
TO 42B-1-1.
122
What is the responsibility of all organizations that have excess serviceable materiels?
To turn in the unused quantity to the HAZMAT pharmacy.
123
Why does the HAZMAT pharmacy review residual materiel upon receiving a new requirement for hazardous materiel?
For possible free issue instead of placing a demand on supply.
124
What are the storage requirements for Top Secret materiel?
A class A vault is required under the control of the designated primary or subordinate Top Secret control officer. The area must be controlled and alarmed.
125
What are the storage requirements for Secret and Confidential materiel?
Must be stored in a class B vault or secure storage area. Storage areas must meet the supplemental safeguards outlined by local authorities.
126
How are precious metals stored?
In a security cage.
127
How often will the keys and locks be audited when key-operated high security padlocks are used to store classified materiel?
Each month.
128
How often will combinations be changed when combination padlocks are used to store classified materiel?
When a combination is placed in use, when an individual knowing the combination no longer requires access, when the combination has been subject to possible compromise, at least annually, and when taken out of use.
129
What is the purpose of Standard form (SF) 702?
To show the location of the container and the names, home addresses, and home telephone numbers of the individuals having knowledge of the combination.
130
How are unit packs marked for ESD items?
With a sensitive electronic device unit pack label on the identification marking side of the unit pack.
131
How many yellow caution labels must be placed on each exterior container for an ESD item when the container exceeds one half cubic foot?
Two 4 x 4 inch labels.
132
What type cargo code stored on the item record identifies an ESD item?
Three.
133
If the asset is on a detail record, what action is taken to process an ESD item to a maintenance function for testing?
The inspector processes the item to a maintenance function using TRICT MSI and activity code C.
134
Where can an inspector open the unit pack of an ESD item if it is required?
In an ESD protective area.
135
What are the two categories of functional check assets?
(1) Assets, other than buildup items, that require extensive functional check after issue for installation, and
(2) Assets identified by an inspector whose serviceability may be doubtful, due to apparent mishandling while in stock or being dropped.
136
Who is designated to act as the maintenance contact point for functional check items?
An individual jointly agreed on by the accountable officer and the chief of maintenance.
137
Adequate proof of a functional check of an item is provided by the stamp or signature of what person?
The base maintenance inspector.
138
How does a supply inspector process an item to an organization for functional check?
By processing a C activity code ISUIssue (ISU) to the organization and shop.
139
How often must a functional check listing be run?
At least semiannually.
140
What is a type I shelf life code? Type IIitem identification (II)?
Type I alpha codes are for items with definite nonextendable shelf life. Type IIitem identification (II) numeric codes are for items with a shelf life that can be extended after completion of inspection, test, or restorative action.
141
How many days before their expiration date are type IIitem identification (II) shelf life items scheduled for serviceability testing?
15 to 45 days.
142
When an item is destroyed as a result of testing, what action do you take?
Process a turn-in with supply condition code H and action taken code 9.
143
Define an item that is suspect or unsuitable.
Items that, if used before inspection for verification of serviceability, could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment.
144
How is a suspect item flagged on the item record?
By processing an FCD input with suspect materiel flag S.
145
How are customers notified of possible suspect items?
By daily bulletins, newsletters, or phone calls.
146
What management notice is output when a receipt or turn-in is processed against a stock number that is coded as a suspect item?
I302 management notice.
147
TCTOitems are modified to the extent that their form, fit, or function is changed. How is this TCTO item identified on the item record?
With Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 4.
148
How are items requiring TCTO action, where modification will not require reidentification to a new NSN identified on the item record?
By assignment of a TCTO flag.
149
Why does the inspector prepare an inquiry of all item records and detail records for the listed stock numbers on a TCTO?
To find out the total number of assets to be modified.
150
What information must be annotated on the cover letter to Maintenance Quality Control?
List by stock number the total number of spares on hand that require modification.
151
How often should you conduct an inspection of on-the-shelf TCTO items assigned either Numeric parts preference code (NPPC) 4 or the TCTO flag?
Monthly.
152
What action must the inspector take when an item is received and they cannot determine if TCTO actions have been done?
Issue the item to the maintenance function for the necessary inspection or test.
153
How are warranty and guaranty items identified?
On the container and in the purchase contract.
154
What information must be annotated on the receiving document for warranty and guaranty items?
Model, serial number, manufacturer's name and address, and any other data required locally.
155
What code is assigned to the item record of any warranty or guaranty item received?
Issue exception code (IEX) B.
156
How are aircraft tires stored?
In a cool, dry warehouse that is protected from sunlight.
157
How will unserviceable items be stored?
