Volume 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What methods can be used for submitting supplies?
A
Hand carried; mailed; or transmitted by radio, telephone, terminal, or e-mail.
2
Q
What data element or code is used to identify the item requested by the customer?
A
Stock number/part number.
3
Q
What data element or code contains a shop code used to identify the function that requested that requested the item
A
Document number.
4
Q
What data element or code identifies a request from a contractor for items needed to support an authorized contract?
A
Demand code.
5
Q
What data element or code identifies item records with unique issue conditions?
A
Issue exception code IEX
6
Q
What data element or code identifies exception conditions that require special processing procedures?
A
Transaction exception code TEX
7
Q
What data element or code identifies, controls, segregates, and processes selected inputs?
A
System designator.
8
Q
What additional information must be provided on a part number request if the part number is not known to be loaded in the system?
A
TO data or other appropriate reference.
9
Q
What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated UNDs and UJCs?
A
Effective reduction of Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) violations and the costs of priority requirements.
10
Q
What submission point is used to process expedite issue requests
A
Customer service demand processing function.
11
Q
How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for issue requests?
A
Two copies.
12
Q
What methods are available for determining the next available serial number to use on an issue request?
A
Copy two of the AF Form 2005 or preserial numbered AF Forms 2005
13
Q
What data element or code provides a means for the Materiel Management System data base to select the appropriate internal program?
A
Transaction identification code (TRIC).
14
Q
What data element or code uses a 14-digit alphanumeric number to identify a document?
A
Document number.
15
Q
What data element or code is used to indicate the urgency of need and justification (type of requirement)?
A
Urgency justification code (UJC)
16
Q
What data element or code is used to indicate how the Materiel Management System accumulates demand information for stock leveling and (DIFM) control?
A
Demand code
17
Q
What data element or code indicates the location where property is to be delivered?
A
Delivery designation
18
Q
What management notice reflects the quantity issued, killed, or due out?
A
I004.
19
Q
What management notice reflects due-out requisitioning action taken on an issue request?
A
I005.
20
Q
What management notice is provided for all part number requests that cannot be converted to NSN under program control?
A
I007.
21
Q
What management notice reflects the total base asset position of a killed request?
A
I023.
22
Q
What benefit does the CAMS Materiel Management System interface provide maintenance personnel?
A
The capability to order parts, retrieve current status, cancel their own requirements, and review canceled requirements.
23
Q
What activity code on an issue request identifies a CAMS document?
A
J.
24
Q
What management notification does the Materiel Management System output to notify the CAMS) system of a change in status to a maintenance due-out?
A
1SH.
25
What happens when the Materiel Management System detects an error in a transaction sent by CAMS?
The image is returned to the CAMSinput terminal along with the applicable reject notice
26
Who must ensure that all local resources are exhausted before submitting a MICAP requisition?
Both Materiel management and Maintenance.
27
Define cannibalization.
The removal of a part from one end item for installation on another end item
28
What are three reasons for performing a cannibalization?
To prevent, transfer, or terminate a MICAP condition.
29
What product is used to record cannibalizations?
MICAP worksheet or a locally developed form/register
30
What TRIC is used to process a cannibalization?
Notification report (NOR).
31
How is the Notification report (NOR) processed for cannibalization action taken to preclude a Mission capability (MICAP)?
Delete code 4, advise code Z.
32
How is a MICAP due-out established?
TRIC ISU with MICAP flag N and the appropriate MICAP UJC.
33
What Urgency-of-need designator (UND) codes reflect a MICAP requirement
1, J, or /.
34
What code on the MICAP report is used to identify the reason for the out-of-stock condition that made the MICAP request necessary?
The MICAP cause code.
35
How is the MICAP cause code assigned on the MICAP report?
Under program control
36
What information should you always be aware of regarding MICAP requirements?
Current status.
37
What CAMS data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a MICAP requirement?
731.
38
What is the purpose of a MICAP delete code?
To identify the reason for termination of a MICAP condition.
39
What MICAP delete code indicates a report that was reported in error
9.
40
What purpose do MICAP reports (B9*) serve?
To report the initiation, change, or termination of a MICAP condition.
41
How does MICAP reporting take place?
Automatically with the output of B9* images during on-line processing
42
When is MICAP reporting initiated?
