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2S051 > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What publication describes the general duties and responsibilities for materiel management?

A

AFI 36-2101

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2
Q

List the seven general duties and responsibilities of a materiel management specialist as they are outlined in Enlisted Classification

A

(1) Perform administrative and management functions.
(2) Inspect and evaluate inventory management activities.
(3) Inspect and identify property.
(4) Provide support to maintenance activities.
(5) Perform technical materiel functions.
(6) Issue, ship, and transfer property.
(7) Plan and schedule materiel storage activities

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3
Q

Which program was created to promote a better understanding of the whole supply system?

A

Wholesale Logistics Program.

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4
Q

What rank is required to qualify for the logistics career broadening program?

A

TSgt or MSgt.

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5
Q

Who handles all enlisted issues for a major command for the 2S career field?

A

(MAJCOM) functional manager ((MFM)).

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6
Q

Who chairs the Air Force Supply Chiefs Advisory Board and is key to the education and training path of our enlisted force?

A

Career field manager ((CFM).

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7
Q

What is eLog21?

A

The eLog21 is the Air Force transformation campaign plan to improve logistics to meet both the current and future threat environment

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8
Q

What is the goal of Integrated Processes?

A

To create unified, enterprise-wide processes that cut across organizations and geographies to deliver the right support, to the right place, at the right time, every time

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9
Q

Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support throughout the (DOD)?

A

Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).

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10
Q

What is a Government purchase card (GPC)?

A

It is the official government credit card for making authorized purchases of supplies, equipment, and nonpersonal services costing up to $2,500.00

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11
Q

Define local manufacture.

A

Item fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.

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12
Q

What section provides decentralized logistic support for maintenance activities?

A

Maintenance Support Section

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13
Q

What two elements make up the Maintenance Support Section?

A

Maintenance Support Liason (MSL) and Flight Service Center (FSC).

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14
Q

Which source of supply is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system?

A

Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

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15
Q

How many categories are supplies grouped in?

A

Ten.

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16
Q

What is Class IV’s major classification?

A

Construction.

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17
Q

What is the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?

A

The (AFGLSC) is the central process-driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the Twenty-first Century (eLog21) campaign.

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18
Q

What are the three primary functions of the AFGLSC?

A

Ssupply chain (SC) Planning and Execution, Ssupply chain (SC) Operations, and Ssupply chain (SC) Strategy and Integration

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19
Q

How many organizations make up the AFGLSC?

A

Three.

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20
Q

List the four supply major processes.

A

Item accounting, file maintenance, reports, and accounting and finance.

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21
Q

Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested, to include interchangeables and substitutes

A

Due-out process.

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22
Q

What four types of transactions activate the due-out release process?

A

Receipt, a turn-in, an inclusion of new items in an interchangeable family of items, or an inventory adjustment

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23
Q

List the 11 major processes in the file maintenance function

A

(1) Status.
(2) Follow-up.
(3) Inventory.
(4) Special level.
(5) Equipment in-use.
(6) New item record load.
(7) Mission change special level.
(8) Miscellaneous file maintenance.
(9) Stock Number User Directory (SNUD).
(10) Interchangeable and substitution group (ISG).
(11) Mobility Readiness Spares Package (MRSP) and Mission support kit (MSK).

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24
Q

What are the five different types of reports?

A

(1) Daily.
(2) Monthly.
(3) Quarterly.
(4) As-required.
(5) Utility.

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25
Q

What major processes are involved in the A&F process?

A

Requisitioning and status, receipts, issue/turn-in, shipments, billings, and file maintenance.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of (AFMAN) 23-110?

A

To establish a uniform system of stock control throughout the Air Force.

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27
Q

How often is the USAF Supply Manual published?

A

Quarterly, in conjunction with the materiel management system software releases in January, April, July, and October

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28
Q

Which volume and part of AFMAN 23-110 is used most by materiel management personnel?

A

Volume 2, part 2.

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29
Q

What are three ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-110?

A

Table of contents, hyperlinks, search/find tools.

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30
Q

How are changes in AFMAN 23-110 identified?

A

By the SUMMARY OF CHANGES, dark red text, and a change bar on the left-hand side of the paragraph.

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31
Q

What is an NSN?

A

A 13-character alpha numeric number associated with a specific item.

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32
Q

What two entities make up the National Stock Number?