In a totally separate area from serviceable items. They will be tagged with the appropriate unserviceable tag and have a handwritten bin label identifying the location.
158
How are War consumables distribution objective (WCDO) items stored?
Using normal considerations for shelf life, hazardous materiels, and flammable materiels.
159
What are the four types of inventories?
(1) Complete.
(2) Sample.
(3) Special.
(4) In-use/in-place equipment.
160
What is the purpose of the inventory schedule?
To ensure that all assigned locations and details are inventoried at the correct frequency.
161
Using the table on page 4-2 in Volume 4 or your CDCCareer development course (CDC), how often will you take inventory of hand receipts?
Quarterly.
162
Using the table on page 4-2 in Volume 4 or your CDC, how often will you take inventory of pilferable-type items?
Annualy.
163
Using the table on page 4-2 in Volume 4 or your CDC, how often will you take inventory of DIFM assets?
Quarterly.
164
Using the table on page 4-2 in Volume 4 or your CDC, how often will you take inventory of Classified items?
Semiannually.
165
Using the table on page 4-2 in Volume 4 or your CDC, how often will you take inventory of Sensitive items?
Semiannually.
166
Using the table on page 4-2 in Volume 4 or your CDC, how often will you take inventory of custody receipt accounts?
As required.
167
Using the table on page 4-2 in Volume 4 or your CDC, how often will you take inventory of munition items?
Semiannually.
168
Using the table on page 4-2 in Volume 4 or your CDC, how often will you take inventory of critical items?
As required.
169
Using the table on page 4-2 in Volume 4 or your CDC, how often will you take inventory of Base Service Store (BSS)/Individual equipment element (IEE)?
Semiannually.
170
What is the inventory deadline date?
Julian date on which the inventory count begins.
171
Within what time frame should all transactions applicable to locations scheduled for inventory be processed?
t least one day before the inventory deadline date.
172
As a minimum, what data should be included on the recap sheet?
TRIC, stock number, warehouse location, quantity, document number, and system designator.
173
What program writes inventory count records to a data base file and assigns freeze code C to all item records within the input parameter?
R12.
174
Count records are written for what type of item records?
Those with a serviceable balance and a warehouse location within the parameters of the request.
175
What is compared internally upon the input of the count images?
Physical count quantity and record balance.
176
What is produced when the CIC input count quantity is unequal to the item record balance?
An inventory recount image (IRC)
177
What product do you use to reconcile recap sheets after the completion of the inventory?
D04.
178
What is the purpose of the 365-day inventory request?
To identify items not inventoried during the regularly scheduled inventories.
179
What freeze code is assigned to the item record for special inventories?
Freeze code I.
180
How is a freeze code assigned when an insufficient balance for a degraded issue transaction is detected?
Automatically by in-line programs.
181
To request a special inventory, what document does the requesting activity prepare?
Special inventory request (1GP).
182
What input removes freeze code I?
Special inventory count (IRC).
183
When is a physical recount performed on an inventory discrepancy?
Always.
184
What action must be performed before automatic adjustments to inventory discrepancies occur?
Physical inventory recount.
185
Specify the criteria for automatic adjustment.
Type account code B, controlled item code U, and total adjusted dollar value is less than $100 for pilferable items and $1,000 for unclassified items.
186
What are the four categories of inventory discrepancies?
(1) Resolved discrepancies.
(2) Unresolved discrepancies that do not meet criteria for further research.
(3) Unresolved discrepancies where further research indicates no personal responsibility.
(4) Unresolved discrepancies where further research indicates evidence of personal responsibility.
187
When performing inventory research, why do you review the Serviceable Balance-No WHSE Location Listing?
To see if a different warehouse location was assigned.
188
When researching an inventory shortage discrepancy, how far back do you go from the current date?
Go back to the last item record zero balance. If the error is not detected at this point and it is determined that more research is needed, continue back one year, or to the last inventory adjustment, or to the previous numeric Date of last inventory (DOLI).
189
What transaction adjusts the record balance and updates the applicable inventory accuracy records for a complete inventory?
An Inventory recount image (IRC).
190
What type of items require support documentation?
Inventory adjustments that don't meet the automatic adjustment criteria.
191
When automatic adjustments occur, what management products do they appear on?
Transaction/Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).
192
What does the last page of the M10 reflect?
Number of sample inventories in progress over 30 days.
193
Where is the original copy of the M10 filed?
Document Control.
194
What reflects inventory trends and problem areas?
Trend charts.
195
What activities analyze the causes of unresolved discrepancies?
Inventory and analysis functions.
196
What is a report of survey?
An official report of the facts and circumstances supporting the assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or destruction of Air Force property and serves as the basis for the government's claim for restitution.