When a due-in is established to satisfy a MICAPc ondition or when an existing requisition is upgraded to a MICAP condition.
43
When is MICAP reporting terminated?
At the time of a due-out release, downgrade to a non-MICAP condition, or cancellation.
44
What Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCDs) identify repair cycle assets?
XD or XF.
45
What listing is used to perform the Due-in from maintenance (DIFM) reconciliation?
D23
46
When does the repair cycle of an asset begin and end?
It normally begins with the item's removal from the end item and is followed by a replacement request to Base Supply. It normally ends when the original item is turned in as repaired, Not-reparable-this-station (NRTS), or condemned.
47
When is a Due-in from maintenance (DIFM) detail established?
When a repair cycle asset has been issued or backordered as a replacement
48
DIFM status flags identify different types of DIFM) details. What is the flag for the "Firm" DIFMD detail?
0.
49
DIFM status flags identify different types of DIFM details. What is the flag for the "Memo" DIFM detail?
1.
50
DIFM status flags identify different types of DIFM details. What is the flag for the "Credit" DIFM detail?
2.
51
What are DIFM change inputs used for?
To update the status and location fields on the DIFM detail record.
52
In what quantity are DIFM items normally requested?
One.
53
What must you load to the item record to allow multiple quantities of DIFM items to process?
Multiple DIFM flag.
54
What is the purpose of the D23?
To monitor status and maintain visibility of DIFM assets
55
How is the Q04 used?
To review the base in-house repair capability program.
56
What purpose does the D19 serve?
To provide a listing of Awaiting parts (AWP) due-outs, due-ins, and status detail records. It also provides financial data for maintenance managers to make repair decisions
57
What action do you take for items appearing in the D20?
Ensure all initial issues are validated with a letter of justification or exception
58
What paperwork must accompany DIFM items when they are returned to the LRS?
An AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, a condition tag, and the issue (ISU) or due-out release (DOR) document
59
How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are required for turn-in preparation if Supply Asset Tracking System (Supply Asset Tracking System ) is not used to process the turn-in
Three.
60
What happens to Expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) XF assets when they are turned in condemned?
A Document identification code (DIC) A5J document is produced to transfer the item to Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
61
What is the two level maintenance concept?
The practice of sending certain XD2 assets directly to the depot for repair, without first attempting to repair them at base level
62
What are the benefits of the two level maintenance concept?
It reduces the number of places where assets are repaired, which in turn reduces the manpower, equipment, and spare parts required for the repair, and the dollars required to support the function
63
Why is it important to process Turn-around (TRN) data?
Because it generates base stock levels and provides information to HQ Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) from which buy, repair, and distribution decisions are made.
64
What data is updated by processing a maintenance turnaround record update?
Demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record.
65
What is the source of data for Turn-around (TRN) processing?
Part IIitem identification (II) of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 350 from the maintenance activity.
66
How long are unserviceable assets stored?
Until disposition instructions are received.
67
What is the benefit of separate storage of assets?
To prevent an unserviceable item from being issued as serviceable when it's not
68
What Transaction identification code (TRICs) are processed once disposition instructions are received?
TRICTransaction identification code (TRIC) SHP, TRM or MSI.
69
What constitutes a deficiency?
Premature failure of an item during the warranty period
70
What documentation is provided to materiel management personnel at the time of processing?
A copy of the initial deficiency report (DR) submittal paperwork from G021 with the deficient property
71
Establishing a supply point is a coordinated effort between Maintenance and the LRS. What are the functions of Maintenance in this operation?
To provide sufficient space and facilities for accommodating the supply point.
72
When can Economic order quantity (EOQ) items be stocked in a supply point?
When authorized by the operations support officer.
73
What input is used to load, change, or delete a supply point detail?
FSP.
74
What organization code identifies a supply point transaction?
005.
75
What TRIC is used to load the storage location on a supply point detail?
FSP.
76
With what activity code, organization code, and demand code are requests for transfer submitted?
S; 005; N.
77
What term describes how items are issued from a supply point?
Over-the-counter.
78
What TRIC is used to issue an item from a supply point detail?
MSI.
79
What do you do to issue an item from a supply point detail with no replenishment action
Use TEX code F in position 54 of the MSI request.