A

The Federal Supply Class (FSC) and the National Item Identification Number (NIIN)

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33
Q

What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?

A

M32.

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34
Q

What type of codes is used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer?

A

Record retrieval.

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35
Q

What information is shown on line one of an inquiry output?

A

Your input image.

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36
Q

In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed?

A

Narrative.

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37
Q

What information is provided from a part number inquiry?

A

The NSN, cage code, and technical order (TO) associated with that particular number.

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38
Q

What record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data?

A

5.

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39
Q

What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a given stock number?

A

R.

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40
Q

What are the four major types of computer inquiries?

A

Item record, detail record, part number record, and other records

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41
Q

What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific document number?

A

Detail record is used when detail records are to be read out for a specific document number.

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42
Q

How far back can users query CTH records?

A

One year or more.

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43
Q

What are the three CTH inquiry input formats?

A

(1) Stock number.
(2) Transaction serial number.
(3) Batch miscellaneous option inquiry.

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44
Q

What is the basic difference between a short and long CTH inquiry output?

A

The short format displays the information either on the terminal screen or as a printed report; the long output format displays the information only as a printed report

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45
Q

What three elements make up a reject phrase?

A

(1) A reject code.
(2) A descriptive phrase.
(3) An action flag.

46
Q

When you receive a reject, what should you do first?

A

Ensure that you put all the data in correctly.

47
Q

What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear a reject?

A

AFMAN 23-110, volume 2, part 2, chapter 7.

48
Q

Within what time frame should all rejects be processed?

A

One workday unless there are specific reasons that prohibit correction.

49
Q

What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

A

D818.

50
Q

Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force-delete a reject image?

A

3.

51
Q

Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure that forced-deletions of rejects are processed for only valid reasons?

A

Flight chief.

52
Q

Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of processing, and the volume and reasons for forced-deletion processing?

A

To determine effectiveness of transaction processing.

53
Q

What is the difference between a reject and a management notice?

A

Management notices do not stop computer processing.

54
Q

What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICs?

A

Controlled TRICs require authorization to process, uncontrolled TRICs do not.

55
Q

Who determines what transactions can be processed within the flights?

A

Flight chiefs.

56
Q

What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRICTransaction identification code (TRIC) by an unauthorized user?

A

A 301 reject notice.

57
Q

What product does the management and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized TRICT processing?

A

D20, part 8.

58
Q

Explain the concept of Supply management activity group (SMAG).

A

A revolving fund (or working capital fund) that finances inventories of required military materiel and generates income by selling the materiel.

59
Q

Under what operating principle is the SMAG designed to operate?

A

No-profit and no-loss basis.

60
Q

How many SMAGs are there within DOD?

A

Five.

61
Q

How many divisions make up the Air Force SMAG?

A

Six.

62
Q

What documents must support the production scheduling of all reports and listings?

A

Specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, an approved supplement, or an AF Form 2011

63
Q

Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production scheduler?

A

By the 15th workday of the same month.

64
Q

What form is used to submit permanent changes for production forecasting?

A

AF Form 2011.

65
Q

The personnel in what activity ensure that management reports and listings are complete and accurate?

A

Computer operations function.

66
Q

How often does the procedures element conduct surveillance visits?

A

At least annually.

67
Q

As a minimum, what information must be included on all checklists used to conduct a surveillance visit

A

All discrepancies identified within the past two years

68
Q

Why is the review of management products coordinated with the analysis element?

A

To be sure they are not preparing reports on the same problems and training requirements.

69
Q

What is the purpose of a customer support visit?

A

To determine if customers are receiving quality support; and if not, where support is unsatisfactory

70
Q

List the four Difficulty report (DIREP) categories.

A

(1) Major impact.
(2) Severe problem.
(3) Chronic problem.
(4) Cosmetic error.

71
Q

What category Difficulty report (DIREP) is normally corrected immediately?

A

Category I, Major Impact.

72
Q

What three members are usually required to submit a thoroughly researched and documented Difficulty report (DIREP)?

A

The user, Automated data processing equipment (ADPE) materiel management systems monitor, and Difficulty report (DIREP) monitor.

73
Q

What section is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring Difficulty report (DIREPs)?

A

Procedures element or, at the option of the accountable officer, the computer operations section.

74
Q

What purpose does the analysis program serve?

A

To determine the materiel management account’s effectiveness.