197
When is a financial liability officer appointed?
Only when the initial investigation results are insufficient to make a determination of whether or not negligence or abuse was the proximate cause of the loss, damage or destruction of government property.
198
What must the Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) be for items assigned to a bench stock?
XB3.
199
What is the responsible activity for providing storage space and bins for the bench stock?
Supported organization.
200
What is the responsible activity for establishing the master bench stock detail record?
Customer service function.
201
What is the responsible activity for establishing and maintaining bench stock authorization lists?
Customer service function.
202
What is the responsible activity for ensuring proper usage, care, and security of its bench stock items?
Supported organization.
203
What is the responsible activity for installing, maintaining, and updating on-base bench stock placards?
Customer service function.
204
What is the responsible activity for red flagging bins when the on-hand balance is 50 percent or less of the authorized quantity?
Supported organization.
205
What does the master bench stock detail record identify?
Each item on a bench stock.
206
What TRIC is used to process requests for bench stock issues through customer service?
1BS.
207
What TRIC code is used to change the authorization or delete a bench stock item?
2BS.
208
When should a bench stock have an Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) or an Maximum authorized quantity (MAQ)?
When items are placed on bench stock that are not supported by past demands.
209
What code can be used to protect a temporary large quantity of bench stock items from disposition?
An excess exception code.
210
When are quantity changes recommended during a review?
Only when there are substantial changes in consumption patterns.
211
Who has the final say as to whether an item is deleted or not?
The using activity.
212
What action is taken when an item doesn't have an MRAminimum reserve authorization (MRA) but the organization representative feels it should not be deleted?
The item is extended until the next review.
213
How many phases of bench stock review are there?
Three.
214
What listing is used to accomplish the monthly recommended additions, changes, and deletions in the phase I review?
The M04.
215
When a phase IIitem identification (II) semiannual bench stock review is conducted, within what time frame must the review be accomplished?
Within one work week.
216
How often must Standard Reporting Designator (SRD) data and Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated?
Annually by a phase III review.
217
Which materiel handling principle provides the greatest economy in the movement of materiel?
The least handling is the best handling.
218
Which principle seeks to reduce the time required to travel a given distance?
Straight line flow.
219
Which materiel handling principle results in reducing the costs of operation (i.e., the simplification of maintenance, repair, storage, and issue procedures)?
Standardize equipment.
220
What problems can occur if you overload equipment capacity?
Excessive wear and tear on the equipment and increased accident potential.
221
What type of warehouse system includes all types of conveyors and Automated storage/Retrieval systems (AS/RS)?
Mechanized Materiels Handling System (MMHS).
222
What type of warehouse storage system includes all of the types of general purpose racks shelves, and bins?
Storage Aid System; SIOP Additive Spares (SAS).
223
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that a repair cycle item is returned in a reusable container?
Maintenance activity.
224
What category of reusable containers has an exterior container usually made up of metal, plastic, or synthetic materiel?
Long life.
225
What category of reusable containers should survive at least 10 round trips, and are usually made up of plywood, wood, or fiberboard?
Short life.
226
Define Nuclear weapons-related materiel (NWRM)?
Any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems; items removed/replaced as an end item (there are critical parts inside but are not normally removed separately).
227
What is the primary reference used for Nuclear weapons-related materiel (NWRM)?
Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff Instruction (CJCSI) 3150.04.
228
Define classified property.
Material which requires protection in the interest of national security.
229
In order to achieve positive inventory control of Nuclear weapons-related materiel (NWRM), what must be ensured?
A management environment must ensure each item is identified, accounted for, secured, segregated, and/or handled in a manner to ensure its safeguarding and integrity at all times.
230
What AFI is used by AF organizations that will formally designate in writing; personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel?
AFI 31-401.
231
Who is responsible to properly train all personnel required to handle controlled materiel?
LRS Chief Inspector.
232
How often are code components inventoried as designated in STRATCOM guidance?
At 15, 30 and/or 90 day intervals.
233
How are copies of source documents for classified items stamped or handwritten?
Stamped in red ink with the words "Classified Item."
234
For controlled, sensitive, classified and pilferable items, where are shipping documentation placed?
Inside all containers rather than on the outside.
235
What does materiel management activities sign to maintain custodial accountability?
DD Form 1907 or carrier furnished document.
236
Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the life cycle of these assets?
Item manager.
237
Who accounts for assets at both organic and contract repair facilities?
Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) item management team.
238
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) users can generate reports at what levels?
Headquarters and unit levels.
239
What information is used to query Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?
Passenger name, aircraft tail number, transportation control number, pallet ID, or mission number.