80
What is the purpose of the supply point serial numbered log?
To assign sequential serial numbers to the document number date field of each supply point issue. This allows multiple issues of a single DIFMDue-in from maintenance (DIFM) item during one day's processing.
81
How often are supply point assets reconciled?
At least semiannually.
82
What listing is used to reconcile supply point assets?
Supply Point Listing (Q13).
83
When are issues (TRIC ISU) processed during the supply point reconciliation?
When the total on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity.
84
How are balance discrepancies reconciled?
Using special inventory procedures.
85
List the seven types of basic expeditionary airfield resource systems.
(1) Shelters.
(2) Environmental control.
(3) Power.
(4) Waste/water.
(5) Hygiene.
(6) Feeding.
(7) Airfield support.
86
What action occurs if you use TEX F on an MSI transaction?
Prevents automatic replenishment.
87
What TRIC input assigns the deployment flag on the Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) detail record
FKD.
88
What type of deployment is in effect when the host computer support base for the forward location assumes accountability?
Transfer.
89
Who must make the decision to transfer Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) accountability?
Major Command (MAJCOM).
90
What document is output to transfer the responsibility of deployed equipment to the equipment custodian on a short-term deployment?
Custody receipt transfer document.
91
Upon return from a short-term deployment, what input is necessary to delete the deployed flag on equipment detail records?
1ED/FME.
92
For a long-term deployment, what input transfers selected equipment items to the gaining base?
1ET/FME.
93
What output images are produced with FME processing?
FIL, FCI, REC, ISU, FED, FCS.
94
What is the primary function of Personal computer (PC)-Aircraft Sustainability Model (ASM)?
Logistics.
95
What is the support period of an Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP)?
60 days.
96
Which type of Readiness Spares Package (RSP) is used to support an organization in-place for the first 30 days of wartime operation?
In-place Readiness Spares Package (IRSP).
97
What record must be loaded prior to processing RSPReadiness Spares Package (RSP) authorization input records?
Serial number/control record -- TRIC 1EB.
98
What program is used to perform a reconciliation between XVF records and base level War reserve materiel (WRM) authorizations?
S05.
99
What warehouse function must the storing activity provide in the care of Readiness Spares Package (RSP) assets?
War readiness function.
100
Within how many days upon return from a deployment must RSPReadiness Spares Package (RSP) be inventoried?
10.
101
How are issues to an MRSPMobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) processed?
TRIC ISU, activity code U.
102
What TRICTransaction identification code (TRIC) is used to issue assets from an MRSPMobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP)?
TRIC MSI.
103
Who is responsible to ensure quality control of transactions prior to input into the Materiel Management System?
Team chief
104
List the three responsibilities the team chief is responsible for?
(1) Ensure listings are maintained and updated in the respective areas.
(2) Select the method for document distribution and creation.
(3) Ensure quality control of transactions prior to input into the Materiel Management System
105
What TRIC is used to manually issue items from retail materiel management system kit detail records?
MSI.
106
Why must degraded operations documents be input prior to processing any new transactions on-line?
To prevent rejects and incorrect data from being processed.
107
Who acts as the focal point for all supply wartime readiness issues to include contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operations?
Readiness.
108
What is a Unit Type Code UTC?
A five-character alphanumeric code that indentifies an armed forces unit.
109
What is the Aerospace expeditionary force (AEF) Unit type code (UTC) Reporting Tool?
ART is a CSAF-directed system developed to measure Aerospace expeditionary force (AEF) readiness.
110
What is Status Of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
Status Of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is a monitoring system of measured units and resources.
111
What identifies a Materiel Management Unit type code (UTC)?
The letters "JFB" in the first three positions
112
Why are extra controls necessary for small arms?
To prevent their losses
113
What must be annotated on all supply transaction documentation for weapons?
The serial number of the weapon involved.
114
What factors determine the type of bag issued to an individual for deployment?
The reason for the deployment and the deployment location.
115
Which bag contains general-support items?
A.
116
Which bag contains Chemical warfare defense equipment (CWDE)?
C.
117
What concept may be used to determine the sizes required for mobility bags
Tariff-sizing.
118
What PC program is used to manage mobility bags
Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS).