75
Q

What are the three types of analysis?

A

(1) Trend analysis.
(2) Problem analysis.
(3) Special studies

76
Q

What analysis method is used to satisfy a one-time requirement, or to solve a specific problem?

A

Special studies.

77
Q

Define the term management indicator.

A

A performance measure that represents a key result

78
Q

After gathering your data, what is the next step in performing an analysis?

A

To identify unfavorable deviations or deficiencies in the materiel management account.

79
Q

What is one important cause of unfavorable deficiencies that should be identified when applicable? Who must be notified to get them resolved?

A

Training deficiencies; training element and procedures element.

80
Q

What does the term degraded operation mean?

A

Describes the procedures used when the materiel management computer is down.

81
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that customer support does not end when the computer is down?

A

Each individual.

82
Q

Which text code is used on issue request when assets are available during degraded operations?

A

Transaction exception code (TEX) 6.

83
Q

Which text code is used to create memo due-outs during special requisitioning?

A

Transaction exception code (TEX) 7.

84
Q

When does recovery take place and what does it involve?

A

Once the computer is back online. It involves processing all the degraded operations input documents

85
Q

How do you perform a Quality control (QC) check?

A

By comparing the source document with the Document control record (DCR).

86
Q

What information on source documents must be compatible with the Document control record (DCR) for Quality control (QC)?

A

Document number, stock number, quantity, unit of issue, and system designator.

87
Q

What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filed? Destroyed?

A

F. D.

88
Q

When justified, what method, other than filing, may be used to store source documents?

A

Microfilm.

89
Q

If a document is still missing after it appears on three daily listings, what is the first step taken?

A

Conduct a search in your work space for the document.

90
Q

What is the final step in resolving a delinquent document?

A

Obtain a duplicate or prepare a replacement.

91
Q

How long does document control keep the cover letter and 1WC listing in the file?

A

Two years.

92
Q

How is the shipment loss analysis (M16) filed?

A

By fiscal year.

93
Q

Within what time frame must the M10 be filed?

A

Within 30 days of the date it was prepared.

94
Q

What are the two forms of the Consolidated Transaction Register?

A

Register form and microfiche.

95
Q

How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk?

A

Two years.

96
Q

What product is used as a historical document showing the status of the materiel management system database after establishing a new materiel management account?

A

The Conversion Audit List (R22).

97
Q

What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program?

A

To ensure that an item has been shipped.

98
Q

When is a shipment-suspense detail created?

A

When shipments and transfers process through the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

99
Q

What are two purposes of the shipment-suspense detail?

A

To provide a medium for recording transportation data applicable to the shipment and to allow the computer to respond automatically to shipment follow-ups on directed shipments.

100
Q

Without Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS), what input is used to update a shipment-suspense detail?

A

TRICT SSC.

101
Q

How are SSC inputs made to the materiel management system by bases operating with the CMOS interface?

A

By electronic interface with the Traffic Management Flight.

102
Q

What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details

A

R40.

103
Q

What elements are responsible for processing RVP inputs?

A

Document control, repair cycle support, inventory, and customer service

104
Q

Reverse-posting transactions involving price and price-change errors are limited to what two conditions?

A

When the amount of the unit price change exceeds $99.99, or when the unit price change variance is 500 percent or greater and the extended cost is more than $99.99.

105
Q

Once you have determined that RVP action is needed, what is the first step that you normally take?

A

Perform research.

106
Q

What determines the number of transactions that require reverse-posting?

A

The number of transactions associated with the error and those caused by the error.

107
Q

What activity assigns freeze code Q and notifies the activity responsible for the initial input on a reverse-post?

A

The activity finding the error

108
Q

How is freeze code Q deleted for all TRICs except Due-out release (DOR)?

A

Automatically by the RVP program once the RVP transaction has successfully processed.

109
Q

What is annotated on the output DD Form 1348-1A that is produced as a result of RVP processing?

A

The date and transaction serial numbers reversed.

110
Q

What transactions may be reverse-posted using automated RVP procedures?

A

Only transactions that have been converted to CTH records.

111
Q

What information is required to process an automated RVP?

A

Type transaction phrase code (TTPC), date, and serial number of the transaction being reverse posted.

112
Q

What must you do with all prefilled data on the automated RVPReverse-post (RVP) screen before input?

A

Review for accuracy.

2S051 (5 decks)

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